Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SPI School Flashcards > SPI URR MOCK EXAM 1 > Flashcards

SPI URR MOCK EXAM 1 Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following can be related to color flash artifact except

A. decreased color filter
B. decreased color scale
C. increased color priority
D. decreased color gain

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following correctly describes an annular array

A. improved temporal resolution is a primary advantage of annular arrays
B. produces a sector shaped field of view with a flat top
C. offers excellent lateral resolution
D. produces a trapezoid shaped field of view

A

C, annular arrays improve lateral but degrade temporal, sector is produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When evaluating a suspected arterial stenosis, a Doppler angle of _____ degrees will produce the most accurate flow velocity

A. 0
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90

A

A, 0 is the most accurate angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following parameters is displayed as the x-axis on a doppler tracing

A. speed
B. time
C. velocity
D. motion

A

B, x=time y=doppler shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following correctly describes dynamic aperture

A. type of transmit focusing
B. will increase the appearance of lobe artifact
C. uses more crystals to receive deep reflections than to shallow reflections
D. also called dynamic frequency tuning

A

C, type of receive focusing that uses more crystals to receive shallow reflections, reduces lobe artifact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following bioeffects refers to the formation of microbubbles that burst and cause damage to tissues

A. mechanical index
B. stable cavitation
C. thermal energy
D. transient cavitation

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If each image requires 50 acoustic pulses and your system displays 30 images per second, what is the pulse rep frequency

A. 60Hz
B. 1500Hz
C. 100Hz
D. 1500ms

A

B, 30x50=1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What imaging technique has the worst temporal resolution

A. M-mode
B. 2D imaging
C. color doppler
D. PW doppler

A

C, m mode has the best temp resolution and color has the worst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is true regarding annular arrays and linear arrays

A. annular arrays and linear arrays can be electronically steered
B. annular arrays must be mechanically steered, linear arrays use electronic steering
C. annular arrays have multiple elements, linear arrays have a single element
D. annular arrays can be electronically steered, linear arrays must be mechanically steered

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the primary factor that determines the resistance characeristics of the arterial signal displayed by PW doppler

A. origin of blood
B. part it is supplying
C. vessel course and location
D. branch number

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A thermocouple device is

A. used only to assess beam intensity at specific locations
B. only used in therapeutic ultrasound
C. used to heat the ultrasound gel for patient comfort
D. used to assess total beam intensity

A

A, intensity in specific locations, calorimeter is used for total power of the beam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is a necessary machine setting when performing a contrast evaluation of the heart

A. mechanical index set to 1.0 or greater
B. harmonic imaging off
C. mechanical index set to 0.3 or lower
D. low PRF color doppler setting

A

C, higher MI levels will cause premature bursting of bubbles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When frequency increases

A. the wavelength increases because they are indirectly related
B. the wavelength decreases because they are directly related
C. the wavelength decreases because they are indirectly related
D. the wavelength increases because they are directly related

A

C, frequency and wavelength are inversely related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Activating which of the following ultrasound functions will cause the largest increase in beam intensity

A. M mode
B. color doppler
C. PW doppler
D. B color

A

C, b mode uses the lowest beam intensity, PW requires highest beam intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is true regarding continuous wave transducer structure and function

A. CW probes do not require a matching layer
B. CW probes are preferred for detection of low velocity flow
C. CW probes have a single PE element
D. CW probes usually have no backing material

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When you adjust the doppler PRF, you adjust the ______ control on the system

A. sensitivity
B. velocity scale
C. threshold
D. velocity baseline

A

B, when you adjust the PRF, you adjust the velocity scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The best angle of insonation to produce the most accurate doppler shift information is ______ degrees

A. 0
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Grating lobes degrade

A. lateral resolution
B. axial resolution
C. contrast resolution
D. sound penetration

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following will not change with an increase in gain settings

A. reflection amplitude
B. number of echoes displayed
C. brightness of the image
D. signal to noise ratio

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

As beam width increases, how is intensity affected

A. no change except in endocavity probes intensity decreases
B. no change except in endocavity probes intensity increases
C. decreases
D. increases

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following patients would need a guardian to sign an informed consent form for a pericardiocentesis

A. blind patient
B. patient with alzeimer’s disease
C. patient that is accompanied by a translator
D. patient with parkinson’s disease

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is necessary for a multihertz transducer

A. broad bandwidth
B. two different sizes of piezoelectric elements
C. two piezoelectric elements
D. narrow bandwidth

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Increasing overall gain will

A. increase the amplitude of all of the reflectors on the image
B. increase the patient exposure to ultrasound
C. produce a diagnostic image in most cases
D. increase the signal to noise ratio

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In read magnification, image size and _____ increases. In write magnification, image size and _______ increases

A. relfection amplitude, transmitted amplitude
B. pixel size, number of pixels
C. number of pixels, pixel size
D. frame rate, time of frame production

A

B, pixel size increases with read and pixel number increases with write

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

______ can be used to reduce image noise and clutter on the 2D image

A. switching to a curved array transducer
B. spatial compounding
C. adjusting the doppler baseline
D. decreasing transducer frequency

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

_______ is the process that is performed in the beam former where the output voltage is varied to decrease the formation of lobe artifacts

A. autocorrelation
B. spectral analysis
C. quadrature phase detection
D. apodization

A

D, output voltage is varied with apodization to decrease the formation of lobe artifacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The doppler shift is 5000Hz. The pulse repetition frequency is 9000Hz. Which of the following is true

A. the peak velocity is qual to 2 m/s
B. the peak pressure gradient is 36 mmHg
C. aliasing will occur
D. range ambiguity will occur

A

C, nyquist limit=9000/2=4500Hz. the doppler shift is 5000Hz which exceeds the nyquist limit of 4500Hz so aliasing will occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When arterial stenosis is present, the pressure gradient and ______ will vary in order to maintain a constant _____

A. resistance, velocity
B. resistance, flow rate
C. flow rate, resistance
D. flow rate, velocity

A

B, pressure gradient and resistance will vary to maintain a constant flow rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following console controls can be used to increase the number of scan lines used in a color image

A. persistance
B. rejection
C. output power
D. overall gain

A

A, increased persistance increase the number of scan lines used to create an image and reduce the frame rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The main advantage of a curvilinear transducer over a vector transducer is

A. the ability to perform CW doppler with 2D imaging
B. the ability to scan at increased frame rates
C. the wider neaer field
D. the smaller footprint

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a difference between read and write magnification

A. read magnification displays a selected portion of the original image from data stored in the system. write mag allows the selection of a region of the image to display and the us system rescans the area to produce a new image
B. write mag displays a selected portion of the original image from data stored in the system. read mag allows the selection of a region of the image to display and the us system rescans the area to produce a new image
C. read mag offers improved spatial and temporal resolution. write mag has no effect on resolution
D. read mag is a pre processing function. write mag is a post processing function

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following correctly describes how a linear array transducer produces a trapezoid field of view

A. PE elements are stimulated by times voltage spikes produced in a concave pattern
B. PE elements are stimulated by times voltage spikes produced first on the left and moving to the right side of the array
C. PE elements are stimulated by times voltage spikes produced in a convex pattern
D. PE elements are stimulated by timed voltage spikes produced first on the right and moving to the left side of the array

A

C, timed voltages produced in a convex shape will create a wider beam, if the voltages are timed to stimulate the elements in a concave pattern a focused beam is produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

You switch from a 5MHz curved probe to a 2.5MHz sector probe to image deeper in the abdomen. How is the attenuation rate affected by the change to the new probe

A. decreases by 25%
B. decreases by 50%
C. doubles
D. increases by 4 times

A

B, lower frequency probes offer slower attenuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following console adjustments will improve the temporal resolution on the image

A. adding another focal zone
B. decreasing imaging depth
C. turning off the zoom function
D. turning on harmonic imaging

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tissue doppler imaging uses ______ settings then PW doppler

A. lower frequencies
B. higher filter
C. higher frequencies
D. lower filter

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The sonographer can improve the axial resolution by

A. increasing the demodulation of the signal
B. adjusting the monitor contrast
C. adjusting the dynamic range
D. using a higher frequency transducer

A

D, axial resolution is directly related to SPL, pulse length is determined by the frequency of the element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following will reduce the amount of color doppler information displayed on the image

A. increased sample size
B. increased sensitivity
C. increased packet size
D. increased probe frequency

A

A, larger sample sizes cause lower frame raets and less accurate color information, the greater # of scan lines the better the color, increasing frequency will improve color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

_______ removes low amplitude signals and noise from the image

A. increasing rejection
B. increasing dynamic range
C. increasing compression
D. decreasing the 2D threshold

A

A, rejection removes low amp noise and signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If the input power is 2mW and the output power is 200mW, what is the gain

A. 30dB
B. 100dB
C. 20dB
D. 10dB

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The average attenuation of ultrasound in the soft tissue is

A. 0.5 dB/cm/MHz
B. 0.5 dB/cm
C. 5 dB/cm/MHz
D. 0.5 dB/cm/MHz

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

You are performing a PW doppler exam. Only 2 cardiac cycles are demonstrated on the screen at one time with the current settings. What adjustment can be made to demonstrate 5-6 cardiac cycles on the screen at one time

A. ask the patient to perform the valsalva maneuver
B. increase sweep speed
C. decrease sweep speed
D. increase the frame rate

A

C, decreasing the sweep speed will demonstrate more doppler changes over a longer amount of time, increasing the sweep speed shows fewer cardiac cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The narrowest portion of a beam produced by a focused ultrasound transducer is

A. the first centimeter of the beam that leaves the transducer
B. the focal point
C. the fresnel zone
D. the fraunhofer zone

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

______ artifact is caused by refraction and results in subtle image degradation

A. comet tail
B. misregistration
C. multipath
D. scatter

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following system functions allows the linear transducer to offer a trapezoidal field of view

A. mechanical focusing
B. electronic focusing
C. apodization
D. electronic steering

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Even and odd harmonic frequencies are created by

A. turbulent flow in a blood vessel
B. variable timing of the firing of the piezoelectric elements
C. alternating current to different piezoelectric elements in the transducer array
D. non linear sound wave propagation

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding transducer selection

A/ a high frequency transducer has degraded axial resolution compared to a lower frequency transducer
B. a high frequency transducer has greater far field beam divergence than a lower frequency transducer
C. a high frequency transducer has degraded lateral resolution compared to a lower frequency transducer
D. a high frequency transducer has less depth penetration than a lower frequency transducer

A

D, low frequency transducer has greater penetration than a high frequency transducer, low frequency transducer has more far field beam divergence

47
Q

How is focusing performed using the reflected portion of the beam

A. system processes only half of the reflections that are returned
B. varying the amplitude of the voltage spike produced for each PE element
C. varying the number of PE elements used to receive the reflected echoes
D. increasing the PRF

A

C

48
Q

Which of the following applies to therapeutic ultrasound transducers

A. backing material at least 2x thickness of that used in imaging transducers
B. narrow bandwidth
C. frequencies >15MHz used due to the increased potential for focused cavitation
D. low Q factor

A

B

49
Q

Activating harmonic imaging will result in

A. degraded lateral resolution
B. increased production of grating lobes
C. improved contrast resolution
D. increased beam diameter

A

C

50
Q

What effect will increased hematocrit levels have on an arterial duplex exam

A. decreased blood viscosity
B. decreased blood flow velocities
C. increase color flow display
D. hematocrit levels do not affect a doppler evaluation

A

B

51
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of virtual beam forming (VBF) over traditional pulse echo imaging (PEI)

A. VBF does not require a sonographer to operate the transducer
B. VBF allows for 5 or more transmit focal zones per image with acceptable temporal resolution
C. VBF produces a lower intensity beam than a traditional PEI system
D. VBF allows for improved lateral resolution without degradation of temporal resolution

A

D

52
Q

The tissue phantom is scanned from the top/ There are 6 pins separated by different millimeter intervals from each other from the top to bottom in the phantom. If you measure the minimum visible distance between the pins, what are you testing on your ultrasound system

A. lateral resolution
B. slice thickness resolution
C. axial resolution
D. contrast resolution

A

C, parallel=axial

53
Q

If blood pressure increases with no change in resistance, what happens

A. increased viscosity of flow
B. decreased flow volume
C. increased flow rate
D. decreased flow rate

A

C

54
Q

What artifact is produced by interference of reflected waves from many tiny reflectors

A. refraction
B. speckle
C. comet tail
D. range ambiguity

A

B

55
Q

Which system control elps to avoid a 90 degree angle incident angle for color doppler

A. steering the sample
B. persistence
C. color priority
D. spatial compounding

A

A

56
Q

Which of the following will not affect the signal to noise ratio on a 2D image

A. spatial compounding
B. frequency compounding
C. harmonic imaging
D. temporal compounding

A

D, temporal resolution is used to improve color doppler (persistence)

57
Q

When the doppler tracing demonstrates a thin outline for a peaked waveform with a large spectral window, this indicates

A. laminar flow
B. high reynolds number
C. high grade stenosis
D. poor cardiac function

A

A

58
Q

Which of the following tissue interfaces will cause the greatest amount of specular reflection

A. liver parenchyma- diaphragm
B. renal parenchyma- renal sinus
C. liver parenchyma- IVC
D. rectus abdominis muscle- subcutaneous fatty tissue

A

A

59
Q

Which of the following will be negatively affected by spatial compounding

A. signal to noise ratio
B. spatial resolution
C. speckle reduction
D. temporal resolution

A

D

60
Q

If an ellipse is used to document the area of a structure, what unit will be used to report the measurement

A. cm^3
B. cm^2
C. cm/s
D. cm

A

B

61
Q

Which of the following fetal structures carries the greatest risk of thermal injury from ultrasound exposure

A. cardiac muscle tissue
B. free floating portions of the umbilical cord
C. tissue surrounding the fluid filled cavities in the brain and spinal column
D. tissue adjacent to the femur

A

D, tissue adjacent to bone has the highest risk of thermal bioeffects

62
Q

Which of the following techniques uses the highest intensity beam

A. PW doppler
B. power doppler
C. b mode
D. m mode

A

A, PW doppler used the highest intensity sound compared to other sonographic techniques

63
Q

An 8 bit memory would display how many shades of gray

A. 8
B. 16
C. 128
D. 256

A

D

64
Q

Spatial resolution is

A. the minimum reflector separation required to produce separate echoes
B. highest with linear phased arrays
C. the weakest reflected signal the transducer can receive
D. another term for slice thickness resolution

A

A

65
Q

If a sound beam moves from air into soft tissue at an incident angle of 60 degrees, how will the angle of the transmitted wave change

A. increase
B. remains constant
C. unable to determine
D. decrease

A

A, the speed of sound in air is 330m/s and the sound in tissue is 1540m/s. the prop speed increased when the wave entered the soft tissue so the angle of transmission would be greater than 60 degrees

66
Q

Which of the following variables has the most significant effect on prop speed

A. temperature
B. density
C. stiffness
D. frequency

A

C

67
Q

Which of the following describes an important reason to verify the US examination that is ordered is the exam tat should really be performed

A. when the exam is ordered after hours and no reading physician is available
B. sonographers should not question the orders written by physicians and perform the exam as ordered
C. when the suspected abnormality is better visualized by another modality
D. when te suspected diagnosis is not able to be evaluated by the exam that is ordered

A

D

68
Q

Which of the following describes the primary advantage of a 1.5D array over a 1D array

A. the 1.5D array eliminates the need for a stand off pad for superficial imaging
B. the 1.5D array allows for 3D imaging while the 1D array does not
C. the 1.5D array can produce a trapezoid field of view while the 1D array can only produce a rectangular field of view
D. the 1.5D array allows for variable elevation focus while the 1D array has a fixed elevation focus

A

D

69
Q

Capacitive micromachined ultrasonic transducers (CMUT)

A. are no longer used in the field
B. use miniature elements that each contain a fixed component and a flexible membrane
C. use large elements with tiny air pockets in each one
D. cannot be used to perform 3D imaging

A

B

70
Q

If a doppler system is operating at a PRF of 5000/s what is the maximum doppler frequency that can be detected

A. 2500kHz
B. 5000kHz
C. 2.5kHz
D. 5kHz

A

C, nyquist limit= 1/2 PRF. the maximum doppler shift that can be detected without aliasing is 2500 Hz or 2.5kHz

71
Q

If the lines per frame increases and the depth remains the same, what other system parameter must change for sound wave production

A. signal to noise ratio
B. propagation speed of the sound produced
C. frequency
D. PRF

A

D

72
Q

Reducing the size of the field of view improves _____ resolution

A. temporal
B. lateral
C. contrast
D. axial

A

A

73
Q

A 5MHz transducer has a PRF of 6kHz and is being used to produce a wave with a 0.6mm wavelength and 3mm spatial pulse length. What is the axial resolution of this system

A. 1.5mm
B. 2mm
C. 1.2mm
D. 1mm

A

A, axial resolution=1/2 SPL; AR= 1/2 (3mm)=1.5mm

74
Q

The pulser sends the voltage spike to the

A. digital scan converter
B. beam former
C. transducer
D. analog scan converter

A

C

75
Q

How many pulses are needed per scan line in order to generate a single frame of color doppler

A. 3
B. 1
C. 6
D. 16

A

A, 2D= 1 pulse per scan line; color doppler uses from 3-32 pulses per scan line

76
Q

There is no known adverse biological effect in vivo using an unfocused ultrasound transducer at intensities below

A. 1000 mW/cm^2 SATA
B. 1000 mW/cm^2 SPTA
C. 100 W/cm^2 SPTA
D. 100 mW/cm^2 SPTA

A

D

77
Q

Vessel wall thickness and plaque morphology are best evaluated in 2D when the beam is at what incident angle to the vessel

A. 0 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 90 degrees

A

D, perpendicular incidence of beam to vessel wall will provide best reflection for 2D image; doppler flow is most accurate when the beam is parallel (0 degrees); the best obtainable doppler angle is 60 degrees

78
Q

If the stenosis/blockage reduces the vessel lumen to 1/2 of the normal vessel area, the velocity of flow at the stenosis must _____ to maintain the flow rate

A. increase by 200%
B. decrease by 50%
C. double
D. quadruple

A

C

79
Q

lobe artifacts

A. only occur with sector arrays
B. only occur with linear arrays
C. always appear deeper on the image than the actual structure
D. always appear beside the actual structure on the image

A

D

80
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding pulse inversion imaging

A. reduces frame rate compared to standard 2D imaging
B. used to improve color doppler display in deep structures
C. increases destruction of contrast material micorbubbles
D. improves temporal resolution

A

A

81
Q

________ is the predominant factor causing attenuation of the us beam and this can be counteracted by _______

A. sound absorption, increasing the TGC settings for the near field
B. reflection, reducing the overall gain setting
C. refraction, scanning the breast from a different angle
D. sound absorption, increasing the TGC setting for the far field

A

D

82
Q

The imaging depth is increased and temporal resolution is degraded. Which of the following console adjustments can improve the temporal resolution

A. add a focal zone
B. reduce the sector size
C. increase persistence
D. increase the line density

A

B

83
Q

How is density of a medium related to impedance within the medium

A. higher densities= higher impedance
B. higher densities= lower impedance
C. lower densities=higher impedance
D. these two characteristics of the media are unrelated to sound wave travel

A

A, tissues with higher density will demonstrate higher acoustic impedance

84
Q

Which of the following factors has no effect on the doppler shift

A. transducer frequency
B. transducer element width
C. propagation speed within the media
D. transducer element thickness

A

B, doppler shift= 2 x blood velocity x transducer frequency x cosine of the incident angle / speed of sound in soft tissue

85
Q

What happens to the attenuation coefficient as the wave travels through soft tissue

A. unable to determine
B. remains constant
C. decreases
D. increases

A

B

86
Q

What type of transducer array has the fewest number of elements

A. linear phased array
B. curvilinear sequential array
C. mechanical transducer
D. annular array

A

D, annular has 5 while the rest have an average of 200 elements

87
Q

Young’s modulus is used to determine what is displayed on the image during

A .elastography
B. spectral doppler
C. color doppler
D. power doppler

A

A

88
Q

Which of the following transducers will produce the highest frequency sound waves

A. 6mm element thickness, 6mm/micsec prop speed of the element
B. 6mm element thickness, 2mm/microsec prop speed of the element
C. 2mm element thickness, 6mm/microsec prop speed of the element
D. 2mm element thickness, 2mm/microsec prop speed of the element

A

C, thinner elements with higher prop speeds produce the highest frequency waves

89
Q

What is the proper method used to assess the size of the dead zone

A. measure the width of the area of reverberation at the top of the screen
B. measure from the top of the image to the depth that uniform tissue is identified
C. trace the area of the portion of the image that demonstrates reverberation at the top of the screen
D. trace the volume of the portion of the image that demonstrates reverberation at the stop of the screen

A

B

90
Q

The amount of compensation necessary for different echoes varies with reflector

A. depth
B. density
C. impedance
D. size

A

A

91
Q

As the blood vessel radius decreases, _______

A. the resistance increases
B. the diastolic flow rate increases
C. the velocity decreases
D. the pulsatility decreases

A

A

92
Q

The vacuum tube monitor receives its electrical signal from which component of the us system

A. digital to analog converter
B. receiver
C. pulser
D. analog to digital converter

A

A

93
Q

What wave parameter is defined as the wavelength times the number of cycles in the pulse

A. SPL
B. PRF
C. period
D. pulse duration

A

A, SPL is defined as the wavelength times the number of cycles in the pulse

94
Q

Which of the following system adjustments would increase the size of the spectral window

A. decreasing rejection
B. tortuous vessel
C. changing from a 2mm to 4mm sample size
D. changing from a 4mm to 2mm sample size

A

D, reducing the sample size will display a larger spectral window beneath a narrow range of frequency shifts

95
Q

When a patient is supine, what is the hydrostatic pressure at the ankles

A. 0mmHg
B. 50mmHg
C. 100mmHg
D. 140mmHg

A

A

96
Q

Edge enhancement, pixel interpolation, persistence and 3D image acquisition are all types of

A. post processing
B. spatial compounding
C. preprocessing
D. coded excitation

A

C

97
Q

________ is defined as specific area or location where doppler shift information is being obtained

A. spectral window
B. spectral broadening
C. sample volume
D. nyquist limit

A

C

98
Q

Increasing the angle of electronic steering causes ______ production of lobe artifact

A. increased
B. decreased
C. no change
D. limited

A

A

99
Q

Which of the following describes a vector array transducer

A. uses mechanical steering
B. has a sector shaped field of view with a flat top
C. uses only mechanical focusing
D. used for breast imaging and extremity vascular exams

A

B

100
Q

You are scanning a thyroid gland with a 5cm wide linear array transducer. You are unable to document the upper and lower poles of the same image to obtain a length measurement of the gland. Which of the following techniques would assist in documenting the entire thyroid gland on a single image

A. electronic focusing
B. 3D volume rendering
C. spatial compounding
D. panoramic imaging

A

D

101
Q

Which of the following correctly describes m mode

A. uses a very high sampling rate
B. has better axial resolution than 2D imaging
C. normally used wit a sweep speed of 100mm/s speed
D. uses a higher intensity beam than doppler ultrasound

A

A

102
Q

As the pulse repetition period decreases, ______

A. the imaging depth increases
B. the imaging depth decreases
C. amplitude increases
D. the pulse repetition frequency decreases

A

B

103
Q

All of the following are advantages of CW doppler over PW doppler except

A. not limited by PRF
B. ability to evaluate deeper vessels
C. no aliasing
D. ability to determine high velocities at exact locations

A

D

104
Q

Which of the following can be used for backing material in PW transducer

A. epoxy
B. air
C. quartz
D. backing material is only required in CW transducers

A

A

105
Q

______ compares each reflected echo to the same echo from a previous US pulse to determine if motion is present

A. temporal resolution
B. quadrature detector
C. registration accuracy
D. autocorrelation

A

D

106
Q

Which of the following doppler angles would lead to the most significant error in estimation of the flow velocity

A. 25
B. 45
C. 65
D. 80

A

D, the greater the angle, the greater the amount of error in the estimation of flow velocity

107
Q

The direction of the doppler shift determines

A. the color doppler luminance
B. the peal velocity of the flow
C. the color doppler hue
D. the average velocity of the flow

A

C

108
Q

The primary advantage of pulsed wave doppler is

A. allows for evaluation of flow at greater depths
B. absence of the nyquist limit
C. absence of aliasing
D. range resolution

A

D

109
Q

What can be done to reduce the mechanical index level during the exam

A. use contrast materials on the exam
B. reduce output power
C. decrease probe frequency
D. increase the threshold setting

A

B

110
Q

Which of the following sound wave parameters varies as the prop speed changes in different media

A. wavelength
B. period
C. PRF
D. frequency

A

A

111
Q

Which of the following will not affect the signal to noise ratio on a 2D image

A. temporal compounding
B. spatial compounding
C. frequency compounding
D. harmonic imaging

A

A

112
Q

Which of the following is true regarding annular arrays and linear arrays

A. annular arrays must be mechanically steered, linear arrays use electronic steering
B. annular arrays can be electronically steered, linear arrays must be mechanically steered
C. annular arrays have multiple elements, linear arrays have a single element
D. annular arrays and linear arrays can be electronically steered

A

A

113
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes annular arrays

A. an annular array can electronically focus the beam
B. an annular array can use phasing to electronically steer the beam
C. annular arrays provide the lowest slice thickness resolution
D. annular arrays usually contain 30 or more circular elements

A

A

114
Q

Activating which of the following ultrasound functions will cause the largest increase in beam intensity

A. PW doppler
B. B color
C. color doppler
D. M mode

A

A

SPI School Flashcards (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions