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Spinal Anatomy 2 > Spinal Exam 1 study guide Q and A > Flashcards

Spinal Exam 1 study guide Q and A Flashcards

1
Q

Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the two toed sloth, the manatee, the ant bear, and the three toed sloth

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2
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

ontogenetic variation

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3
Q

Which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within the population?

A

gender variation or sexual dimorphism, ontogenetic variation, geographic or population based variation, and idiosyncratic variation.

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4
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

about 70 centimeters or 28 inches

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5
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

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6
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?

A

about 28 centimeters or 11 inches

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7
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?

A

about 58 centimeters or 23 inches

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8
Q

Distinguish between motion and locomotion.

A

motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site/location

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9
Q

What organ(s) are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

The eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear.

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10
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- rectangular
thoracic- triangular
lumbar- reniform

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11
Q

What is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate

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12
Q

What are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?

A

ages 7-9, appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
age 12 years, formation of the epiphyseal ring
age 15 years, formation of the epiphyseal rim

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13
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- posterolateral
thoracic- posterior, slight lateral
lumbar- posterior

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14
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para-articular process

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15
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-ray?

A

shingling

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16
Q

What is the name given to the lamina- pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- articular pillar

thoracic and lumbar- pars interarticularis

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17
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- anterolateral
thoracic- posterolateral
lumbar- lateral

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18
Q

What will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

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19
Q

What will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

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20
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed by the articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

the zygapophysis

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21
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior articular process/ post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/ pre-zygopophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

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22
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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23
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament.

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24
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

imbrication

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25
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- slight angle inferiorly
thoracic- noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar-no inferior angle

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26
Q

What is the name given to the union of all vertebral foramina into an apparent vertical cylinder?

A

the vertebral canal or spinal canal

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27
Q

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

A

the spinal cord/spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, the meninges

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28
Q

What is the typical shape/ outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

cervical-triangular
thoracic-oval
lumbar-triangular
sacrum-triangular

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29
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord/ spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each.

A

dur mater-tough mother
arachnoid mater- spider mother
pia mater- tender or delicate mother

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30
Q

Name and locate each space formed between hte osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord/ spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis.

A

epidural space- between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater
subdural space- between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
subarachnoid space- between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

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31
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

.anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
.anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
.basivertebral vein
.recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral-sinus vertebral nerve
.Hoffmann ligaments
.posterior longitudinal ligament

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32
Q

What are the branches of the spinal artery?

A 
.osseous arteries
.anterior spinal canal artery
.posterior spinal canal artery
.anterior medullary feeder arteries
.posterior medullar feeder arteries
.neural artery
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33
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

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34
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior distal radicular artery

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35
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/centra/sulcal perforating arteries

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36
Q

The continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris is called?

A

filum terminale internum

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37
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1, the cervical enlargement

T9-T12, the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement

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38
Q

What is a generic cord level origin-vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra;
L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra;
L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra;
S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

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39
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

typically, S4, S5, and Co1

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40
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

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41
Q

What is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

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42
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

The spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple. The rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple. ex: T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4, rib 4 joints with this same vertebral couple

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43
Q

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters.

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44
Q

What is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior articulation?

A

amhiarthrosis syndesmosis

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45
Q

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

modified diarthrosis sellar

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46
Q

What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?

A

amphiarthrosis symphysis

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47
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

ten

48
Q

What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

Joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

49
Q

what muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

the longus colli muscle

50
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

A

posterolateral, 45 degrees

51
Q

What ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?

A

ligamentum flavum

52
Q

The greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?

A

C5/C6

53
Q

List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

54
Q

What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransverse muscles

55
Q

What muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?

A

middle scalene and posterior intertransverse muscles

56
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?

A

60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)

57
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

the carotid tubercle

58
Q

What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?

A

The vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers

59
Q

What muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes?

A

the longissimus capitis, longissimus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis, and rotators

60
Q

What muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophyses?

A

the semispinalis capitis, multifidis, and rotator longus

61
Q

the greatest range of flexion- extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?

A

typically C5/C6

62
Q

What motions are coupled in the cervical spine?

A

lateral bending and axial rotation

63
Q

Ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will begin to decrease at which cervical vertebral couple?

A

the C5/C6 vertebral couple

64
Q

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

65
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

66
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

the chondrocranium

67
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

68
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

69
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal

70
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

71
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

72
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thing region of bone

73
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

74
Q

What is the definition of an osseous meatus?

A

a blind-ended passageway which does not completely penetrate through a bone

75
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

76
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

77
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

the neurocranium, the splanchnocranium or facial skeleton and the auditory ossicles

78
Q

What are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs

79
Q

What are the classifications of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs

80
Q

What are the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints?

A

suture, gomphosis, schindylesis, and syndesmosis

81
Q

What are the sutura vera?

A

true sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembraneous ossification

82
Q

What are the sutura notha?

A

false sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification

83
Q

What are examples of a permanent amphiarthrosis synchondrosis?

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

84
Q

What are the characteristics of an amphiarthrosis symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plan location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

85
Q

Which eample of an amphiarthrosis symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

86
Q

What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

87
Q

What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A

they resemble Pacinian corpuscles, located in deper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

88
Q

What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

A

resemble Golgi tendon organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

89
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands and synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

90
Q

What are the three classifications of synovial membrane?

A

articular, vaginal, and bursal synovial membrane

91
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyluronic acid

92
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

93
Q

What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?

A

water, cells, collagen type II fibers, and a proteoglycan gel

94
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

95
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

96
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

97
Q

Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication

A

weeping theory implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film
boosted theory implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid
boundary theory implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is adsorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed

98
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline, and tastes salty

99
Q

What are the classifications of diarthroses based on the number of articulating surfaces?

A

simple, compound, and complex synovial joints

100
Q

What is a complex diarthrosis?

A

the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus

101
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

diarthrosis ginglymus and diarthrosis trochoid

102
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

diarthrosis bicondylar, diarthrosis condylar, diarthrosis ellipsoidal, and diarthrosis sellar

103
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis arthrodia joints?

A

most zygapophyses of the vertebral column
intercarpal, carpometacarpal, and intermetacarpal joints of the hand
intercuneiform, tarsometatarsal, and intermetatarsal joints of the foot

104
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis ginglymus joints?

A

humero-ulnar joint of the elbow and interphalangeal joints of the fingers and toes

105
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis trochoid joints?

A

median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

106
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis sellar joints?

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle, and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

107
Q

What are the regions/ divisions of the internal carotid artery?

A

cervical, petrous, cavernous, and cerebral

108
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

the deep cervical artery, highest (superior) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

109
Q

What vessels form the retromandibular vein?

A

superficial temporal and internal maxillary vein

110
Q

What is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries?

A

remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema

111
Q

What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?

A

they begin as blind-ended sacs, have a greater lumenal diameter than blood capillaries, are more variable in lumenal diameter than blood capillaries, and are more layered in plexus arrangements than blood capillaries

112
Q

What are the names of the ducts of the lymphatic system?

A

right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct

113
Q

What parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?

A

the right side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall, as well as the right upper extremity, right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver

114
Q

What is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?

A

L2 from the cisterna chyli

115
Q

What are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?

A

the tonsils and Peyer’s patches of the small intestine

116
Q

What is the function of lymph nodules?

A

perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line and to aid in the immune response

117
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

they primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they do participate in the immune response

Spinal Anatomy 2 (5 decks)

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