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Part I Boards > Spinal Anatomy > Flashcards

Spinal Anatomy Flashcards

0
Q

Sinuvertebral N. is a rich nerve supply that comes from the:

A

Medial branch of the Dorsal (posterior) primary division of the spinal nerve

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1
Q

Sinuvertebral Nerve is a branch from:

A

N. of VonLuschka –> Recurrent Meningeal N.

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2
Q

Flexion & Extension pivots around the _____ axis.

A

Coronal Axis

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3
Q

Left & Right Rotation pivots around the _____ axis.

A

Longitudinal axis

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4
Q

Left & Right Lateral Flexion pivots around the _____ axis.

A

Saggital axis

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5
Q

Overall Greatest amount of ROM in Spine takes place @

A

C4-C6

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6
Q

Greatest amount of flexion & extension of a face joint takes place @:

A

C5-C6

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7
Q

Greatest amount of overall ROM in Lumbar spine takes place @

A

L4-L5

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8
Q

Greatest amount of Flexion & Extension in Lumbar spine is @

A

L5-S1

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9
Q

Trapezius muscle is innervated by the:

A

Accessory Nerve (CN XI) & Ansa Cervicalis (C1-C3)

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10
Q

1st SP & most prominent spinous below the EOP

A

C2 spinous

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11
Q

Hyoid Bone is located at _____ level upright & _____ level lying down.

A

C-4 upright

C-3 lying down

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12
Q

Cricoid Cartilage is located at level _____

A

C6

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13
Q

Suprasternal notch (jugular notch) is located at:

A

T2

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14
Q

Sternal Angle (Angle of Louis) is located at:

A

T4-T5

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15
Q

Spine of the Scapula is located at what level upright & lying down:

A

T4 upright

T3 lying down

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16
Q

Inferior border of the scapula is located at what level upright & lying down?

A

Upright : T9

Lying down : T6

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17
Q

Xiphoid Process located at what level

A

T10

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18
Q

Umbilicus is located at what level

A

L3

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19
Q

Area of Aortic Pressure Point

A

Level of disc space L3-L4

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20
Q

Crest of the ilium is located at what level upright & lying down?

A

Upright: L5

Lying down: L4

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21
Q

Common fx of tip of the SP of C7

A

Clay Shoveler’s

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22
Q

Most common areas of Thoracic Compression Fx:

A

Body of T11-T12

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23
Q

Most common area of Lumbar Compression Fx:

A

Body of T12/L1

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24
Q

Most common area for Sacral Fx:

A

Horizontal fx at the 3rd or 4th sacral tubercle

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25
Q

Cervical Lateral Bending: VB moves to the _____ side & the SP moves to the _____ side.

A 
VB = same side
SP = opposite side
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26
Q

Lumbar Lateral Bending: VB moves to the _____ side & SP moves to the _____ side.

A 
VB = opposite
SP = same
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27
Q

Fertilization of the female egg by the male sperm takes place in the:

A

Distal 1/3 of the Fallopian Tubes

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28
Q

After fertilization, how long does it take the single egg to travel down the Fallopian tube to the uterus?

A

1 week (7-8 days)

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29
Q

What layer gives rise to all neurons & supporting cells?

A

Ectoderm

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31
Q

What layer forms the neural plate?

A

Ectoderm

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32
Q

Notochord induces the ectoderm to form the:

A

Nucleus pulposus of IVD

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33
Q

What forms the neural groove which houses the Spinal cord & brain vesicles?

A

Neural Plate

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35
Q

Neural Plate develops into:

A
  1. Macroglial Cells
    • Oligodendrocytes
    • Astrocytes
  2. Neurons CNS
  3. Ependymal cells
  4. Retinal cells
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37
Q

Glands, buccal cavity, esophagus, stomach, pharyngeal pouches & pharynx

A

Foregut

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38
Q

Duodenum, jejunum, appendix, part of transverse colon

A

Midgut

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39
Q

Part of transverse, descending & sigmoid colon, rectum & upper anal canal

A

Hindgut

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40
Q

Urinary bladder, vagina, urethra, prostate & urethral glands

A

Allantois

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41
Q

Somite cells form the _______ which form the Vertebral column

A

Sclerotome

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42
Q

Dermatomes of Cspine (C2-C7)

A 
C2 - Scalp
C3 - Nape of Neck
C4 - Trap
C5 - Deltoid
C6 - Lat Elbow + thumb & index
C7 - Middle Finger
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43
Q

Dermatomes of Tspine (T1, T2, T4, T7, T10)

A 
T1 - Medial Elbow
T2 - Axillary
T4 - Nipples
T7 - Xyphoid
T10 - Umbilicus
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44
Q

Dermatomes for Lspine (L1 - L5)

A 
L1 - Sup Ant Thigh (inguinal ligament)
L2 - Mid Thigh
L3 - Medial Knee
L4 - Medial Lower Leg / Calf
L5 - Top/Dorsum Foot & Lat Leg (1st-4th toe)
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45
Q

Dermatomes for Sspine:

A

S1 - Baby toe, plantar foot, posterior calf (lat outside)
S2 - Post Thigh
S3 - Anus (around it)
S4 - Anus

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46
Q

Foramen Ovale b/t interatrial septum becomes:

A

Fossa Ovalis

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47
Q

Ductus Arteriosus bypasses lung pulmonary trunk to arch of aorta and becomes…

A

Ligamentum Arteriosum

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48
Q

Ductus Venosus bypasses sinusoids of fetal liver & becomes…

A

Ligamentum Venosum

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49
Q

Umbilical Vein becomes…

A

Ligamentum Teres (round ligament)

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50
Q

Umbilical Arteries become…

A

Medial Umbilical Ligaments

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51
Q

Urachus is a remnant of the …

A

Duct of Allantois

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52
Q

“Glue”, gives rise to astrocytes & oligodendrocytes

A

Glioblast

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53
Q

Most numerous cell of CNS ***
Acts like connective tissue
Part of blood brain barrier
Forms “scar-like” tissue in injury

A

Astrocyte

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54
Q 
Quite numerous (less than astrocyte)
*** Forms MYELIN around CNS
A

Oligodendrocytes

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55
Q

Lines CNS, ciliated, makes “leaky” barrier b/t CSF & CNS

A

Ependymal

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56
Q

Phagocyte (macrophage)

Not many

A

Microglia aka Gitterzellen

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57
Q

What makes neurons

A

Neuroblast

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58
Q

Neurons within CNS, connects b/t two hemispheres

A

Commissural fibers

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59
Q

Neurons within CNS, connects different parts of same hemisphere

A

Association fibers

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60
Q

Neurons within CNS, connects lower centers to cerebral cortex

A

Projection

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61
Q

Most common type of neurons in CNS

A

Multipolar

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62
Q

Cell bodies & dendrites are part of the _____ matter

A

Gray matter

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63
Q

Myelinated axons are part of the _____ matter

A

White matter

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64
Q

Ventricles:

Proencephalon develops into the…

A

Telencephalon

Diencephalon

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65
Q

Mesencephalon develops into the…

A

Mesencephalon —> Midbrain

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66
Q

Rhombencephalon develops into…

A

Metencephalon

Myelencephalon

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67
Q

What structures & cranial nerves develop from these Secondary Structures:

  • Telencephalon
  • Diencephalon
  • Mesencephalon
  • Metencephalon
  • Myelencephalon
A 
Tel = Forebrain (I)
Die = Thal, Hypothal, Pineal, Retina, Mam. Body, Post. Pit (II)
Mes = Midbrain (III, IV)
Met = Pons, Cerebellum (V, VI, VII, VIII)
Mye = Medulla Oblongata (IX, X, XI, XII)
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68
Q

Name the Neural Canal Regions:
Pro – Tel – Forebrain (I) =
Pro – Die – Thalamus (II) =
Mes – Mes – Midbrain (III, IV) =
Rho – Met – Pons, Cerebellum (V-VIII) =
Rho – Mye – Medulla Oblongata (IX-XII) =

A
  1. Lateral Ventricles separated by Septum Pellucidum
  2. Foramen of Monroe (interventric foramen)
  3. Cerebral Aqueduct of Sylvius
  4. 4th Ventricle
  5. 4th Ventricle
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69
Q

Arterial anastomosis:

  • Blood supply communication b/t forebrain & hindbrain
  • Anatomically around the pituitary gland & optic chiasm
A

Circle of Willis

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70
Q

What arteries supply the Circle of Willis

A

Internal Carotid & Vertebral arteries

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71
Q

What arteries form the circle of the Circle of Willis?

A

Ant & Post Cerebral Arteries

Ant & Post Communicating Arteries

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72
Q

What artery carries more blood than other arteries (approx. 800ml/min)

A

Middle Cerebral Artery

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73
Q

Most common location of “cerebral vascular accident” (CVA)

A

Middle Cerebral Artery

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74
Q

aka Pallium - developed from neural plate

A

Cerebral Cortex

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75
Q

90% of the cortex is:

A

Neocortex

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76
Q

10% of the cortex is:

A

Allocortex

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77
Q

Relay for cortex that processes sensory info, sleep, consciousness; motor relay (mostly forms thalamus)

A

Diencephalon (thalamus)

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78
Q

Responsible for postural adjustments, steadying voluntary movements, enkephalins

A

Basal Ganglia

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79
Q

Basal Ganglia - Striatal lesions cause…

A

Tremors – Parkinson’s, Huntington’s Chorea, Ballism

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80
Q

Basal Ganglia includes…

A

Corpus Striatum
Amygdaloid
Claustrum

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81
Q

Telencephalon nuclei include…

A

Caudate
Putamen
Globus Pallidus
Basal Ganglia

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82
Q

Mesencephalon nuclei include…

A

Substantia nigra

Subthalamic

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83
Q

Head of the caudate + putamen = ?

A

Corpus Striatum

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84
Q

Globus pallidus (medial) & Putamen (lateral)

A

Lentiform Nucleus

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85
Q

Brainstem is made up of the ….
It’s a conduit for the …
It contains the reflex centers associated with …
It contains important nuclei of …

A

Medulla, Pons & Midbrain
Ascending & Descending Tracts
Respiration, CV & consciousness
CN III-XII

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86
Q

CSF in an adult

A

140-270ml

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87
Q

What are the layers of Meninges from inside to outside

A

Pia, Arachnoid, Dura

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88
Q

Between arachnoid & pia (lumbar puncture or spinal tap)

A

Subarachnoid Space

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89
Q

Innermost layer of neural tube

Lines CNS, ciliated, makes “leaky” barrier b/t CSF & CNS

A

Ependymal Cells

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90
Q

Produces CSF***

A

Choroid Plexus

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91
Q

Resorbs CSF ***

A

Arachnoid Granulations

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92
Q

How much CSF is in the ventricles?

A

Approximately 25ml

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93
Q

Atrophy or damage of the basal ganglia can produce…

A

Chorea (quick movements)

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94
Q

Parkinsonism is due to neuronal degeneration of the…

A

Substantia Nigra (Lewy Bodies)

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95
Q

Spinal Cord:

  1. How many pairs of spinal nerves?
  2. Bell-Magendi Law?
  3. Terminates?
  4. End is called?
  5. Roots for Lumbar, Sacral, Coccygeal are thru & called?
A

31 pairs of Spinal Nerves
Dorsal roots, Sensory, Afferent fibers & Ventral, Motor, Efferent
Terminates @ L1/L2
End is called Conus Medullaris
Roots thru Lumbar Cistern forming Cauda Equina “horse’s tail”

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96
Q

Part of brain associated with vision, hearing, motor control, sleep/wake, arousal (alertness) & temp regulation

A

Midbrain

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98
Q

CSF exchange between 3rd & 4th ventricles

A

Cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius (Midbrain)

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99
Q

Cerebral peduncles (midbrain) contain…

A

Tegmentum
Substantia Nigra
Crus Cerebri
CN III, IV

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100
Q

Substantia Nigra is _____ in color;
Dopamine from _____;
_____ is a by product (causes dark color)

A

Black color
Dopamine from Tyrosine
Melanin is by-product

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101
Q

Part of Cerebral Peduncle - Corticospinal, Corticopontine, Corticobulbar, Corticomesencephalic fibers (eye mvmts)

A

Crus Cerebri

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102
Q

Function: integration of “momentary” static muscle contraction, joint tension, visual & auditory input regarding equilibrium.

A

Cerebellum

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103
Q

Medial Cerebellum

A

Vermis

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104
Q

Anterior Cerebellum - general muscle tone

A

Paleocerebellum

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105
Q

Posterior Cerebellum - coordination of skilled movements

A

Neocerebellum

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106
Q

Part of cerebellum that controls equilibrium (Flocculonodular)

A

Archicerebellar

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107
Q 
Corpus Medullare (aka)
(afferent, efferent, commissural & association fibers)
A

White Matter

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108
Q

Gray matter neuron cell types?

A 
Purkinje
Golgi II
Stellate
Basket
Granular
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109
Q

MC type of cell in Cerebellum

A

Purkinje

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110
Q

Cerebellar Nuclei (from medial to lateral, small to large)

A

Fastigial
Globus
Emboliform
Dentate

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112
Q

Neural Crest develops into:

A

DRG & spinal nerves

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113
Q

Vertebra develop from:

A

Sclerotome (union of 2 different somites)

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115
Q

What forms the lining of the digestive tube & its associated structures?

A

Endoderm epithelium

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116
Q

Nuclei in basal forebrain that is rich in ACH

A

Meynert’s

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117
Q

Lateral Vestibular Nuclei

A

Deiter’s

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118
Q

Nuclei found in Medulla (brain stem) that releases Serotonin

A

Raphe

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119
Q

Nuclei that is part of corpus striatum & comprises putamen & globus pallidus

A

Lenticular Nuclei

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120
Q

Part of brain that is responsible for crude sensation & integrations; “Relay Center”

A

Thalamus

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121
Q

Part of brain responsible for conscious interpretation & movement

A

Cortex

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122
Q

Main pathway between thalamus & cortex is through the…

A

Internal Capsule & Corona Radiata

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123
Q

Postcentral Gyrus is the Primary _____ Cortex

A

Sensory

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124
Q

Precentral Gyrus is the primary _____ cortex

A

Motor

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125
Q 
What lesion would cause:
Increased DTR & muscle tone
(+) Pathological Reflexes (Babinski)
Spasticity
Hypertrophy
Clonus
Decreased Superficial Reflexes (bilateral)
A

UMNL

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126
Q 
What lesion would cause:
Decreased DTR & muscle tone
No pathological reflexes
Flaccidity
Atrophy
Fasciculations
Decreased superficial reflexes (Unilateral)
A

LMNL

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127
Q

Name the 5 Descending Tracts

motor, efferent, ventral, basal plates

A 
Corticospinal
Reticulospinal
Tectospinal
Rubrospinal
Vestibulospinal
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128
Q

What tract is associated with precise & skilled voluntary movement (motor)
- Post limb of int capsule to 80% Lat & 20% Ang

A

Corticospinal

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129
Q

What tract is associated with inhibiting or facilitating voluntary movement

A

Reticulospinal

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130
Q

What tract is associated with Reflex postural movement to visual stimuli

A

Tectospinal

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131
Q

What tract facilitates flexors & inhibites extensors

A

Rubrospinal

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132
Q

Name the Tract & Pathway:

  • Function: Pain & Temp
  • Tract of Lissauer
  • NT: Substance P
A

Lateral Spinothalamic

FNE - DRG - SC - AWC - Thal (VPL) (ILN) - PLIC

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133
Q

Fluid-filled cyst that leads to cape-like (bilateral) loss of pain & temperature

A

Syringomyelia

Lat Spinothalamic

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134
Q

Name the Tract & Pathway:

  • Fxn: “protopathic” - pain, temp, crude light touch
  • Tract of Lissauer
  • Clinical Pearls: “tactile sensation”
A

Anterior Spinothalamic

FNE - DRG - SC- AWC - Thal (VPL) (ILN) - PLIC

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135
Q

Name the Tract & Pathway:

- Discrimitive touch (2point), Vibration & Conscious Proprioception

A

Dorsal Columns

Pacinion Corpuscle - DRG - F.Cuneatus (above T6) / F.Gracilis (below T6) - Cuneate or Gracilis Nucleus - cross in Internal Arcuate Fibers (2nd order neurons) - Med Lemniscus - Thalamus - PLIC

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136
Q

Name the Tract:
- Unconscious proprioception
Path: DRG –> Nucleus Dorsalis –> Peduncle –> Cerebellum
“Clark’s column” from C8-L4
Clinical Pearl: “PI” - posterior inferior peduncle

A

Posterior Spinocerebellar

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137
Q

Name the Tract:
- Unconscious Proprioception
Path: DRG –> Nucleus Dorsalis –> Peduncle –> Cerebellum
“Clark’s column” fibers that cross, cross back to ipsi side
Clinical: “AS” - anterior superior peduncle

A

Anterior Spinocerebellar

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138
Q

Name the Tract & Pathway:
- pain modulation; visual reflexes; controls mvmt of eyes & head toward stimulus
aka Spino-quadrigeminal system of Mott

A

Spinotectal

FNE - DRG - SC- AWC - Midbrain periaquaductal grey - N.Raphe

139
Q

Name the Tract & Pathway:
- ANS reflex pain response & Levels of consciousness
Clinical Pearl: COMA

A

Spinoreticular

FNE - DRG - SC - AWC - Reticular formation in Pons & Medulla

140
Q

PNS has what type of cells?

A

Schwann cells

141
Q

PNS: groups of neuron cell bodies

A

Ganglia

142
Q

PNS peripheral nerves are mostly _____ axons.

A

Myelinated

143
Q

PNS: cells found in retina & sensory ganglia of cochlear & vestibular nerves

A

Bipolar cells

144
Q

PNS Myelin sheath gaps are called:

A

Nodes of Ranvier

145
Q

4 Cutaneous Sensory branches of the Cervical Plexus (superficial)

A

Lesser Occipital
Greater Auricular
Transverse Cervical
Supraclavicular

146
Q

List the following spinal roots & structures served:

  • Lesser Occipital
  • Greater Auricular
  • Transverse Cervical
  • Supraclavicular
A

C2-C3 : sensory to Posterolateral neck
C2-C3 : sensory to Ear & Parotid Gland
C2-C3 : sensory to Anterior & Lateral neck
C3-C4 : sensory to Shoulder & Anterior Chest

147
Q

Motor Branches of Cervical Plexus (deep)

A

Ansa Cervicalis
Segmental branches
Phrenic Nerve ***

148
Q

List the following spinal roots & structures served:

  • Ansa Cervicalis
  • Segmental Branches
  • Phrenic Nerve
A

C1-C4 : motor to Geniohyoid & Infrahyoid muscles of neck
C1-C5 : motor to Neck & Scalenes, Levator, Trapezius, SCM
C3-C5 : “keep the DIAPHRAGM alive”

149
Q

Sensory nerve of the lumbar plexus to the thigh, leg, foot, hip & knee joints

A

Femoral Nerve (L2-L4)

150
Q

Motor nerve of the lumbar plexus to the anterior thigh, psoas, pectineus & iliacus

A

Femoral Nerve (L2-L4)

151
Q

Sensory nerve of lumbar plexus to the medial thigh & hip joint

A

Obturator nerve (L2-L4)

152
Q

Motor nerve of the lumbar plexus to the adductors, gracilis & obturator externus

A

Obturator nerve (L2-L4)

153
Q

Sensory nerve of lumbar plexus to the lateral thigh & branches to peritoneum (“Meralgia Parasthetica”)

A

Lateral Femoral Cutaneous (L2-L3)

154
Q

Sensory nerve of lumbar plexus to the lower abdomen, lower back & hip, anterolateral abdominal wall & pubic region

A

Iliohypogastric (L1)

155
Q

Sensory nerve of the lumbar plexus to external genitalia, thigh & abdominals

A

Ilioinguinal (L1)

156
Q

Sensory nerve of the lumbar plexus to the scrotum, labia, thigh & cremasterics

A

Genitofemoral (L1-L2)

157
Q

Motor nerve of Sacral Plexus to the Tibial & Common Peroneal

A

Sciatic Nerve (L4-S3)

158
Q

Sensory nerve of the Sacral Plexus to the posterior leg & foot

A

Tibial nerve (L4-S3)

159
Q

Motor nerve of the Sacral Plexus to all muscles of posterior leg & foot

A

Tibial Nerve (L4-S3)

160
Q

Sensory nerve of the Sacral Plexus to the Anterior Leg & Dorsum Foot

A

Common Peroneal nerve (aka Fibular) L4-S2

161
Q

Motor nerve of Sacral Plexus to lateral component of leg

A

Superficial Peroneal aka Fibular (L4-S2)

162
Q

Motor nerve of sacral plexus to Anterior compartment of leg

A

Deep Peroneal (L4-S2)

163
Q

Motor nerve of sacral plexus to Gluteus Medius, Minimus & TFL

A

Superior Gluteal Nerve (L4-S1)

164
Q

Motor nerve of sacral plexus to Gluteus Maximus

A

Inferior Gluteal Nerve (L5-S2)

165
Q

Sensory nerve of sacral plexus to muscles of perineum
&
Motor nerve of sacral plexus to External Anal Sphincter
(Cauda Equina Syndrome)

A

Pudendal nerve (S2-S4)

166
Q

Brachial Plexus: C5 & C6 roots:
What cords are involved?
What branches are involved?

A

Lateral cords

Musculocutaneous & Median branches

167
Q

Brachial Plexus - C7 nerve root:
What cords are involved?
What branches are involved?

A

Posterior cords

Axillary & Radial branches

168
Q

Brachial Plexus - C8 & T1 nerve root:
What cords are involved?
What branches are involved?

A

Medial cord

Median & Ulnar branch

169
Q

CN 1 - Olfactory
Foramen of exit or path?
Function?
Nuclei & Ganglion?

A

Cribiform Plate
Sensory - smell
Does not synapse - Thalamus

170
Q

CN II - Optic
Foramen of Exit?
Function?

A

Optic Canal

Sensory - Vision

171
Q

CN III - Oculomotor
Foramen of Exit?
Function?
Nuclei & Ganglion?

A

SOF
Motor - eye muscles except Lat Rectus & Sup Oblique (SO4LR6R3)
Edinger Westphal nucleus

172
Q

CN IV - Trochlear
Foramen of Exit?
Function?
Important fact?

A

SOF
Motor to Superior Oblique
Smallest CN ***

173
Q 
CN V - Trigeminal
Foramen?
Function?
Nuclei & Ganglion?
Clincial?
A

V1 - Opthalmic = SOF
V2 - Maxillary = Foramen Rotundum
V3 - Mandibular = Foramen Ovale
Fxn: Sensory to face & tongue / Motor for Mastication
Gasserian Semilunar or Trigeminal Ganglion
(Largest CN)
Trigeminal Neuralgia “Tie douloureux”

174
Q

CN VI - Abducens
Foramen?
Fxn?

A

SOF

Motor to Lateral Rectus

175
Q 
CN VII - Facial
Foramen?
Fxn?
Nuclei?
Clinical?
A

Internal Auditory Meatus exits thru Styloid Mastoid
Sensory - Ant 2/3 tongue
Motor - facial expression
Superior Salvatory (branch of Chorda Tympani)
“Bells Palsy” (eyes stuck open

176
Q

CN VIII - Vestibulocochlear
Foramen?
Fxn?
Nuclei?

A

Internal Auditory Meatus
Sensory - Balance & Hearing
Vestibular Ganglion (of SCARPA)

177
Q

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal
Foramen?
Fxn?
Nuclei?

A

Jugular Foramen (temporal + occipital)
Sensory - Post 1/3 tongue
Motor - secretion of parotid
Nucleus Ambiguous (inf salvatory)

178
Q

CN X - Vagus
Foramen?
Fxn?
Nuclei?

A

Jugular Foramen
Sensory - bitter taste, epiglottis, external auditory meatus
Motor - pharynx & larynx
Parasympathetic Dorsal Motor Nucleus

179
Q

CN XI - Accessory
Foramen?
Fxn
Nuclei?

A

Jugular Foramen
Motor - SCM & Trapezius
Nucleus Ambiguous

180
Q

CN XII - Hypoglossal
Foramen?
Fxn?
Nuclei?

A

Hypoglossal canal
Motor - tongue
Hypoglossal nuclei

181
Q

What cranial nerves are mixed nerves?

What cranial nerves are Parasympathetic to 90% of the body?

A

Mixed: V, VII, IX, X
PS: III, VII, IX, X

182
Q

Middle Meningeal Artery exits the…

A

Foramen Spinosum

“spine is in the middle”

183
Q

Internal Carotid Artery (temporal & sphenoid) exits the…

A

Foramen Lacerum

“If you lacerate the ICA, you’ll die!”

184
Q

Injury to the PTERION (junction of sphenoid, temporal, frontal & parietal bones) “hockey puck” causes damage to…

A

Middle Meningeal Artery

possible death

185
Q

ANS Sympathetic nervous systems

  • Axons?
  • Fibers/NT?
A

Axons: T1-L1/L2 (basically whole Tsp)
Short Preganglionic NT = ACH
Long Postganglionic NT = Epi/Norepi

186
Q

ANS Parasympathetic nervous system

  • Axons
  • Fibers/NT
A

Axons: CNS III, IV, IX, X & Sacral S2-S4
Long Preganglionic NT = ACH
Short Postganglionic NT = ACH

187
Q

Enteric Division (ENS) controls the GI Tract. What are the 2 types of neurons & what do they do?

A

(1) Myenteric (Auerbach’s) - motor innervation to both layers of tunica muscularis (PS & Symp input)
(2) Submucosal (Meissner’s) - secretomotor to lumen (PS ONLY!)

188
Q

Enteric Nervous System has over 30 NT’s. What is found in the bowels?

A

95% of serotonin & 50% dopamine

189
Q

Ossification of the Skull & Vertebral Column?

A

Both begin 7-8 weeks (embryo)

190
Q

Describe the sutures on the skull

  • b/t frontal & parietal
  • b/t 2 parietals
  • b/t parietal & occipital
  • b/t temporal & parietal
A

Coronal
Sagittal
Lambdoidal
Squamous

191
Q

What bone is formed by the Cribiform Plate (inferiorly) & Crista Galli (superiorly)

A

Ethmoid

192
Q

The Maxillary is formed by the….

A

Hard palate
Palatine
Orbital processes

193
Q

Sphenoid contains what structures?

A 
Sella Turcica
F. Ovale			(V3 mandibular exits)
F. Rotundum		(V2 maxillary exits)
F. Lacerum		(ICA exits)
F. Spinosum		(Mid.Men.A. exits)
194
Q

The sphenoid, frontal, zygomatic, palatine, ethmoid, lacrimal & maxillary are all part of the Orbit. Which bone isn’t?

A

Nasal bone

195
Q

Mastoid is found on the…

A

Temporal bone

196
Q

How many ossification centers in the vertebral column & what are they?

A

Three
1 - Body (centrum)
1 - Each Vertebral Arch (b/c lamina & pedicles)

197
Q

How many secondary ossification centers in the vertebral column & what are they?

A

Five
1 - Tip of SP
2 - TVP’s
2 - Annular ring epiphyses (sup & inf aspect of body)

198
Q

What is different about the ossification centers in the lumbar?

A

They have 2 additional ossification centers for Mamillary processes

199
Q

Teeth @ 3 years old v. Teeth @ adult

A 
20 teeth (3yo)
32 teeth (adult)
200
Q

Describe teeth from top to bottom

A 
Enamel
Dentin
Pulp (nerves & vessels)
Cementum
Root
201
Q

Bones that have no direct sternal attachment, but attach by costal cartilages?

A

Flat Bones

202
Q

How many pairs of Ribs? Which ones are “typical”? Which ones are “atypical”?

A

12 pairs of Ribs
Typical = 3-9
Atypical = 1, 2, 11, 12

203
Q

Shortest costochondral joint that articulates with manubrium

  • Scalene tubercle location
  • Supports subclavian vessels
A

1st Rib

204
Q

Thinner & 2x length of Rib 1

- Serratus Anterior tuberosity

A

2nd Rib

205
Q

Short, no neck or tubercle, “floaters” (do not articulate w/sternum)
Only articulates w/ VB, single facet on head, end capped cartilage

A

11 & 12 ribs

206
Q

Where manubrium & sternum meet (2nd rib attaches)

A

Angle of Louis

207
Q

Sternum aka _____ is located at …

A

Gladiolus

T5-T9 (costal notches from lateral border)

208
Q

Landmark: diaphragm, diaphragmatic surface of liver & inferior border of heart

A

Xiphoid process (T10)

209
Q

Sacrum = 5 fused vertebra (by age 25)

  • Sacral promontory?
  • Lateral sides aka wings?
  • Branches of sacral spinal nerves pass thru ___ ?
  • Articulates with coccyx?
A

Sacral Base
Sacral Ala
Sacral Foramina
Sacral Apex

210
Q

Cervical Landmarks: posterior arch connects lateral masses of atlas:

  • Hyoid Bone
  • Cornu of Thyroid
  • Body of Thyroid
  • Cricoid Cartilage
  • Carotid Tubercle
A 
Hyoid - C3/C4
Cornu of Thyroid - C4
Body of Thyroid - C5
Cricoid Cartilage - C6
Carotid Tubercle - C6
211
Q

What are the motor unit boundaries of the IVF?

A

Pedicles, Body, Disc, Facets

212
Q

What are the atypical vertebra in adults & what are they called?

A

C2-C6

Joints of Luska

213
Q

Lowest level of vertebral artery?

A

C6

214
Q

What is the shape of the body of cervical vertebra?

A

Circular

215
Q

Shape of Thoracic vertebra body?

A

Heart shaped

216
Q

Shape of lumbar vertebra body?

A

Kidney-shaped

217
Q

N: CN VII Facial Nerve
A: Eyelid Sphincter
O: Frontal & Maxilla
IN: Eyelid

A

Obicularis oculi

218
Q

N: CN VII Facial
A: Mouth angle back & up (laughing)
O: Zygomatic
IN: Mouth corner

A

Zygomaticus (major)

219
Q

N: CN VII Facial
A: Raises lower lip (doubt/disdain)
O: Mandible
IN: Chin

A

Mentalis

220
Q

N: CN VII Facial
A: Contracts/protrudes lips
O: Maxilla & Mandible
IN: Mouth

A

Orbicularis oris

221
Q

N: CN VII Facial
A: Compresses cheeks / expels air / aids in mastication
O: Maxilla & Mandible
IN: Obicularis oris

A

Buccinator

222
Q

N: CN XII Hypoglossal
A: Protrudes tongue
O: Mandible
IN: Hyoid & tongue

A

Genioglossus

223
Q

Innervation: CN XII Hypoglossal
Action: Depresses tongue
Origin: Hyoid
Insertion: Tongue

A

Hyoglossus

224
Q

Innervation: CN XII Hypoglossal
Action: Retracts & elevates tongue
Origin: Temporal
Insertion: Tongue

A

Styloglossus

225
Q

Muscles of Mastication

A

Temporalis
Masseter
Medial (internal) Pterygoid
Lateral (external) Pterygoid

226
Q

N: CN V Trigeminal
A: Elevate & Retract jaw
O: Temporal
IN: Coronoid of Mandible

A

Temporalis

227
Q

N: CN V Trigeminal
A: Elevate Jaw / prime mover of jaw closure
O: Zygomatic arch
IN: Mandible

A

Masseter

228
Q

Elevate & protract jaw (close)

A

Medial (internal) Pteygoid

229
Q

Protrudes jaw & depresses (open)

A

Lateral (external) Pterygoid

230
Q

Superficial muscle of neck:
N: CN VII Facial
A: Depresses lower lip & jaw

A

Platysma

231
Q 
Superficial Muscle of the Neck:
N: CN XI Accessory
A: (1) Ipsilateral flexion, contralateral rotation (2) Flexion
O: Manubrium & Clavical 
IN: Mastoid
A

SCM

232
Q

What are the 4 Suprahyoid muscles?

A

Digastric
Stylohyoid
Mylohyoid
Geniohyoid

233
Q

N: CN V Trigeminal & VII Facial
A: Elevates hyoid, depresses jaw
O: Mandible & Mastoid
IN: Hyoid

A

Digastric

234
Q

N: CN VII Facial
A: Elevates & retracts hyoid

A

Stylohyoid

235
Q

N: CN V Trigeminal
A: Elevates hyoid

A

Mylohyoid

236
Q

N: CN XII Hypoglossal
A: Pulls hyoid anterior & up

A

Geniohyoid

237
Q

4 Infrahyoid muscles

A

Sternohyoid
Sternothyroid
Omohyoid
Thyrohyoid

238
Q

N: C1-C3
A: Depresses hyoid
O: Manubrium
IN: Hyoid

A

Sternohyoid

239
Q

N: C1-C3
A: Pulls thyroid cartilage down
O: Manubrium
IN: Thyroid

A

Sternothyroid

240
Q

N: C1-C3
A: Depresses & retracts hyoid
O: Scapula
IN: Hyoid

A

Omohyoid

241
Q

N: CN 1 via CN XII
A: Depresses hyoid & Elevates thyroid cartilage
O: Thyroid
IN: Hyoid

A

Thyrohyoid

242
Q

Name the 4 Vertebral muscles

A

Longus coli
Scalenus anterior
Scalenus medius
Scalenus posterior

243
Q

N: Primary Rami C2-C8 **
A: (1) lat flex (2) flexes & rotates vertebrae
Attaches to anterior tubercle of atlas **

A

Longus coli

244
Q

N: Primary rami C5-C8
A: Elevates 1st rib, flexes & rotates vertebra
O: TVP of Csp
IN: First 2 ribs

A

Scalenus anterior

245
Q

N: Primary rami C3-C4***
A: Elevates 1st rib, flexes & rotates vertebra
O: TVP of Csp
IN: first 2 ribs

A

Scalenus medius

246
Q

N: Primary rami C5-C8
A: Elevates 2nd rib***, flexes & rotates vertebra
O: TVP of Csp
IN: first 2 ribs

A

Scalenus posterior

247
Q

Suboccipital Triangle:

  • Roof?
  • Floor?
A 
Roof = Semispinalis capitis muscle
Floor = Posterior atlanto-occipital membrane
248
Q

What artery transverses thru the suboccipital triangle?

A

Vertebral artery

249
Q

Which nerve transverses thru the suboccipital triangle?

A

Suboccipital nerve

250
Q

Name the superior, lateral border of the suboccipital triangle

A

Superior Oblique

251
Q

Name the medial border of the suboccipital triangle

A

Rectus Capitus Posticus Major

252
Q

Name the inferior, lateral border of the suboccipital triangle

A

Inferior Oblique

253
Q

Erector spinal muscle groups

A

Iliocostalis — Ilium/Ribs
Longissimus — TP/Ribs
Spinalis — SP/SP

Actions for all: Extend & Ipsi Flex
Innervation for all: Spinal n. Dorsal

254
Q

Muscles of the thorax

A

External Intercostals
Internal Intercostals
Transverse Thoracic
Subcostalis

255
Q

O: Lower border of rib
IN: Upper border of rib below
A: Elevates ribs ***
N: Intercostal nerve

A

External intercostals

both have E in them

256
Q

O: Lower border of rib
IN: Upper border of ribs below
A: Depress ribs, interchondral part elevates ribs
N: Intercostal nerves

A

Internal Intercostals

257
Q

O: Posterior sternum & xiphoid
IN: Costal cartilages 2-6
A: Depresses ribs
N: Intercostal n.

A

Transverse thoracic

258
Q

O: Inner, lower ribs near angles
IN: Upper borders of ribs 2 or below
A: Elevates ribs
N: Intercostal

A

Subcostalis

259
Q

Muscles of the anterior abdominal wall

A

External Oblique
Internal Oblique
Transverse Rectus Abdominus
Cremaster

260
Q

Muscles of the posterior abdominal wall

A

Quadratus lumborum
Psoas Major
Psoas Minor

261
Q

What nerve pierces the Psoas Major?

A

Femoral Nerve

262
Q

Muscles of the lateral pelvic wall

A

Piriformis

Obturator internus

263
Q

O: Anterior Sacrum & Sacrotuberous ligament
IN: Greater trochanter
A: External hip rotation, Abduction of thigh
N: S1-S2

A

Piriformis

264
Q

O: Inner obturator membrane
IN: Greater trochanter
A: External rotation thigh
N: Nerve to obturator internus

A

Obturator internus

265
Q

What are the Levator Ani muscles?

A

Pubococcygeus
Puborectalis
Iliococcygeus

266
Q

O: Pubis
IN: Coccyx
A: Supports pelvic viscera***
N: S3-S4 & Pudendal

A

Pubococcygeus

267
Q

O: Pubis
IN: “U” shaped rectal sling
A: Completes pelvic floor
N: S3-S4 & pudendal

A

Puborectalis

268
Q

O: Pelvic fascia tendinous arch & ischial spine
IN: Coccyx & anococcygeal ligament
A: Completes pelvic floor
N: S3-S4 & Pudendal

A

Iliococcygeus

269
Q

O: Ischial spine & Sacrospinous ligament
IN: Lower sacrum & coccyx
A: Supports & pulls coccyx anteriorly
N: S4-S5

A

Coccygeus

270
Q

Muscles of Urogenital diaphragm (deep perineum)

A

Sphincter urethrae

Deep transverse perinei

271
Q

O: Medial inferior pubic ramus
IN: Median raphe & central perineal tendon
A: Constricts urethra & blends w/vaginal wall
N: Pudendal N

A

Sphincter urethrae

272
Q

Pudendal nerve pass thru the greater & lesser _____ foramen

A

Sciatic

273
Q

O: Medial ischial ramus
IN: Central perineal tendon
A: Supportive role
N: Pudendal N

A

Deep transversus perinei

274
Q

What are the superficial perineum muscles?

A

Ischiocavernosus
Bulbospongiosus
Superficial Transversus Perinei

275
Q

O: Ischial Tuberosity & ramus
IN: Crus (penis/clitoris)
A: Aids in erection; Constricts vaginal orifice
N: Perineal

A

Ischiocavernosus

276
Q

O: Central Perineal tendon
IN: Corpus Spongiosum
A: Aids in erection
N: Perineal

A

Bulbospongiosus

277
Q

O: Ischial tuberosity
IN: Central perineal tendon
A: Support
N: Perineal

A

Superficial transversus perinei

278
Q

What CN goes with the following Brachial (pharyngeal) Arches:

  • Arch: I
  • Skeletal Structures: Malleus (Meckel’s cartilage) & Incus (Quadrate cartilage)
  • Muscles: Muscles of mastication & jaw-closing muscles
A

V3 Mandibular branch of CNV Trigeminal

279
Q

What CN goes with the following Brachial (pharyngeal) Arch:

  • Arch: 2
  • Skeletal Structures: Stapes, Styloid
  • Muscles: Muscles of facial expression & jaw opening muscles; Stylohyoid, Stapedius
A

Facial (CN VII)

280
Q

What CN?

  • Branchial Arch: 3
  • Skeletal Structures: Cornu, Hyoid
  • Muscles: Stylopharyngeus
A

Glossopharyngeal (IX)

281
Q

What CN?

  • Branchial Arch: 4
  • Skeletal Structures: Thyroid cartilage, Cricoid cartilage
  • Muscles: Pharyngeal, Cricothyroid, Levator palatine
A

Superior laryngeal of Vagus (X)

282
Q

What CN:

  • Branchial Arch: 6
  • Skeletal Structures: Arytenoid, Corniculate cartilage, Cuneiform cartilage
  • Muscles: Laryngeal
A

Inferior Laryngeal of Vagus (X)

283
Q

Front of the VB’s from Atlas to Occiput

A

ALL (anterior longitudinal ligament)

aka Anterior Atlanto-Occipital

284
Q

Back of the VB’s from Axis to Occiput

A

PLL (posterior longitudinal ligament)

aka Membrane Tectoria

285
Q

Lamina to Lamina - (yellow ligament)

A

Ligamentum Flava

286
Q

Ligament b/t Spinous processes

thickest in lumbars

A

Interspinous ligament

287
Q

Ligament from SP to SP from C7-Occiput

A

Supraspinous Ligament

aka Ligamentum Nuchae

288
Q

Holds the dens in fovea dentes of atlas (across posterior dens)

A

Transverse ligament

289
Q

Ligament from body of C2 to occiput

A

Cruciform ligament

290
Q

Ligament from the sides of the dens to occiput - Limits rotation

A

Alar ligament

aka Check Ligament

291
Q

Ligament from tip of the dens to the rim of the occiput

A

Apical dental

292
Q

“Toothed” ligament, anchors the spinal cord to the bony vertebral canal

A

Denticulate ligament

293
Q

Where is the ALL located?

A

Front of VB’s from Atlas to Occiput

294
Q

Where is PLL (Membrane Tectoria) located?

A

Back of VB’s from Axis to Occiput

295
Q

Where is the Ligamentum Nuche located?

A

SP-SP from C7 to Occiput

296
Q

Which ligaments can affect the IVF?

A

Flava, PLL

297
Q

Projections from the tongue where taste buds are embedded

A

Papillae

both start with P

298
Q

Cylindrical, largest, least in number, bitter taste receptor, 8-12 “V” shaped form anterior to the sulcus terminalis

A

Circum “Vallate” papillae

V-shape = Vallate

299
Q

Mushroom-shaped, most numberous taste receptors, tip tongue

A

Fungiform

Mushrooms = Fungi

300
Q

Posterior roof/mouth lateral margins

A

Foliate

301
Q

Thread-like, sensitive to touch (no taste)

A

Filiform

302
Q

Anterior 2/3 of the tongue is innervated by CN _____

Describe the pathway

A

CN VII (Facial) - sweet, sour, salty

Taste Buds – Solitary Tract (VII, IX, X) – Solitary Nucleus – Central Tegmental Tract – VPM Thalamus – PLIC – Gustatory Cortex

303
Q

Posterior 1/3 of the tongue is innervated by CN ______

A

CN IX Glossopharyngeal (bitter)

304
Q

Epiglottis & larynx are innervated by CN _____

A

CN X Vagus (bitter)

305
Q

Embryonic thyroid diverticulum (dorsal depression of tongue)

A

Foramen Caecum

306
Q

Aqueous humor is _____ while Vitreous humor is _____

A

Anterior / Posterior

307
Q

IVD remnant from ____

A

Nucleus Pulposus

308
Q

Cones are for _____

A

color

309
Q

Structures that contain endolymph:

A

Scala media
Saccule
Utricle
Semicircular ducts

310
Q

Confluence of sinuses

A

EOP, IOP

311
Q

Limbic area that contains Granular cells (interneurons), Mitral cells & Tufted cells & a Glomerulus

A

Olfactory Bulb

312
Q

What is the nerve supply for Olfaction & describe the pathway

A

CN I - Olfactory Nerve

Receptors – CN I – Cribiform Plate (Ethmoid) – Olfactory Bulb – Olfactory Tract (mitral & tufted cells) – Olfactory Cortex (Lat Olf Gyrus, UNCUS or Med Olf Gyrus & Periamygdaloid) – Hypothalamus – Neocortex

313
Q

What kind of cells does the Upper surface of the superior concha - main chemoreceptor?

A

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

314
Q

Retina develops from _____

Sclera develops from _____

A

Ectoderm

Dura

315
Q

Retinal cells include:

A 
Amacrine
Bipolar
Ganglion
Horizontal
Pigments
Rods & Cones (rhodopsin)
316
Q

Semicircular Canals control…

A

Angular acceleration & deceleration of sound

317
Q

Utricle & Saccule control …

A

Linear Acceleration

318
Q

Structure from Middle Ear to Nasopharygeal area?

A

Auditory Tube (Eustachian Tube)

319
Q

Base Tympanic Membrane is _____ pitch

A

High

320
Q

Pathway for Parasympathetic Nerves (III, VII, IX, X):

A

Hair cell – Vestibular Ganglion – Superior Vestibular Nucleus – MLF ***

321
Q

Pathway for CN V Trigeminal:

A

Trigeminal Ganglion – Pars Interpolaris – Thalamus – PLIC

322
Q

Pathway for CN VII Facial:

A

Geniculate Ganglion – Pars Caudalis – Thalamus – PLIC

323
Q

Pathway for CN IX Glossopharyngeal & CN X Vagus:

A

Superior Ganglion – Pars Caudalis – Thalamus – PLIC

324
Q

Where is the Transverse Ligament located?

A

Holds Dens in fovea dentes of Atlas (across posterior dens)

325
Q

Where is the Cruciform Ligament?

A

C2 Body to Occiput

326
Q

Where is the Alar (Check) Ligament?

A

Sides of Dens to Occiput (limit rotation)

327
Q

Where is Apical Dental ligament?

A

Tip of Dens to Rim of Occiput

328
Q

Where is Denticulate ligament?

A

Anchors spinal cord to bony vertebral canal

329
Q

Nerve supply pathway for Vision:

A

Retina – Optic N – Optic Chiasm – Optic Tract (connects superior colliculus) – LATERAL geniculate nucleus (synapse) – down the optic radiations – calcarine fissure of the occipital lobe

330
Q

Center of the Macula Lutea of Retina that provides greatest acuity (only cones)

A

Fovea Centralis

331
Q

“Blind Spot” where optic nerve & vessels attach to the eye

A

Optic Disc

332
Q

What muscle controls the lens shape?

A

Ciliary Muscle

333
Q

Nerve supply Auditory pathway

A

Hair Cell (Organ of Corti) – Spiral Ganglion – CN VIII – Ant & Post Cochlear Nucleus – Lateral Lemniscus – Inferior Colliculus – MEDIAL geniculate nucleus – Internal Capsule – Temporal lobe

334
Q

Describe the pathway of sound travel

A

External auditory meatus - tympanic membrane (ear drum) - Handle of Malleus - Head of Malleus - Incus - Stapes - Oval Window - Cochlea (perilymph) - Round Window

335
Q

Intraoccular pressure causes ____ b/c blockage of Canal of Schlemm

A

Glaucoma

Part I Boards (2 decks)

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