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Physiology Flashcards

0
Q

Efflux Potassium (facilitated diffusion)
Inside membrane less positive
Membrane potential towards “resting” (K+)
Descending phase

A

Repolarization

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1
Q 
Influx Sodium (facilitated diffusion)
Inside b/c more positive
Ascending phase
Impulse likely
Na++ gates close
Threshold occures (-55 & -50 mV)
A

Depolarization

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2
Q

Before action potential (AP) begins
Membrane polarized
-90mV membrane potential

A

Resting state

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3
Q

Permeable to Na+ ions
Inside of neuron b/c more positive
-90mV immediately neutralized

A

Depolarization

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4
Q

Occurs 10,000ths of a second
Na+ channels begin to close & K+ channels open wider
Rapid diffusion of K+ to outside
Re-establishes normal negative resting membrane potential

A

Repolarization Stage

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5
Q

What are these two gates called:
Outside of channel is Activation Gate
Inside of channel is Inactivation Gate
-70 to -50 activation gate flips all the way open, Na+ ions pour in. Inactivation gate closes more slowly.

A

Voltage-gated Sodium Channel

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6
Q

T/F: Inactivation gate will not re-open until membrane potential is at or nearly at “resting membrane potential” level

A

True

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7
Q

Synaptic Transmission: Neuron sending the signal

A

Presynaptic neuron

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8
Q

Synaptic Transmission: Neuron receiving the signal

A

Postsynaptic neuron

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9
Q

Chemical Synapse from axon to dendrite

MC synapse

A

Axodendritic

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10
Q

Synapse from axon to soma

A

Axosomatic

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11
Q

Synapse from axon to axon

A

Axoaxonic

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12
Q

Tunnels that connect cytosol of two cells allowing AP to be transmitted directly from one cell to another thru Electrical Synapses. (Free flow of ions)
Common: Visceral (single unit), smooth & cardiac cells, embryo & CNS

A

Gap Junctions

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13
Q

Synapses where membranes are close together but do not touch; they require voltage-gated ion channels to transfer the AP

A

Chemical synapses

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14
Q

Separation b/t Axon Terminal of Presynaptic neuron & Dendrite of Postsynaptic neuron (therefore need NT to transfer AP)

  • Takes 0.5 m/sec
  • Only synaptic end-bulbs of presynaptic neurons release NT
A

Synaptic cleft
Synaptic delay
One way transmission

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15
Q

Excitatory NT’s

A

Norepinephrine
Glutamate
Nitric Oxide

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16
Q

NT for Brain stem, hypothalamus, etc

A

Norepinephrine

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17
Q

NT for CNS, cerebral cortex

A

Glutamate

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18
Q

NT for Brain (quickly diffuses)

A

nitric oxide

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19
Q

Inhibitory NT’s

A 
Acetylcholine (ACH)
Dopamine
Glycine
GABA
Serotonin
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20
Q

NT for Motor cortex

A

ACH

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21
Q

NT for Substantia nigra (parkinsons)

A

Dopamine

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22
Q

NT for Spinal cord

A

Glycine

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23
Q

NT for Spinal cord, cerebellum, basal ganglia

A

GABA

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24
Q

NT for Brain stem

A

Serotonin

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25
Q

1,000 to 10,000 synapses received (CNS)

A

Summation

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26
Q

Buildup of NT’s released to several presynaptic bulbs

A

Spatial summation

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27
Q

NT released to single presynaptic bulb which fires 2x or more

A

Temporal summation

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28
Q

Demyelinating diseases

A

MS
PLS (posterolateral sclerosis)
ALS (lou gherigs disease)

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29
Q

Myelin is made of…

A

Fat

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30
Q

Terminal bulbs where NT stored

A

Telodenria

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31
Q

Regularly spaced patches of membrane on axon with no insulation whose purpose is to boost signal & prevent decay of AP

A

Nodes of Ranvier
(saltatory conduction)
“hopping”

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32
Q

Free nerve endings

pain, tickle, itch & temperature

A

Pain - Nociceptors

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33
Q

Location of greatest number of pain nociceptors?

A

Tip of tongue
Lips
Genitalia
Finger tips

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34
Q

Location of least number of pain - nociceptors

A

Upper arm
Buttock
Trunk

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35
Q

Algesia = ?

A

Pain

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36
Q

Mechanoreceptor: Pressure (encapsulated)

A

End bulbs of Krause

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37
Q

Mechanoreceptors: temperature perception & pressure (encapsulated & multi-branched)
2-5 degrees of perception

A

Corpuscles of Ruffini

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38
Q

Receptor: General touch (ant spinothalamic tract) & Hair follicles
NOT encapsulated

A

Merkel’s Disc

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39
Q

When Merkel’s disc is grouped together it’s termed….

A

Iggo Dome Receptor

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40
Q

Receptor: Fine touch (dorsal columns), Located on non-hairy skin
(encapsulated)

A

Meissner’s Corpuscles

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41
Q

Receptor: Pressure, Vibration (encapsulated)
“Phasic receptor”
“Quick adaptor”

A

Pacinian Corpuscles

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42
Q

Proprioception Receptors:

  • Stretch (dynamic & static ONLY in skeletal muscle)
  • Load or Weight
  • Prevents excessive tension in a muscle
A

Muscle Spindles
Golgi Tendon Organs
Golgi Tendon Reflex

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43
Q

ANS: Blood Vessels/Skin

  • sympathetic?
  • parasympathetic?
A

S: Vasoconstricts - shunts blood via vasomotor control to proximal limbs & lungs

PS: Little or no effect

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44
Q

ANS: Muscle

A

S: No

PS: yes

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45
Q

ANS: Heart
S?
PS?

A

S: Tachycardia (increases rate)
PS: Bradycardia (decreases rate)

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46
Q

ANS: Lung/Bronchi
S?
PS?

A

S: Deep breaths / Dilates bronchi

PS: Shallow breaths / Constrict bronchi

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47
Q

ANS: Eyes / Pupils

A

S: Dilates (Medriasis)

PS: Constricts (Meiosis)

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48
Q

ANS: GI / Peristalsis / Colon

A

S: Decreases secretions & digestion

PS: Increases secretions & bowel movement activity

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49
Q

ANS: Receptors

A

S: Adrenergic

PS: Cholinergic

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50
Q

ANS: NT - Preganglionic / Postganglionic

A

S: Pre - ACH
Post - Epi/Norepi

PS: ACH

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51
Q

Locus ceruleus nucleus (pons) “adrenal glands of the brain” NT?

A

Epinephrine

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52
Q

Quick Quiz:

  • Influx of sodium
  • Efflux of sodium
  • Period after firing when no AP possible (can’t be stim again)
  • AP available w/ increase potential by K+
  • Many synapses in single cell
  • Rapid succession of AP w/ few synapses
A 
Depolarization
Repolarization
Absolute Refractory Period (hyperpolarization)
Relative Refractory Period
Spatial Summation
Temporal Summation
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53
Q

Binds to & blocks glycine receptors causing massive tetanic contractions; diaphragm cannot “relax”, can’t breath, DIE!

A

Strychnine (poisoning)

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54
Q

Inhibitory neurons in spinal cord that releases glycine & prevents excessive muscular contraction

A

Renshaw cells

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55
Q

Cerebral Sensory Areas: Somatosensory

A

Postcentral Gyrus (parietal lobe)

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56
Q

Cerebral Sensory Areas: Visual

A

Occipital lobe, Striate cortex, Calcarine fissure

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57
Q

Cerebral Sensory Areas: Auditory

A

Superior Temporal lobe, Heschl’s gyrus

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58
Q

Cerebral Sensory Areas: Gustatory

A

Base of postcentral gyrus

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59
Q

Cerebral Sensory Areas: Olfactory

A

Medial temporal lobe

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60
Q

Cerebral Sensory Areas: Wernicke’s area

A

“Receptive” portion of language (Superior Temporal Lobe)

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61
Q

Cerebral MOTOR Areas:

- Precentral gyrus (frontal lobe)

A

Motor

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62
Q

Cerebral MOTOR Areas:

- Skilled movements (anterior to motor cortex)

A

Premotor

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63
Q

Cerebral MOTOR Areas:

- “Expressive” portion of language (inf post frontal lobe)

A

Broca’s area

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64
Q 
What is responsible for coordination of muscle contractions?
Clinical:
- Staccato or slurred speech
- Intention tremor
- Nystagmus
A

Cerebellum

Multiple Sclerosis symptoms

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65
Q

Main relay between cortex & spinal cord

“Crude sensation”

A

Thalamus

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66
Q

Controls ANS & Endocrine system
Controls body temperature (median eminance), food intake, thirst
Functions in rage & aggression
Helps maintain waking state & sleep
Releases Somatostatin - decrease secretion insulin & glucagon

A

Hypothalamus

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67
Q

Emotional aspects of behavior related to survival

Includes: Fornix, Hippocampus, Cingulate Gyrus, Amygdala, Parahippocampal Gyrus & parts of the Thalamus

A

Limbic System

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68
Q

Part of midbrain the coordinates eyeball movement in response to visual stimuli

A

Superior colliculi

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69
Q

Part of midbrain that coordinates head & trunk auditory stimuli (CN III, IV)

A

Inferior Colliculus

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70
Q

Pneumotaxic & apneustic

Breathing origin of CN V, VI, VII, VIII

A

Pons

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71
Q

Reticular formation (with diencephalon, pons, midbrain) that functions in consciousness & arousal.
Vital reflex centers regulate heartbeat, breathing & BV diameter.
Coordinates swallowing, vomiting, coughing, sneezing & hicups.
Vestibular Nuceli help maintain equilibrium
Origin: CN VIII, IX, X, XI, XII

A

Medulla

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72
Q

Dark spots, Aging, Product Oxidation

A

Lipofuscin

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73
Q

Cardiovascular Physiology:

  • Average bpm?
  • mL of blood per beat?
  • Heart is behind…?
  • Normal BP?
A

75 bpm
70-80mL of blood per beat
Heart behind 2nd - 5th ribs
120/80 normal BP

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74
Q

Pacemaker of the heart?
Innvervated by….?
How does it affect heart rate?

A

Sinus (SA) Node
N: Vagus Nerve (CN X)
Decreases heart rate

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75
Q

If SA Node dies, what node takes over?

A

AV Node

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76
Q

SA Node prevents _____.

A

Tetany

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77
Q

Parasympathetic innervation to 90% of the body

A

Vagus (CN X)

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78
Q

List the pathway of blood thru the heart.

A

Superior Vena Cava — Inferior Vena Cava — Right Atrium — Tricuspid Valve — Right Ventricle — Pulmonary Valve — Pulmonary Artery — Lungs
(Deoxygenated blood)
Lung capillaries — Pulmonary Vein — Left Atrium — Mitral Valve — Left Ventricle — Aorta — Brain, Heart, Body
(oxygenated blood)

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79
Q

Nodes & bpm:

  • SA Node
  • AV Node
  • Bundle of HIS
  • Purkinje Fibers
  • Bundle Branches
A 
SA: 60-80 bpm
AV: 40-60 bpm
HIS: 20-40 bpm
Pur: 0-20 bpm
BB: n/a
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80
Q

Echocardiogram (ECG):

  • P = phase?
  • ST = time?
  • QRS = phase?
  • T = phase?
A 
P = Atrial depolarization
ST = .04 to .06 seconds
QRS = Ventricle depolarization & Atrial repolarization (obscured)
T = Ventricle repolarization
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81
Q

Describe how the body maintains the resting state of the heart

A

“PUMP-K-IN”

  • ATP driven
  • Na+ out
  • K+ in
  • 3 Na+ for every 2 K+
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82
Q 
Depolarization = \_\_\_\_\_
Repolarization = \_\_\_\_\_
A 
D = Work
R = Rest
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83
Q

Valve Sounds:

Closing of Mitral & Tricuspid (AV Valves)

A

S1 sound

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84
Q

Valve Sounds:

Closing of Aortic & Pulmonic valves (semilunar)

A

S2 sounds

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85
Q

What tests would you do for the following:

  • Heart
  • Muscle
  • Brain
A

H: EKG, ECG
M: EMG
B: EEG

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86
Q

Contraction of heart

A

Systole

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87
Q

Period of time when heart refills with blood after systole (contraction); period during which ventricle or atrium is relaxing (dilation)

A

Diastole

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88
Q

Diastole murmurs are the most clinically significant:

name them

A

Aortic Regurgitation
Mitral Stenosis
Pulmonic Regurgitation
Tricuspid Stenosis

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89
Q

Mitral Valve regurgitation is loudest at….

A

Left Ventricle

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90
Q

MC valvular heart disease?

A

Mitral Valve Regurgitation

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91
Q

Force exerted by fluid against a wall

A

Hydrostatic pressure

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92
Q

Pressure created by plasma proteins unable to move through the capillary membrane?

A

Osmotic Pressure

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93
Q

Stroke volume increases in response to increase in volume of blood filling the heart

A

Frank Starlings Law

aka Maestrini heart’s law

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94
Q

Muscle will increase in size when used

A

Davis’ Law

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95
Q

Inversely proportional relationship between absolute pressure & volume of gas, if temp is kept constant within a closed system

A

Boyle’s Law

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96
Q

What is the algebraic equation for heart?

A

pV = k

p - pressure of system
V - denotes volume of gas
k - constant of pressure & volume of system

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97
Q

Precursor platelets are…

A

Megakaryocytes

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98
Q

MC type of blood cell whose principle means is delivering oxygen to tissues thru circulatory system.

A

RBC “Erythrocytes”

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99
Q

Cytoplasm of RBC is rich in _____ which binds oxygen & is responsible for blood color

A

Hemaglobin (15g/100ml) - iron

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100
Q

Production of RBCs:

  • Embryo
  • Fetus
  • Adult
A

E: Yolk Sac
F: Liver, Spleen, Lymph, Bone Marrow
A: Membranous Bone Marrow

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101
Q

Genesis of RBC

A

Hemocytoblast – Normoblast – Reticulocyte (1% blood) – Erythrocyte (99% blood - no nucleus)

“HNRE”

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102
Q

Where is Erythropoietin made & what does it stimulate?

A

Made in Kidney

Stimulates RBC production

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103
Q

What is the life expectancy of RBC & where is it recycled?

A

120 days

Recycled by macrophages in Spleen (heme is saved)

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104
Q

CO2 is transported in blood by …

A

Plasma Bicarbonate

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105
Q

Iron:

  • transport?
  • storage?
  • absorption?
A

T: Transferrin (Fe +3)
S: Ferritin (Fe +3 & apoferritin)
A: Fe+2 (requires vitamin C to remain reduced)

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106
Q

White blood cells are called _____

A

Leukocytes

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107
Q

White blood cells consist of …

A 
Neutrophils (60%)
Lymphocytes (30%)
Monocytes (8%)
Eosinophils (3%)
Basophils (0%)

“Never Let My Engine Blow 60-30-8-3-0”

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108
Q

Granulocytes consist of…

A

Basophils
Eosinophils
Neutrophils

“BEN”

109
Q

Agranulocytes consist of…

A

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

110
Q

Polymorphonuclear Leukocytes (PMN) consist of…

A

Neutrophils

111
Q

Explain the blood clotting repair from injury

A

Injury – Constriction – Platelet Plug – Clot – Repair

112
Q

What is the sequence of blood clotting?

A

Extrinsic (damaged cells) & Intrinsic (foreign surface) –
Prothrombin activator changes prothrombin into thrombin –
Thrombin changes fibrinogen into fibrin –
Fibrin mixes with RBCs, platelets & plasma forming Blood Clot

113
Q

What are the Clotting Factors:

A 
I - Fibrinogen
II - Prothrombin
III - Thromboplastin
IV - Calcium
V - Proaccelerin
VII - Proconvertin
VIII - Antihemophilic (Von Willebrand carrier)
IX - Antihemophilic factor B
X - Stuart Factor
XI - Antihemophilic C
XII - Hageman factor, HMW kininogen (Fitzgerald factor), platelets, prekallikrein (Fletcher factor)
114
Q

Macrophages in the:

  • Alveoli
  • Brain
  • Liver
  • Tissue
A

A: Alveolar macrophages
B: Microglial Cells
L: Kupffer Cells
T: Histiocyte or fixed macrophages

115
Q

Structure: Cell membrane found in skeletal & cardiac muscle

A

Sarcolemma

116
Q

Structure in skeletal muscle cell that stores Ca++ to be released

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

117
Q

“Telephone” line used to send the AP into the muscle to cause calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

118
Q

Two components of Myofibril

A

Actin & Myosin

119
Q

Thick, H zone, cross bridges

ATPase attachs to the HEAD

120
Q

Thin, F-filament + tropomyosin + troponin (I bands)

121
Q

Contains the binding sites

A

F-actin Filament

122
Q

Covers F-actin binding sites

A

Tropomyosin

123
Q

Binds calcium & moves tropomyosin off binding sites

found in skeletal & cardiac

124
Q

What type of muscle consists of actin, myosin & sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

Smooth Muscle

125
Q

What is needed for smooth muscle contraction?

A

Calmodulin

126
Q

Z line to Z line

A

Sarcomere

cell membrane found in skeletal & cardiac muscle

127
Q

Band that contains both actin & myosin?

128
Q

Band that contains Myosin only?

129
Q

Band that contains Actin only?

130
Q

Muscle lengthens while it contracts

131
Q

Muscle shortens while it contracts

A

Concentric

132
Q

Muscle contracts without joint movement or muscle lengthening

133
Q

Muscle contracts with joint movement & constant weight

134
Q

Muscle contracts with joint movement & constant weight/speed

A

Isokinetic

135
Q

Single motor neuron & all the muscle fibers it innervates

A

Motor unit

136
Q

What type of fibers split ATP rapidly?

A

Fast-twitch (White) muscle fibers

137
Q

Fibers that are Alpha (extrafusal) & Gamma (intrafusal)

A

Ventral Root fibers

138
Q

What is determined by number of muscle fibers recruited?

A

Strength of muscle

139
Q

What causes Rigor Mortis after death?

A

Cross-bridges form but are unable to release

140
Q

Explain how an AP takes place by T-tubles

A

AP by T-tubles – SR becomes more permeable to calcium ions & diffuse into sarcoplasm around myofibril – Calcium binds to Troponin – Troponin moves Tropomyosin complex to expose active site (F-actin binding site) – Myosin binds & muscle contraction occurs

141
Q

Spot Quiz:

  • Calmodulin is needed for ____
  • High CPK, ATPase activity is increased: ____ fibers
  • Low CPK, low ATPase activity: _____ fibers
  • Impermeable to water
A

Calmodulin = smooth muscle contraction
High = White (fast-twitch) muscles fibers
Low = Red (slow-twitch) muscle fibers
Ascending Loop of Henle = impermeable to water

142
Q

Spot Quiz:

  • Abdominal swelling
  • Fats digested
  • Whole body edema
A

Ascites - abdominal swelling
Duodenum - fats digested
Anasarca - whole body edema

143
Q

Pathway of Blood Flow through the Kidney

A

Aorta – Renal A – Segmental A – Lobar A – Arcuate A – Afferent arteriole – Glomerulus – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillaries & Vasa Recta – Arcuate Vein – Renal Vein – Inferior Vena Cava (heart)

“A Real Sailor Leaves A.A. & Gets Eloped Per Alices Request IVC”

144
Q

Pathway of Urine Flow

A

Collecting Duct – Calyx – Renal Pelvis – Ureter – Bladder – Urethra

145
Q

Between Renal Capsule & Renal Medulla
Forms Renal Columns that extend b/t the pyramids
Contains Renal Corpuscles, Renal Tubules & Collecting Ducts

A

Renal Cortex

146
Q

Portion of Kidney that contains:

  • Renal Pyramids
  • Segments of Nephron
A

Renal Medulla

147
Q

Surround the Apex of Pyramids

A

Minor Calyx

148
Q

2-3 Minor Calyx merge together to form…

A

Major Calyx

149
Q

Medullary extension of the Renal Cortex (serves as an anchor)

A

Renal Column

150
Q

Formed by segments of Nephron

Base faces the Cortex & Apex faces Minor Calyx

A

Renal Pyramid

151
Q

Location where pyramids empty urine into Minor Calyx

A

Renal Papilla

152
Q

Funnel-like dilations of proximal part of the Ureter
Point of convergence of 2-3 Major Calyx
Funnel for Urine to Ureter

A

Renal Pelvis

153
Q

Propels urine from kidney into bladder & then urethra

MC site for kidney stones

154
Q

Functional unit of the Kidney

155
Q

Pathway of the Nephron

A

Afferent Arteriole - increased pressure
Glomerulus - filtration
Proximal Tubule - reabsorption thru fennestrations (Glu,AA,Na,Cl)
Descending Loop of Henle - reabsorption of water
Ascending Loop on Henle - reabsorption of Na+ (NO WATER)
Distal Tubule - aldosterone reabsorps Na & excretes K; regulates rate of filtration
Collecting Duct - ADH controlled water ONLY reabsorption
Urine

156
Q

Kidney filtration per day

157
Q

Part of kidney for FILTRATION

A

Bowman’s Capsule (Glomerulus)

158
Q

Reabsorption (cuboidal cells) thru fenestrations of glucose, AA, Na+ & Cl-

A

Proximal Tubule (PCT)

159
Q

Cells that form the filtration membrane

160
Q

Counter current concentration

A

Loop of Henle

161
Q

Thin-walled vessels that parallel loops of henle

A

Vasa Recta

162
Q

Aldosterone reabsorbs Na+ and secretes K+

Regulates rate of filtration (along w/JG apparatus, Macula Densa)

A

Distal Tubule (DCT)

163
Q

What is the % of reabsorption of filtrate in the tubules?

A

65% by end of PCT

99% by end of DCT

164
Q

What is the normal Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) & what is it determined by?

A

120-125 ml/min

Determined by Hydrostatic Pressure

165
Q

Mechanoreceptors for blood pressure at the entrance to afferent arteriole
Regulates rate of filtration by releasing _____

A

Juxtaglomerular Cells (JG)

releases Renin

166
Q

Chemoreceptors by JG cells

Regulates rate of filtraion

A

Macula Densa

167
Q

From Zona Glomerulosa, absorbs Na+, secretes K+
Result of renin-angiotensin system
Renin is released from JG apparatus stimulated by a decrease in pressure of afferent arteriole

A

Aldosterone

168
Q

Made in the kidney, stimulates RBC production

A

Erythropoietin

169
Q

What is the Angiotensin Story?

A

Decrease in pressure in Afferent Arteriole causes –
Release of Renin by JG Apparatus (Kidney) –
Renin converts Angiotensinogen (liver protein) into Angiotensin I –
ACE (Lungs) converts Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II –
Angiotensin II causes Vasoconstriction = increase in BP
It also stimulates secretion of Aldosterone (Adrenal Cortex) which causes the tubules to reabsorb more Na+ & water = increase BP

170
Q

Protein made by the Liver

A

Angiotensinogen

171
Q

Enzyme made by the JG cells that converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I

172
Q

Enzyme made in the lungs that converts Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II

A

A.C.E. (angiotensin converting enzyme)

173
Q

Explain what Angiotensin II does

A

Constricts blood vessels (increasing BP directly)

Stimulates release of Aldosterone by adrenal cortex (increases BP by increased Na+ reabsorption in tubules)

174
Q

High pCO2 & Low pH

A

Respiratory Acidosis

175
Q

Low pCO2 & High pH

A

Respiratory Alkalosis

176
Q

Low HCO3- & Low pH

A

Metabolic Acidosis

177
Q

High HCO3- & High pH

A

Metabolic Alkalosis

178
Q

Common cause of Respiratory Acidosis

A

Hypoventilation

179
Q

Common cause of Respiratory Alkalosis

A

Hyperventilation

180
Q

Common cause of Metabolic Acidosis

A

Diarrhea, ketosis, renal dysfunction

181
Q

Common cause of Metabolic Alkalosis

A

Drugs, vomiting, diuretics

182
Q

Compensatory mechanisms for:

  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis
A

RAcidosis: increase H+ ions & HCO3-
RAlkalosis: decrease H+ ions & HCO3-
MAcidosis: Hyperventilation
MAlkalosis: Hypoventilation

183
Q

Best ventilation perfusion ration in lungs is in the …

A

Hilum

apex has very little

184
Q

Tidal Volume (TV) is

185
Q

Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) is

186
Q

Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) is

187
Q

Residual Volume (RV) is

188
Q

Inspiratory capacity (IC) is…

IRV + TV

189
Q

Functional Respiratory Capacity (FRC) is…

ERV + RV

190
Q

Vital Capacity (VC) is…

IRV + TV + ERV

191
Q

Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is…

IRV + TV + ERV + RV

A

5-6 liters or 6000ml

192
Q

What is made by Type II alveolar cells (aka pneumocytes)

A

Surfactant

193
Q

What keeps lungs expanded & decreases surface tension?

A

Lipoprotein

194
Q

Hyaline Membrane Disease is caused by…

A

No surfactant

195
Q

Inspiration, diaphragm contracts & _____ pressure, air moves into lungs

196
Q

Partial Pressure - oxygen concentration in the alveoli is controlled by:

A
  1. Rate of absorption of oxygen into the blood

2. Rate of entry of new oxygen into lungs by breathing

197
Q

Regulation that turns off inspiratory center before over-expansion of lungs

A

Pneumotaxic Center

198
Q

Regulation by stretch receptors - bronchi prevents over-stretching of lungs

A

Herring-Breuer reflex

199
Q

Regulation that prevents the turn off of inspiratory center

A

Apneustic Center

200
Q

CO2 enters blood stream, causes O2 to dissociate from hemoglobin

A

Bohr Effect

201
Q

CO2 combines with hemoglobin = more bicarbonate ions

A

Haldane effect

202
Q

CO2 in blood as HCO3 =

203
Q

CO2 as carbaminohemoglobin =

204
Q

CO2 dissolved in blood =

205
Q

Pituitary Gland – Adenohypophysis:

  • Portion of Pituitary
  • Embryology
  • Connection to Hypothalamus
  • Location
  • Hormones
A 
Portion:  Anterior Pituitary
Embryo:  Rathke's Pouch
Connection:  Hypophysial portal system
Location:  Sella Turcica
Hormones: GH (somatotropin) -- TSH -- Prolactin (luteotrophic) -- FSH -- LH -- ACTH -- MSH
206
Q

Pituitary Gland – Neurohypophysis:

  • Portion of Pituitary
  • Embryology
  • Connection to hypothalamus
  • Location
  • Hormones
A

Portion: Posterior
Embryo: Neural Ectoderm
Connection: Infundibulum (stalk)
Location: Sella Turcica
Hormones: Vasopressin (ADH) - controls water balance
Oxytocin - milk letdown, contracts uterus, suckling

207
Q

Pancreas (tail):

  • Function
  • Hormones
  • Target
  • Effect
A 
Regulates blood sugar
Insulin (beta cells, Langerhans) & Glucagon (alpha cells)
Many, Liver
Decrease blood glucose (insulin)
Increase blood glucose (glucose)
208
Q

Parathyroid / Vitamin D / Thyroid:

  • Function
  • Hormones
  • Target
  • Effect
A

Regulates blood calcium
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) & Calcitonin
Targets bone - Thyroid puts Ca+ in bone, PT takes it out
PTH - increases blood Ca+, decreases phosphorus
Calcitonin - decreases blood Ca+, increases phosphorus

209
Q

Calcitonin is secreted by…

A

Parafollicular (T3&T4 from follicular cells)

210
Q

Adrenal Cortex - Zona Glomerulosa

  • Function
  • Hormones
  • Target
  • Effect
A

Regulates salt balance
Mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)
Kidney
Reabsorb Na & Secrete K+ (salt)

211
Q

Adrenal Cortex - Zona Fasciculata

  • Function
  • Hormones
  • Target
  • Effect
A

Regulates blood sugar
Glucocorticoids (cortisol)
Many
Increase blood glucose (sweet)

212
Q

Adrenal Cortex - Zona Reticularis

  • Function
  • Hormones
  • Target
  • Effect
A

2nd sexual characteristic
Androgens (testosterone)
Hair Follicles
Hair Growth (sex)

213
Q

Adrenal Medulla:

  • Function
  • Hormones
  • Target
  • Effect
A

Fight or Flight
Medulla, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine ** Chromaffin Cells **
Many
Increase heart rate, increase BP, increase blood glucose

214
Q

Mouth:

  • Function
  • Enzymes
  • Affects
A 
Starch digestion (mechanical)
Ptyalin = Salivary amylase
Parotid, Submandibular, Sublingual
215
Q

Esophagus:

  • Function
  • Enzymes
  • Cells
A

Transport
No enzymes
Many mucus cells

216
Q

Stomach:

  • Function
  • Cells & Enzymes
A

Protein digestion initiated
Chief Cells - Pepsinogen
G-Cells - Gastrin
Parietal Cells (aka oxyntic cells) - HCL / IF

217
Q

What increases the surface area of the stomach?

218
Q

Duodenum:

  • Length
  • Function
  • Enzymes
  • Cells
A 
10-12 inches
Fat & Starch digestion
Pancreatic lipase & amylase
Brunner's cells - secretes alkaline mucus
Sphincter of Oddi, CCK, Bicarbonate
Transit thru S.I. is 2-4 hours
219
Q

Jejunum:

  • Length
  • Function
  • Enzymes
A 
6-10 feet
Peptide, disaccharide digestion & absorption
Carboxy-peptidase from pancreas
Most food digestion is completed here
Major reabsorption of water
220
Q

Where in the large intestine is most food digestion completed?

221
Q

Where in the large intestine is a major reabsorption of water?

222
Q

Ileum:

  • Length
  • Function
  • Cells
A

10-15 feet
Reabsorption of bile B12
Peyer’s Patches - lymphoid tissue

223
Q

Small Intestine:

  • Length
  • Function
  • Cells
  • Enzymes
A

20-25 feet
Carbohydrate, protein & lipid digestion
Crypts of Lieberkuhn’s (enzymes), brush border, Plicae circulares Goblet cells, Paneth cells & Argentaffin cells
Enzymes: Carboxypeptidase, Aminopeptidase, Dipeptidase, Peptidase, Dextrinase, Glucoamylase, Maltase, etc

224
Q

Gallbladder:

  • Function
  • Cells
  • Enzymes
A

Stores & concentrates bile
Cystic duct + Common Hepatic Duct = Common Bile Duct
(empties into Duodenum)
Enzymes: LDH, SGPT, SGOT, arginase, alk. phosphatase

225
Q

What causes bile from gallbladder to empty in duodenum?

It also inhibits gastric emptying?

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

226
Q

Pancreas:

  • Function
  • Enzymes
A

Digestive enzymes & produces hormones insulin and glucagon

Enzymes: Pancreatic lipase, amylase, trypsin, chymotrypsin, insulin, glucagon

227
Q

Pancreas:
_____ releases bicarbonate juice
_____ releases enzyme-rich juice

A

Secretin

CCK

228
Q

Colon:

  • Function
  • Cells
  • Muscle
  • Transit time
A

Water reabsorption & electrolytes
Paneth cells (kill bacteria)
Bacteria in colon, Taenia Coli (muscle)
Transit time thru L.I. is 3-4 days

229
Q

Rectum:

  • Function
  • Cells / muscles
  • Cancer is found in…
A

Storage for elimination
Columns of Morgagni (no taenia coli muscle)
Cancer in recto-sigmoid area

230
Q

Liver:

  • Function
  • Cells
  • What cycle is it involved in
A

Produces, stores & filters (makes bile)
Kupffer cells
Hepatocyte cells - detoxifies, processes fats & AA, vitamin storage, makes blood proteins
Urea Cycle

231
Q

Determined by the size of muscle

232
Q

Measured by total amount of work in a period of time

233
Q

Measured by nutritive support

234
Q

What muscle metabolic systems in exercise provide energy for muscle contractions?

A

Phosphocreatine-creatine system
Glycogen-lactic acid system
Aerobic system

235
Q

Decomposes to creatine & phosphate ions, releasing large amounts of energy (10,300 calories)

A

High energy phosphate bond

creatine phosphate system

236
Q

T/F: Energy transfer from phosphocreatine to ATP occurs quickly (almost instantaneously)

237
Q

Cell ATP + phosphocreatine = quick bursts of energy (8-10 sec)

A

Phosphagen energy system

238
Q

Stored glycogen in muscle split into glucose for energy

A

Glycogen-lactic acid system

239
Q

Anaerobic metabolism, each glucose molecule split into two pyruvic acid molecules = 4 ATP

A

Glycolysis

240
Q

Lack of air (anaerobic), pyruvic acid is converted into _____ causing considerable amount of ATP formation (1.3-1.6 min)

A

Lactic Acid

241
Q

In aerobic oxidation, what does the mitochondria store for energy:

A

Glucose, fatty acids, carbs, amino acids

242
Q

What is converted to ATP in the aerobic system, and how long does it last?

A 
AMP & ADP converted to ATP
Unlimited time (as long as nutrients last)
243
Q

What fibers are twice as large with forceful, rapid contractions (jumping)

A

A-fibers (Fast)

244
Q

What fibers are used for endurance, prolonged strength & last minutes to hours

A

C-fibers (slow)

245
Q

Kidney arises from the posterior _____

246
Q

Urinary System begins with _______

A

Kidney (retroperitoneal)

247
Q

What kidney is lower than the other?

A

Right Kidney is lower than Left Kidney

248
Q

Kidneys are surrounded with a ….

A

Perirenal Fat Border

249
Q

The Renal Pyramids are located in the:

250
Q

pH of Semen

251
Q

Pathway of Sperm

A

Seminiferous Tubules – Rete Testis – Efferent Ductules – Head Epididymis – Tail Epididymis – Vas Deferens which joins Urethra @ Prostate

252
Q

Spermatogenesis (from outside to inside)

A

Spermatogonia – 1* Spermatocyte – 2* Spermatocyte – Spermatids – Spermatozoa

253
Q

Part of Convoluted Seminiferous Tubules that nourish developing sperm thru spermatogenesis

  • activated by FSH
  • required for male sexual development
A

Sertoli Cells

254
Q

Cells that produce Testosterone (androgen) in the presence of LH
- Prolactin increases response of these cells to LH by increasing # of LH receptors.

A

Leydig Cells

255
Q

Hormone that controls Spermatogenesis (where Sertoli cells nurture immature sperm)

A

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

256
Q

Hormone that causes the secretion of testosterone by Leydig cells

A

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

257
Q

Primary reproductive organs of female

258
Q

Ovaries produce what 2 hormones:

A

Estrogen & Progesterone

259
Q

What ligament anchors the ovaries medially to uterus?

A

Ovarian Ligament

260
Q

What ligament anchors the ovaries laterally to the pelvic wall

A

Suspensory Ligament

261
Q

Strongest ligament that supports uterine tubes, uterus & vagina

A

Broad Ligament

262
Q

What hormone:

  • Enlargement of uterus (increases in pregnancy)
  • Maintains & prevents degeneration of reproductive organs
  • Secreted by Corpus Luteum in first 1/2 of cycle
  • Responsible for Proliferation (nongravid uterus)
263
Q

What hormone:

  • Secreted by Corpus Luteum in second 1/2 of cycle
  • Increases in pregnancy
  • Secreted in nongravid uterus
A

Progesterone

264
Q

What Hormone:

- Matures follicle & proliferation in nongravid uterus

A

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

265
Q

What Hormone:

- Stimulates pre-ovulating follicle causing rupture of follicle & ovulation (secretory phase of endometrium)

A

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

266
Q

What Hormone:

  • Maintains Corpus Luteum
  • Most frequently detected in home pregnancy tests
A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

267
Q

Phosphagen system is used in what sports:

A

100 meter dash
Weight lifting
Diving
Football dashes

(8-10 seconds)

268
Q

Phosphagen & Glycogen system is used in what sports:

A

200 meter dash
Basketball
Baseball home run
Ice hockey dashes

269
Q

Glycogen-lactic acid system is used in what sports:

A

400 meter swim
Tennis
Soccer

(1.3-1.6 minutes)

270
Q

Glycogen, Lactic Acid & Aerobic Systems are used in what sports:

A 
800 meter dash
1 mile run
200 & 400 meter swim
1500 meter skating & running
Boxing
2000 meter rowing
271
Q

Aerobic system is used in what sports:

A

10,000 meter skate
Cross country skiing
Marathon run (26+ miles)
Jogging

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