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Practice Questions > Spinal anatomy from 9/99 > Flashcards

Spinal anatomy from 9/99 Flashcards

1
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_is contraction as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_is to relaxation.
A. Diastole; systole
B. Systole;diastole
C. Ejection; filling
D. Filling; relaxing
A

B. Systole;diastole

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2
Q

Which of the following would increase heart rate?
A. increase levels of norepinephrine and/ or epinephrine
B. faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential
C. increased sympathetic stimulation of the SA node
D.decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers
E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

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3
Q

If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the
A. heart rate will increase
B. membrane will hyperpolarize
C. membrane will depolarize
D. heart rate will decrease
E. both heart rate will decrease and membrane will hyperpolarize

A

E. both heart rate will decrease and membrane will hyperpolarize

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4
Q 
Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the \_\_\_\_\_\_in an ECG.
A. QRS complex
B. T wave
C. R-T interval 
D. P wave
E. P-R interval
A

A. QRS complex

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5
Q 
A percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the :
A. hematocrit
B. specific gravity
C. differential cell count
D. packed volume
E. viscosity
A

A. hematocrit

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6
Q 
The volume of blood ejected from ventricle during a contraction is called the :
A. end- diastolic
B. cardic output
C. cardiac reserve
D. end- systolic volume
E. stroke volume
A

E. stroke volume

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7
Q 
Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue, except:
A. relaxation of precapillary sphincters
B. increased vessel diameter
C. increased blood pressure
D. increased hematocrit
E. decreased peripheral resistance
A

D. increased hematocrit

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8
Q 
Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following, except the :
A. osmolarity of intersitial fluids
B. blood vessel diameter
C. length of a blood vessel
D. blood visocosity
E. flow characteristics
A

A. osmolarity of intersitial fluids

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9
Q 
Which of the following regulates blood flow through the body?
A. turbulence
B. vascular resistance
C. blood viscosity 
D. vessel diameter
E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above

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10
Q 
Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells that surround it can occur only in:
A. arteries
B. venules
C. arterioles 
D. caprillaries
E. veins
A

D. caprillaries

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11
Q

Lymphatic vessels commomly occur in association with:
A. hyaline cartilage
B. sensory nerve endings
C. adipode tissue
D. blood vessels
E. both hyaline cartilage and adipode tissue

A

D. blood vessels

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12
Q

Lymph nodes do all of the following, except that they:
A. Produce antibodies
B. monitor the contents of lymph
C. detect pathogens
D. remove excess nutrients from the lymph
E. remove debris and pathogens

A

D. remove excess nutrients from the lymph

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13
Q

Platelets function in all of the following , except:
A. initiating the clotting process
B. releasing chemicals the stimulate clotting
C. contraction after clot formation
D. forming a temporary clump in injured areas
E. dissolving a formed clot

A

E. dissolving a formed clot

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14
Q

People with type AB blood are considered the “universal recipient” for transfusions because:
A. their blood cells lack A and B antigens
B. they are usually Rh negative
C. their blood lacks A or B antibodies
D. they usually have very strong immune systems
E. their blood is plentiful in A and B antibodies

A

C. their blood lacks A or B antibodies

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15
Q 
When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract,
A. the lungs shrink
B. expiration occurs
C. the volume of the thorax decreases
D. the volume of the thorax increases 
E.  the volume of the lungs decreases
A

D. the volume of the thorax increases

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16
Q

In quiet breathing,
A. inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions
B. inspiration is passive and expiration involve muscle contractions
C. inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive
D. inspiration and expiration are both passive
E. none of the above

A

C. inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive

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17
Q 
Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known?
A. respiratory minute volume
B. inspiratory reserve volume
C. forced vital capacity 
D. expiratory reserve volume
E. anatomical dead space
A

A. respiratory minute volume

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18
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_equals the respiratory rate X (tidal volume)- anatomic dead space)
A. pulmonary ventilation 
B. external respiration rate
C. respiratory minute volume 
D. vital capacity 
E. alveolar ventilation rate
A

E. alveolar ventilation rate

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19
Q 
In response to respiratory alkalosis the, 
A. respiratory rate increases 
B.kidneys secrete more hydrogen ions
C. tidal volume increases 
D. kidneys retain more hydrogen ions
E. kidneys conrerve biocarbonate
A

D. kidneys retain more hydrogen ions

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20
Q 
The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in healthy person is\_\_\_\_\_\_
A. loss of oxygen in tissues
B. increase of carbon dioxide
C. pH (acidosis)
D. pH (alkalosis)
A

B. increase of carbon dioxide

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21
Q

For maximum loading of hemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs, the:
A.BPG levels in the red bloods cells should be high
B. PCO2 should be low
C. PCO2 should be high
D. PO2 should be about 70 mmHg
E. pH should be slightly acidic

A

B. PCO2 should be low

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22
Q

Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is
A. carried by white blood cells
B. dissolved in plasma
C. bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide
D. bound to hemoglobin
E. in iconic form as solute in the plasma

A

D. bound to hemoglobin

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23
Q

The respiratorty membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of:
A. moist cuboidal epithelium
B. simple squamous epthellium
C.cliliated squamous
D. sufactant cells
E. pseudostratified cliliated columar epithelium

A

B. simple squamous epthellium

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24
Q 
The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are: 
A. alveoli 
B. terminal bronchioles
C. interlobular septa
D. pleural spaces 
E. bronchioles
A

A. alveoli

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25
Q

When water is lost, but electrlytes are retained,
A. the osmolarity of the ECF falls
B. osmosis moves water from the ICF to the ECF
C. both the ECF and the ICF become more dilute
D. there is an increase in volume of the ICF
E. none of the above

A

B. osmosis moves water from the ICF to the ECF

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26
Q 
The ions in in higher concentration in the ECF are:
A. sodium and phosphorus
B. sodium and calcium 
C. sodium and chloride
D. sodium and hydrogen
E. sodium and potassium
A

C. sodium and chloride

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27
Q 
Under normal conditions, glomerular filtration depends on three man pressures. Which of those pressure is a pressure  that favors the filtration pressure?
A. capsular colloid osmotic pressure
B. blood colloid osmotic pressure 
C. capsular hydrostatic pressure
D. urinary bladder hydrostatic pressure 
E. glomerular hydrostatic pressure
A

E. glomerular hydrostatic pressure

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28
Q

The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it________
A. has a basement membrane
B. is imermeable
C. is drained by an efferent arteriole
D. has a blood pressure much lower than othe organ systems

A

C. is drained by an efferent arteriole

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29
Q 
The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule is:
A. secretion of drugs
B. filteration 
C. secretion of acids and ammonia
D. adjusting the urine volume 
E. reabsorbing nutrients
A

E. reabsorbing nutrients

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30
Q

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n)________
A. decrease in the production of ADH
B. increase in the production of ADH
C. increase in the production of aldosterone
D. decrease in the concentration of the blood plasma

A

B. increase in the production of ADH

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31
Q 
A chemical that minimzes changes in the pH of a body fluid by releasing or building hydrogen ion is called a(n):
A. electrolyte
B. buffer
C. acid
D. compensation 
E. alkai
A

B. buffer

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32
Q

The primary role of the carbonic-acid -bicarbonate buffer system is to:
A. limit pH changes caused by organic and fixed acids
B. buffer stomach acid
C. increase ventilation
D. buffer carbonic acid formed by carbon dioxide
E. buffer the urine

A

A. limit pH changes caused by organic and fixed acids

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33
Q 
Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called:
A. pendular movements 
B. churning movements
C. segmentation 
D. peristalsis
E.  mastication
A

D. peristalsis

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34
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_supports most of the small intestine and provides stability and limited movemnt.
A. greater omentum
B. mesentery proper
C. falciform ligament 
D. lesser omentum 
E. diaphragm
A

B. mesentery proper

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35
Q 
The enzyme pepsin digests:
A. nucleic acids
B. lipids
C. vitamins
D. carbohydrates
E. proteins
A

E. proteins

36
Q 
The\_\_\_\_\_\_mechanically digests ingested food.
A. small intestine
B. large intestine
C. esophagus
D. anus
E. stomach
A

E. stomach

37
Q 
This organ is primarily responsible for water absorption.
A. small intestine
B. stomach
C. large intestine
D. esophagus
E. anus
A

C. large intestine

38
Q 
Which of these enhance the absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine?
A. the plicae circulares 
B. the villi 
C. the microvilli
D. intestinal movements
E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above

39
Q 
In the digestive sysytem, rings of smooth muscle, called\_\_\_\_\_\_regulate the movement of materials along internal passageways.
A. muscularis externa  
B. muscularis mucosae
C. circular mucosae
D. sphincters
E. longitudinal muscle
A

D. sphincters

40
Q

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located_______

A

.

41
Q 
When a neuron is in facilitated state, the membrane of its soma is 
A. at threshold potential
B. close to threshold potential 
C. hyperpolarized 
D. experiencing an action potential
A

B. close to threshold potential

42
Q

Unmyelinated neurons
A. conduct action potentials faster than myelinated
B. do not rely on support cells for nutrition, protection and growth factors
C. are less energy efficient than myelinated cells
D. have larger axon diameters that myelinated cells

A

C. are less energy efficient than myelinated cells

43
Q 
The ability of multiple synapses to influence a single neuron at exactly the same time is the due to 
A. the activity of the Na+/K+pump
B. temporal summation 
C. spatial summation 
D. all of these
A

C. spatial summation

44
Q

Which statement about Excitatory Post Potentials (EPSP) is true?
A. the size of the EPSP on the soma determines the frequency of action potentials generated on the neuron
B. a single EPSP can only last as long as a single action potential
C. if an EPSP is large enough it can generate new action potentials during the absolute Refractory Period
D. EPSP’s are generated any time either K+nor Cl- channels are opened on a neuron’s cell membrane.

A

A. the size of the EPSP on the soma determines the frequency of action potentials generated on the neuron

45
Q

A neuron is in a state of Synaptic fatigue when it is unable to
A. develop EPSP’s or IPSP’s in response to neurotransmitters
B. release neurotransmitters due to depletion of neurotransmitters due to depletion of neurotransmitter stores
C. generate action potentials
D. generate ATP

A

B. release neurotransmitters due to depletion of neurotransmitters due to depletion of neurotransmitter

46
Q

An increased frequency of action potentials can increase the number of neurotransmitters released per action potential as a result of
A. exceeding the transport maximum of the calcium pump at the axon ending
B.exceeding the transport maximum of the Na+/K+ pump
C. increased production of ATP at the axon ending
D. increased production of neurotransmitters

A

.

47
Q 
Skeletal motor neurons synapse on the \_\_\_of a skeletal muscle fiber 
A. sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. perimysium 
C. t tubules 
D. motor end plate
A

D. motor end plate

48
Q

Damage to the Cerebellum can cause all of the following except:
A. difficulty with maintaining balance
B. lack of coordination of multiple muscles
C. hypertonia(excessive rigidity of muscle)
D. dysmetria(problems with space and time)

A

C. hypertonia(excessive rigidity of muscle)

49
Q 
Which region of the brain inhibits contraction of skeletal muscle that opposes the intended movement?
A. basal ganglia
B. cerebellum
C. red nucleus 
D. primary motor cortex
A

A. basal ganglia

50
Q 
The primary motor cortex receives input that modifies its output from the 
A. basal ganglia 
B. cerebellum
C. premotor cortex
D. all of these
A

D. all of these

51
Q

Which statement about skeletal muscle spindles is false?
A. the primary sensory neurons of muscle spindles have nonadapting receptors and provide less information when the muscle is lengthening than when it is holding a constant contraction
B. skeletal muscle spindles activate contraction of a muscle is stretched
C. skeletal muscle spindles work with the Golgi tendon organs to maintain muscle tone
D. activation of muscle spindle gamma motor neurons resets the sensitivity of the muscle spindle receptors

A

A. the primary sensory neurons of muscle spindles have nonadapting receptors and provide less information when the muscle is lengthening than when it is holding a constant contraction

52
Q 
Referred pain is the result of
A. lateral inhibition 
B. surround inhibition 
C. divergence with amplification 
D. convergence
A

D. convergence

53
Q

Slow adapting sensory neurons
A. completely stop generating action potentials in response to a constant strength stimulus
B. provide only phasic dynamic information in response to changes in the strength of stimuli
C. change their response to stimuli as a result of changes in their extra cellular structures
D. decrease their frequency of action potentials in response to a constant strength stimulus

A

D. decrease their frequency of action potentials in response to a constant strength stimulus

54
Q

Slow pain fibers do all of the following except:
A. convey information about dull chronic
B. activate spinal reflexes
C. activate pathways involved in emotional pain
D.activate the reticular activating system

A

B. activate spinal reflexes

55
Q 
Which region of the brain regulates temperature control, food intake and reproductive function 
A. hypothalamus
B.thalamus 
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
A

A. hypothalamus

56
Q

Which statement about autonomic nervous system is false?
A. the Parasympathetic Nervous system can influence each of its target organs individually without altering the function of its other target organs
B. the Sympathetic Nervous system influences all of its target organs at the same time in response to a “fight or flight” situation
C. the Sympathetic Nervous system is able to allow the body to adapt to changing environments
D. the Parasympathetic Nervous system always inhibits its target organs and the Sympathetic Nervous system always excites its target organs.

A

D. the Parasympathetic Nervous system always inhibits its target organs and the Sympathetic Nervous system always excites its target organs.

57
Q 
Which region of the brain stores learned information about somatosensory information that enables a person to recognize a familiar object by touch without seeing it?
A the primary somatosensory cortex
B. the secondary somatosensory cortex 
C. the primary motor cortex 
D. the thalamus
A

B. the secondary somatosensory cortex

58
Q 
New memory formation depends on on appropriate input to the cerebral cortex from the 
A. hypothalamus 
B. medulla oblongata
C. hippocampus 
D. pons
A

C. hippocampus

59
Q 
Which region of the cerebral cortex is responsible for empathetic  understanding of another individual?
A. medial prefrontal cortex
B. occipital lobes
C. temporal lobes
D. parietal lobes
A

A. medial prefrontal cortex

60
Q

Interpretation of visual information by the occipital lobes involves
A. analysis of color, form , and movement by separate regions of the visual cortex
B. analysis as a complete picture by one region of visual cortex
C. only primary visual cortex without input from other regions of the brain
D. only cortical pathways that does not include input regarding memory and expeactions

A

A. analysis of color, form , and movement by separate regions of the visual cortex

61
Q

Which statement about the cerebral cortex is false?
A. each region of the cerebral cortex can function completely independently of other regions of the brain
B. the cerebral cortex has specialized anatomical locations for interpreting the input from the various senses
C. the cerebral cortex depends on input from lower regions of the brain to be able to function
D. association areas of the cerebral cortex must interact with the primary sensory areas to enable the cerebral cortex to fully interpret incoming sensory information

A

A. each region of the cerebral cortex can function completely independently of other regions of the brain

62
Q

When photons of light interact with the cis retinal of Rhodopsin
A. the rod membrane depolarizes
B. the rod membrane becomes hyperpolarized
C. rods release more glutamate onto bipolar cells
D. glutamate excites bipolar cells

A

B. the rod membrane becomes hyperpolarized

63
Q 
For near vision 
A. the ciliary muscle is contracted
B. the radial  muscle of the iris is contracted
C. the lens is flattened
D. glutamate excites bipolar cells
A

A. the ciliary muscle is contracted

64
Q

Which characteristic does cardiac muscle share with skeletal muscle?
A. it only contracts when stimulated by neurons
B. it has sarcomeres
C. it has gap junctions between its muscle cells
D. it is excited to contract by Acetyl choline

A

C. it has gap junctions between its muscle cells

65
Q

Which characteristic does cardiac muscle share with visceral smooth muscle?
A. it only contracts when stimulated by neurons
B. it has sarcomeres
C. it has gap junctions between its muscle cells
D. it is excited to contract by Acetyl choline

A

C. it has gap junctions between its muscle cells

66
Q

During a cardiac plateau action potential
A. heart muscle can become tetanized
B. the absolute refractory period lasts longer than the contraction
C. permeability to Ca++ is highest during the repolarization phase
D. no blood is able to flow from the aorta into the arteries

A

B. the absolute refractory period lasts longer than the contraction

67
Q 
Which skeletal muscle molecule covers the myosin binding site on acting at rest?
A. myosin 
B. troponin 
C. tropomyosin 
D. calmodulin
A

C. tropomyosin

68
Q

Which skeletal muscle function does not use ATP?
A. breaking of the actin-myosin bond
B. phosphorylation of the myosin head
C. the Na+/K+ pump
D. movement of calcium into the cytoplasm from the sarcoplasmic recticulum

A

D. movement of calcium into the cytoplasm from the sarcoplasmic recticulum

69
Q

Slow oxidative muscle fibers
A. have smaller diameters than fast anaerobic fibers
B. are stronger than fast anaerobic fibers
C. have lesser capillary supply than fast anaerobic fibers
D. have more sarcoplasmic reticulum than fast anaerobic fibers

A

A. have smaller diameters than fast anaerobic fibers

70
Q

Which statement about skeletal muscle is false?
A. the faster the muscle contracts, the more force it can develop
B. skeletal muscle sarcomeres are at their ideal length to develop the most actin-myosin bonds at the resting length of the muscle
C. small motor units are the first motor units that fatigue when a muscle contracts at maximal strength
D. warm muscle can develop a greater amount of external force than cold muscle

A

A. the faster the muscle contracts, the more force it can develop

71
Q 
Which molecule is not found in smooth muscle?
A. actin 
B. myosin 
C. troponin 
D. calcium
A

C. troponin

72
Q 
Which muscle type has gap junctions between muscle cells?
A. fast skeletal 
B.multi-unit smooth muscle 
C. single unit( unitary) smooth muscle 
D. slow skeletal muscle fibers
A

C. single unit( unitary) smooth muscle

73
Q

Which statement about visceral smooth muscle is true?
A. it is more highly organized than skeletal muscle
B. it has more sacroplasmic reticulum than skeletal muscle
C. it has more highly developed ttubules than skeletal muscle
D. it can develop more tension per cubic centimeter than skeletal muscle

A

D. it can develop more tension per cubic centimeter than skeletal muscle

74
Q 
Which brain region regulates hormone secretion? 
A. hypothalamus 
B. thalamus 
C. medulla oblongata
D. hippocampus
A

A. hypothalamus

75
Q

When negative feedback processes are working correctly, failure of the ability of the thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone in response to thyroid stimulating hormone will lead to
A. increased secretion of TSH
B. decreased secretion of TSH
C. decreased size of the thyroid gland
D. negative feedback control of the anterior gland by thehypothalamus

A

A. increased secretion of TSH

76
Q 
Which hormone stimulates gluconegenesis?
A. insulin 
B. cortisol
C. growth hormone
D. calcitriol
A

B. cortisol

77
Q 
Thyroid hormone stimulates
A. weight gain
B. mitochondrial atrophy 
C. sleep 
D. heat production
A

D. heat production

78
Q

Growth hormone stimulates the growth process by:
A. stimulating the production of somatomedins by the liver
B. inhibiting insulin action
C. stimulating fat synthesis
D. directly stimulating cyclic AMP production by bone cells

A

A. stimulating the production of somatomedins by the liver

79
Q 
Growth hormone secretion can be stimulated by all of the following except
A. ingestion of protein 
B. elevated blood glucose
C. exercise
D. deep sleep
A

B. elevated blood glucose

80
Q 
Which event stimulates the secretion of aldosterone?
A. high blood pressure
B. high blood glucose
C. hyperkalemia 
D. high blood osmotic pressure
A

C. hyperkalemia

81
Q

Which hormone stimulates testosterone production by the test?
A. luteinizing hormone(LH)
B. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. testicular gonadotrophin releasing hormone
D. oxytocin

A

A. luteinizing hormone(LH)

82
Q 
Which molecule stimulates uterine contractions?
A. norepinphrine
B. relaxin
C. prostaglandins F 2 alpha
D. progesterone
A

C. prostaglandins F 2 alpha

83
Q 
Negative feedback regulation of FSH secretion is provided by 
A. anti-mullerian hormone
B. testosterone
C. gonadotrophin
D. inhibin
A

D. inhibin

84
Q 
Which hormone rescues the corpus luteum from luteolysis?
A. progesterone
B. relaxin 
C. estrogen 
D. human chorionic gonadotrophin( hCG)
A

D. human chorionic gonadotrophin( hCG)

85
Q 
Aerobic exercise can change fast anaerobic muscle fibers into?
A. slow anaerobic fibers
B. slow oxidative fibers
C. fast intermediate oxidative fibers
D. fast intermediate anaerobic fibers
A

C. fast intermediate oxidative fibers

86
Q 
Which hormone can cause muscle atrophy?
A. testosterone
B. growth hormone
C. insulin 
D. cortisol
A

D. cortisol

87
Q 
Which physical characteristic enhances the ability of muscle cells to use oxygen?
A. increased mitochondria 
B. increased glycolytic activity
C. increased glycogen stores
D. increased diameter
A

A. increased mitochondria

Practice Questions (7 decks)

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