Non-Operating Room Anesthesia (NORA) Flashcards

1
Q

What are AANA standards of care 1, 2, 3?

A

1: Patient rights: autonomy, privacy, safety
2: Pre-anesthesia assessment
3: Patient specific plan

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2
Q

What are AANA standards of care 4, 5, 6?

A

4: Informed consent
5: Documentation
6: Functioning equipment

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3
Q

What are AANA standards of care 7, 8 , 9?

A

7: Plan modification
8: Patient positioning
9: Monitoring/alarms

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4
Q

What are AANA standards of care 10 and 11?

A

10: Infection control
11: Transfer of care

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5
Q

Functional capacity is measured in METs (metabolic equivalent of task). What is 1 MET equivalent to?

A

MET is rate of energy consumption at rest
1 MET=3.5 mL/kg/min
<5 MET Poor
5-8 fair
9-11 Good
12 Excellent

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6
Q

What are the MET scores and their equivalent level of exercise?

A
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7
Q

What does the modified aldrete scoring system PARS?

A
  • Respirations
  • O2 saturation (color)
  • Consciousness
  • Circulation
  • Activity (movement)
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8
Q

Review these ASA standards for NORA

A
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9
Q

Someone who responds to verbal commands, and is provided with anxiolysis would be considered what level of sedation?

A

Minimal sedation

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10
Q

Someone who responds to verbal/tactile stimulation but has a depressed LOC would be considered what level of sedation?

A

Moderate sedation

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11
Q

Someone who responds to painful stimulation but with impaired independent ventilation would be considered what level of sedation?

A

Deep sedation

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12
Q

If a patient loses consciousness and the ability to purposfully respond the anesthetic is considered?

A

general anesthetic

whether airway support is required or not

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13
Q

What type of anesthetic is recommended for cerebral coiling? Why might ETCO2 need manipulation during this procedure?

A

GETA w/ arterial line and large bore IV.

May manipulate CO2 for cerebral vasculature response:

  • Hypercarbia => vasodilation
  • Hypocarbia => vasoconstriction
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14
Q

What complications can accompany an aneurysm repair procedure?

A
  • Rupture, dissection
  • contrast sensitivity, anaphylaxis
  • groin hematoma
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15
Q

What anesthetic choice would be appropriate for abdominal aneurysm repair?

A

GETA, a-line, large bore IV

  • heparin, ACTs, protamine
  • foley
  • controlled mild hypotension
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16
Q

What anesthetic would be appropriate for a Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPS) procedure?

A
  • GETA, RSI
  • Large bore IV
  • A-line
  • albumin, PRBCs
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17
Q

What anesthetic considerations should be made with EP ablation?

A
  • sedation vs general
  • must have external defibrillation pads
  • hold anti-arrhythmic
  • xray protection (shield, lead, distance)
18
Q

Electrophysiology Ablation pros and cons?

A

Pros:
-minimally invasive
-60-85% curative on first attempt
Cons:
-Lengthy (2-6 hrs)
-uncomfortable
-may induce V tach/V fib (defib pads on @ all times)

19
Q

What is most important in prevention of radiation damage, shielding or distance?

20
Q

Describe the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade:

A

damaged endothelium or exposure to collagen ⇒ 12a ⇒ 11a ⇒ 9a + 8a ⇒ 10a + 5a ⇒ turns prothrombin (2) into thrombin (2a) ⇒ thrombin turns fibrinogen (1) into fibrin (1a) ⇒ fibrin + 13a needed for plt aggregation and clot formation

21
Q

Describe the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade

A

tissue trauma releases tissue factor ⇒ TF + 7a ⇒ 10a + 5a ⇒ turns prothrombin (2) into thrombin (2a) ⇒ thrombin turns fibrinogen (1) into fibrin (1a) ⇒ fibrin + 13a needed for plt aggregation and clot formation

22
Q

What drug(s) is/are direct thrombin inhibitors?

A

Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

23
Q

How do direct thrombin inhibitors work?

A

Antagonizes thrombin to prevent fibrinogen → fibrin

24
Q

What laboratory test will measure Pradaxa’s (Dabigatran) effects?

25
Q

What drug(s) is/are Factor Xa inhibitors?

A
  • Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
  • Apixaban (Eliquis)
  • Edoxaban (Savaysa)
26
Q

What is the MOA of Factor Xa inhibitors?

A

Prevents cleavage of prothrombin → thrombin

27
Q

What drugs can reverse the effects of coumadin?

A

Vitamin K
FFP

28
Q

What drugs reverse the effects of direct thrombin inhibitors and factor Xa inhibitors?

A
  • Factor concentrates
  • Prothromin Complex (PCC)
29
Q

What is the effect of CO₂ levels on cerebral blood flow?

A

Hypercapnia = cerebral vasodilation = Increased CBF/ICP

30
Q

Which aortic stenosis patients are considered for transcatheter Aortic Valve replacement?

A

Symptomatic pts with:
-high surgical risk (any age)
-predicted post-TAVR survival of >12 months
- >80 years old
Younger patients with life expectancy <10 years

31
Q

What are the anesthesia considerations for TAVR?

A

GA vs conscious sedation: discuss with surgeon
-GA ideal if needing ventilation control, muscle relaxation or if TEE used
Conscious sedation: improved hemodynamic stability

32
Q

What are the two approaches for TAVR and which is most commonly used?

A

Transfemoral (most common)
Transapical

33
Q

What are some anesthesia considerations for EGD/Colonscopy?

A
  • Lateral position
  • Biflow nasal cannula usually sufficient
  • Typically conscious sedation utilized-exceptions: esophageal obstruction/foreign object
  • active bleeding/vomiting = automatic GETA
34
Q

What are ERCPs used to diagnose and treat?

A

ERCP used to diagnose and treat biliary and pancreatic disorders
Commonly done for:
biliary stenosis
jaundice
common duct stones

MRCPs are only diagnostic

35
Q

Anesthesia considerations for patient undergoing ERCP?

A
  • Extreme comorbidites with this patient population
  • Prone with head turned to side
  • GETA
36
Q

What are the medication consideration for ERCP?

A
  • antispasmodic: Glucagon helps identify and enter spinchter of Oddi w/o causing spasm
  • Avoid opioids: causes Spinchter of Oddi spasm
  • Anti-emetics:
    rationale: Glucagon will trigger CTZ. GI surgery may stimulate GI tract (emesis)
37
Q

Indications for electroconvulsive therapy?

A
  • Bipolar/schizophrenia
  • Extreme depression
  • SI
38
Q

What is the mechanism behind use of electroconvulsive therapy?

A

Induces tonic/clonic seizure
-this causes release of neurotransmitters

39
Q

What is the treatment regime for electroconvulsive therapy?

A

Treatment is 3x/week for 12 treatments then therapy is weaned.

40
Q

What are the physiologic responses to electroconvulsive therapy?

A
  • Initial parasympathetic activity (incontinence/decreased HR)
  • Followed by 10-20 min sympathetic stimulation
  • Myalgias (may last 2-7 days)
  • Headache
  • Emergence agitation/confusion
41
Q

Anesthesia for Electroconvulsive therapy?

A

General anesthesia
-Ambu bag with bite block
-atropine/glycopyrrolate (to reduce parasympathetic outflow)
-Propofol/succinylcholine

42
Q

What are some additional anesthetic considerations for electroconvulsive therapy?

A
  • Hyperventilation
  • Protection of extremities
  • Ativan/Haldol on standby (may have manic episode after ECT)
  • Treat HTN with short-acting beta blocker (Esmolol)
  • IV d/c in PACU (even if inpatient d/t return to psychiatric unit)