Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Mosby Review Questions > Speech Science > Flashcards

Speech Science Flashcards

1
Q

Which subset of the 12 cranial nerves is critically important during speech production?
a. III, VI, X, and XI
b. V, VII, X, and XII
c. IV, V, VII, and XII
d. I, V, X and XI
e. IV, V, VI, and XI

A

b. V, VII, X, and XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Nuclei are groups of cell bodies (somas) that reside:
a. Inside the central nervous system (CNS)
b. Outside the CNS
c. Inside the peripheral nervous system (PNS)
d. Outside the PNS
e. Within the layers of the cerebral cortex

A

a. Inside the central nervous system (CNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The corticobulbar tract projects to most of the brain-stem’s motor nuclei in which manner?
a. Ipsilaterally
b. Contralaterally
c. Rostrally
d. Caudally
e. Bilaterally

A

e. Bilaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The _______________ is the basic unit of the nervous system.
a. Axon
b. Dendrite
c. Soma (cell body)
d. Motor unit
e. Neuron

A

e. Neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Executive functions such as reasoning, planning, and problem solving are associated with the operation of the __________________
lobe.
a. Frontal
b. Parietal
c. Temporal
d. Insula
e. Occipital

A

a. Frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A lesion to the lower motor neuron will result in which of the following symptoms?
a. Spasticity
b. Hyperactive reflexes
c. Tremor
d. Observed muscle effects on the contralateral side from the injury
e. Flaccid paralysis or paresis

A

e. Flaccid paralysis or paresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ataxic dysarthria is related to a lesion of which of the following?
a. Basal ganglia
b. Broca area
c. Cerebellum
d. Facial motor nucleus
e. Brainstem

A

c. Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The trigeminal lemniscal system transmits which of the following sensations from the face to the primary sensory cortex in the brain?
a. Proprioception and touch
b. Touch and vision
c. Auditory input
d. Olfactory sensation and taste
e. Only painful sensations

A

a. Proprioception and touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Motor neurons innervating the muscles of mastication reside within which brainstem nucleus?
a. The motor nucleus of the trigeminal system
b. The facial motor nucleus
c. The nucleus ambiguus
d. The mandibular nucleus
e. The nucleus retrotrigeminalis

A

a. The motor nucleus of the trigeminal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Complete damage to the right and left hypoglossal nerves (cranial nerve XII) would result in:
a. Inability to voluntarily move the lips
b. Inability to voluntarily move the tongue
c. Inability to taste
d. Inability to trigger a swallowing reflex
e. Inability to propel a bolus down the esophagus

A

b. Inability to voluntarily move the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The _____________________ nerve innervates the muscles of
expression and mediates taste in the anterior segment of the tongue.
a. Facial
b. Vagus
c. Glossopharyngeal
d. Accessory
e. Oculomotor

A

a. Facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The Broca area and the Wernicke area are interconnected through the:
a. Uncinate fasciculus
b. Cingulum
c. Arcuate fasciculus
d. Internal capsule
e. Internal arcuate fibers

A

c. Arcuate fasciculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which efferent tract innervates all the motor nuclei of the cranial nerve systems in the brainstem?
a. Corticobulbar tract
b. Tectospinal tract
c. Corticospinal tract
d. Rubrospinal tract
e. Vestibulobulbar tract

A

a. Corticobulbar tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In the absence of the trigeminal nerve, what abnormalities would be observed?
a. Loss of sensation to the larynx
b. Loss of taste to the anterior portion of the tongue
c. Loss of sensation to the skin of the face
d. Loss of motor control to the muscles of the face
e. Loss of salivary gland function

A

c. Loss of sensation to the skin of the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which muscle, originating from the lateral and superior cricoid rim, is involved primarily in “medial compression” during vocalization and, when active, rotates the muscular process of the arytenoid laterally?
a. Lateral cricoarytenoid
b. Oblique inter arytenoids and lateral cricoarytenoid
c. Cricothyroid
d. Transverse interarytenoid and lateral cricoarytenoid
e. Superior cricoarytenoid

A

a. Lateral cricoarytenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Glottal abductors include the:
    a. Cricothyroid muscle with assistance from the thyroarytenoid muscle
    b. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
    c. Transverse interarytenoid and lateral cricoarytenoid muscles
    d. Interarytenoid and lateral cricoarytenoid muscles
    e. Hyothyroid and sternothyroid muscles
A

b. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. The __________________ is the largest of the laryngeal cartilages.
    a. Thyroid
    b. Cricoid
    c. Arytenoid
    d. Hyoid
    e. Corniculates
A

a. Thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. The __________________ is a free-floating and U-shaped bone that forms the upper extent of the laryngeal system.
    a. Thyroid
    b. Cricoid
    c. Arytenoid
    d. Hyoid
    e. Tragus
A

d. Hyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The thyrovocalis muscle:
a. Abducts the vocal folds
b. Slides the arytenoid cartilages toward the midline
c. Decreases the distance between the cricoid and the arytenoid cartilages
d. Contributes minimally to pitch adjustment during speech
e. Forms the medial segment of the musculature of the vocal folds

A

e. Forms the medial segment of the musculature of the vocal folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The mentalis muscle originates from the anterior surface of the mandible and:
a. Inserts into the upper lip to assist in upper lip elevation
b. Inserts into the lower lip to assist in lower lip elevation
c. Inserts into the oral angle to help draw the corners of the mouth posteriorly
d. Inserts into the deep skin of the nostrils to assist in a flaring action
e. Can function to depress inferiorly the skin of the chin and bottom lip

A

b. Inserts into the lower lip to assist in lower lip elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The buccinator muscle is a deep facial muscle that originates partially from the maxilla and:
a. Makes its insertion by interdigitating with the nasalis muscle
b. Makes its insertion by interdigitating with the muscles that constitute the oral angle
c. Makes its insertion by interdigitating with the corrugator muscle
d. Makes its insertion by interdigitating with the palatoglossus muscle
e. Makes its insertion into the ramus of the mandible

A

b. Makes its insertion by interdigitating with the muscles that constitute the oral angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The zygomaticus major and minor muscles operate together to:
a. Retract the oral angle directly posterior
b. Draw the lower lip directly upward and compress it against the upper teeth during speech
c. Elevate the upper lip and draw the oral angle superiorly and posteriorly
d. Compress the cheek tissue against the teeth
e. Draw the oral angles downward, as in a frown

A

c. Elevate the upper lip and draw the oral angle superiorly and posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Originating from the temporal fossa, the temporalis muscle is capable of:
a. Rapidly depressing the mandible
b. Shearing and tearing actions
c. Preventing lateral motion of the jaw to one side if contracted unilaterally
d. Acting as an antagonist to the masseter muscle
e. Opening the oral cavity by lowering the mandible

A

b. Shearing and tearing actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The medial pterygoid muscle plays an active role in closing the jaws during speech. Which muscle is considered the direct antagonist of the medial pterygoid muscle during speech?
a. Lateral pterygoid muscle
b. Anterior belly of digastricus muscle
c. Masseter muscle
d. Mylohyoid muscle
e. Stylohyoid muscle

A

b. Anterior belly of digastricus muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The ________________ muscle is responsible for the opening of the eustachian tube.
a. Levator veli palatini
b. Palatopharyngeus
c. Palatoglossus
d. Musculus uvulus
e. Tensor veli palatini

A

e. Tensor veli palatini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

High vowels have a higher oral impedance, which is correlated with a:
a. Smaller velopharyngeal opening
b. Larger velopharyngeal opening
c. Velopharyngeal opening size that decreases with production of low vowels
d. Velopharyngeal opening size that varies between small and large
e. Larger nostril opening

A

a. Smaller velopharyngeal opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The muscles of the velopharyngeal system include the:
a. Levator veli palatini, tensor veli palatini, and superior pharyngeal constrictor
b. Levator veli palatini, tensor veli palatini, and cricopharyngeus
c. Tensor veli palatini, cricopharyngeus, and lateral cricoarytenoid
d. Cricopharyngeus, lateral cricoarytenoid, and posterior cricoarytenoid
e. Tensor veli palatini, cricopharyngeus, and superior pharyngeal constrictor

A

a. Levator veli palatini, tensor veli palatini, and superior pharyngeal constrictor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The levator veli palatini muscle is commonly referred to as the velar sling. The primary tole of this muscle during velopharyngeal port closure is:
a. to tense and stiffen the anterior velum at the border of the palatine bone
b. To shorten and thicken the nasal surface of the velum along the midline
c. To lower the velum
d. To stiffen the nasal surface of the velar tissue
e. To elevate and retract the velum posteriorly

A

e. To elevate and retract the velum posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The primary function of the musculus uvulae during velopharyngeal port closure is:
a. To tense and stiffen the anterior velum at the border of the palatine bone
b. To shorten and thicken the nasal surface of the velum along the midline
c. To lower the velum
d. Minimal and redundant with the action of the levator veli palatine
e. To elevate and retract the velum posteriorly

A

b. To shorten and thicken the nasal surface of the velum along the midline

30
Q

The tongue body is able to adjust its shape and perform complex three-dimensional changes because of the lack of an internal bony skeleton. Such a system is referred
to as.
a. An isovolume system
b. A muscular hydrostat
c. A hydroelastic system
d. A hygrometer
e. A skeletal muscle

A

b. A muscular hydrostat

31
Q

The cranial plates of the skull are connected with the following type of joint:
a. Synarthrodial
b. Diarthrodial
c. Gliding
d. Pivot
e. Saddle

A

a. Synarthrodial

32
Q

Lateral deviation of the tongue body requires fine motor regulation of the:
a. Transversus and verticalis muscles
b. Genioglossus and thyrohyoid muscles
c. Superior and inferior longitudinal muscles
d. Verticalis and styloglossus muscles
e. Transversus and styloglossus muscles

A

c. Superior and inferior longitudinal muscles

33
Q

Changes to the surface shape of the facial skin is a consequence of the following condition:
a. Elasticity of the basement membrane of the skin
b. Tendinous attachment of muscle to the facial skin
c. Direct insertion of muscle fascicles into the facial skin
d. Compression of static tissues volumes during oral movement
e. Edema

A

c. Direct insertion of muscle fascicles into the facial skin

34
Q

The maxilla and the palatine bone contribute to constitute what structure?
a. The soft palate
b. The hard palate
c. The pre-maxilla
d. The tertiary palate
e. The temporomandibular joint

A

b. The hard palate

35
Q

What is the fundamental importance of pleural linkage in the respiratory system?
a. It allows for the translation of rib movement, through activation of the respiratory muscles, into lung volumes changes
b. It prevents the collapse of the lung
c. It facilitates rib rotation through the bucket-handle and pump-handle maneuvers
d. It prevents the rib cage from expanding to an extremely large volume
e. It reduces heat produced by friction between the pleural membranes

A

a. It allows for the translation of rib movement, through activation of the respiratory muscles, into lung volumes changes

36
Q

Regulation of the respiratory system through rapid and controlled internal intercostal muscle activity allows a person to modulate different parameters of voicing, including:
a. Phrasing
b. Formant values
c. Prosody
d. Nasality
e. Fluency

A

c. Prosody

37
Q

The vertebral column has the following number of vertebrae in each of its divisions:
a. 5 lumbar and 7 sacral
b. 6 lumbar and 8 cervical
c. 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, and 7 cervical
d. 7 cervical, 1 lumbar, and 4 sacral
e. 5 lumbar, 12 sacral, and 7 thoracic

A

c. 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, and 7 cervical

38
Q

Lung tissue and the deep surfaces of the rib cage are lined with two pleural membranes known as the:
a. Vital and partial pleural
b. Visceral and parietal pleura
c. Vacuous and particulate pleura
d. Reticular and mesothelial pleura
e. Parenchyma and endothelia pleura

A

b. Visceral and parietal pleura

39
Q

Lung volumes are affected by a variety of factors, including:
a. Personality type
b. Educational level
c. Age
d. Height
e. Chest circumference

A

c. Age

40
Q

The volume of air inspired or expired during any given breath cycle is known as:
a. Expiratory reserve volume
b. Inspiratory reserve volume
c. Tidal volume
d. Residual volume
e. Dynamic volume

A

c. Tidal volume

41
Q

Together, which abdominal muscles form the lateral abdominal wall?
a. Rectus abdominis, transverse abdominal, and subcostal muscles
b. External abdominal oblique, quadratus lumborum, and scalene muscles
c. Internal abdominal oblique, external abdominal oblique, and transverse abdominal muscles
d. Trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and serratus posterior
muscles
e. Deltoid, serratus anterior, and sacrospinal muscles

A

c. Internal abdominal oblique, external abdominal oblique, and transverse abdominal muscles

42
Q

The volume of air remaining in the pulmonary system at the end of maximum expiration is known as:
a. Expiratory reserve volume
b. Inspiratory reserve volume
c. Tidal volume
d. End-point volume
e. Residual volume

A

e. Residual volume

43
Q

The maximum volume of air that can be forcefully expired after a maximum inspiration is known as the:
a. Inspiratory capacity
b. Vital capacity
c. Functional residual capacity
d. Total lung capacity
e. Total residual capacity

A

b. Vital capacity

44
Q

Which segment of the internal intercostal muscle group operates to lower the ribs?
a. Interchondral segment
b. Intrapulmonary branch
c. Interpleural segment
d. Bronchiole segment
e. Interosseous segment

A

e. Interosseous segment

45
Q

A lesion to the recurrent laryngeal nerve would result in what behavioral outcome?
a. Loss of sensation in the larynx
b. Loss of motor (muscle) activity to the extrinsic laryngeal muscles
c. Paralysis of all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid
d. Paralysis of the cricothyroid
e. Paralysis of the external laryngeal muscles

A

c. Paralysis of all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid

46
Q
  1. A spirometer is used to measure ________________.
    a. Lung volumes
    b. Airflow
    c. Subglottal pressure
    d. Loudness
    e. Pleural pressures
A

a. Lung volumes

47
Q

The relaxation pressure curve is a graph that:
a. Depicts the amount of active pressure generated during inhalation and exhalation
b. Illustrates the concept that lung pressures can be created with the passive elastic recoil and rebounding forces of the lung-chest wall system
c. Demonstrates that the magnitude of lung pressure generated is not related or influenced by lung volumes
d. Demonstrates that negative lung pressures are generated when lung volumes are greater than volumes at rest
e. Illustrates the concept that all lung pressures necessary to support speech production must be actively generated

A

b. Illustrates the concept that lung pressures can be created with the passive elastic recoil and rebounding forces of the lung-chest wall system

48
Q

Bucket-handle rib rotation:
a. Results in a large change in the mediolateral volume of the thorax
b. Is generated by dorsoposterior rotation of the rib
c. Results in a small mediolateral volume change during inhalation
d. Occurs in the absence of any other form of rib motion
e. Describes the expansion of the rib cage during * quiet breathing

A

a. Results in a large change in the mediolateral volume of the thorax

49
Q

The vocal tract is modeled as a pliable tube with:
a. One end open
b. Both ends open
c. Both ends closed
d. A hard boundary on one end and a soft boundary on the other
e. One end open and the other end either open or closed

A

a. One end open

50
Q

A mathematical and structural theory relating the motion of the vocal folds to that of a spring-mass system was developed by:
a. Bernoulli
b. Titze
c. Fant
d. Fourier
e. Stemple

A

b. Titze

51
Q

The spectrographic patterns of nasalized vowels, in comparison with those of nonnasalized vowels, exhibit the following characteristic:
a. A narrowing of the effective bandwidths around specific formant peaks
b. An increase in overall sound energy
c. An increase in specific formant peaks
d. A perceived decrease in pitch
e. An absence of sound energy at certain frequencies within the source spectrum

A

e. An absence of sound energy at certain frequencies within the source spectrum

52
Q

Peaks in a vowel output spectrum with maximal energy transfer are called:
a. Crests
b. Troughs
c. Formants
d. Harmonics
e. Vowels peaks

A

c. Formants

53
Q

______________ consonants start out like stop plosives, but the articulatory occlusion is released less abruptly, with a less vigorous burst of airflow.
a. Nasal
b. Fricative
c. Affricate
d. Glottal
e. Glide

A

c. Affricate

54
Q

With regard to vowel formants, the vowel quadrilateral demonstrates which generality?
a. First formant frequency (F1) is affected mostly by the anterior-posterior position of the tongue
b. Second formant frequency (F2) is influenced mostly by the height of the tongue body
c. Low vowels have higher F1 values than do high vowels
d. Third formant frequency (F3) is influenced by the interaction of tongue position and height
e. F1 is affected most by the size of the oral opening

A

c. Low vowels have higher F1 values than do high vowels

55
Q

A low-pass filter is characterized by what property?
a. It attenuates low-frequency components in a complex waveform
b. It boosts the amplitude of low-frequency components in a complex waveform
c. It boosts the intensity of high-frequency components in a complex waveform
d. It has a flat frequency response
e. It attenuates high-frequency components in a complex waveform

A

e. It attenuates high-frequency components in a complex waveform

56
Q

A fricative consonant’s sound source consists of:
a. Turbulent noise generated by forcing air through a narrow articulator constriction
b. Vocal fold vibration
c. The period of the stop-gap
d. Antiresonance effects
e. Complex voicing resonances during frication

A

a. Turbulent noise generated by forcing air through a narrow articulator constriction

57
Q

If the difference in amplitude between the frequencies of 100 Hz and 1600 Hz is 100 dB, what is the roll-off rate of a filter?
a. 25 dB/octave
b. 0 dB/octave
c. 20 dB/octave
d. 10 dB/octave
e. 15 dB/octave

A

a. 25 dB/octave

58
Q

What is the bandwidth of a formant if the upper and lower cutoff frequencies are equal to 1100 Hz and 700 Hz, respectively?
a. 400 Hz
b. 1100 Hz
c. 900 Hz
d. 1800 Hz
e. 770 kHz

A

a. 400 Hz

59
Q

__________________ occurs when the articulatory characteristics of an upcoming sound influence the characteristics of a currently produced sound.
a. Phonation
b. Resonance
c. Coarticulation
d. Articulation
e. Unintelligible speech

A

c. Coarticulation

60
Q

Oscillation of a particle around its rest position as a result of recoil and inertial forces is called
a. Complex harmonic motion
b. Simple harmonic motion
c. Uniform circular motion
d. Aperiodic motion
e. None of the above

A

b. Simple harmonic motion

61
Q

Resonance is the phenomenon in which an object tends to vibrate with ________________ energy at ____________________.
a. Minimum, a particular frequency
b. Maximum, a particular frequency
c. Minimum, minimal amplitude
d. Maximum, minimal amplitude
e. Maximum, all frequencies

A

b. Maximum, a particular frequency

62
Q

Period and frequency are __________ related to each other.
a. Directly
b. Inversely
c. Not
d. Sometimes
e. Nonlinearly

A

a. Directly

63
Q

Formants are resonances of the vocal tract that:
a. Change in value according to alterations in the shape of the vocal tract
b. Remain constant with changes in the shape of the vocal tract
c. Change in value without alteration in the shape of the vocal tract
d. Remain constant with different vowels
e. Characterize voiceless vowel sounds

A

a. Change in value according to alterations in the shape of the vocal tract

64
Q

The position of the second formant for a given vowel (relative to the first formant) is most related to changes in the:
a. Volume of the oral cavity
b. Volume of the nasopharynx
c. Volume of nasal cavity
d. Volume of the pharyngeal cavity
e. Size of the oral opening

A

a. Volume of the oral cavity

65
Q

The three quantitative measures depicted by a spectrogram are:
a. Amplitude, frequency, and pitch
b. Frequency, amplitude, and time
c. Time, pitch, and amplitude
d. Frequency, intensity, and phase
e. Phase, attenuation rate, and harmonic effects

A

b. Frequency, amplitude, and time

66
Q

Skeletal muscle fiber is composed primarily of filaments known as:
a. Fascia
b. Myofibrils
c. Collagen
d. Epimysium
e. Myoactin

A

b. Myofibrils

67
Q

The sarcomere:
a. Represents the smallest structural unit of a muscle capable of decreasing its overall length
b. Is bounded by the A-bands
c. Represents a theory of muscle contraction and force development
d. Is another name for a muscle fiber
e. Is synonymous with the term motor unit

A

a. Represents the smallest structural unit of a muscle capable of decreasing its overall length

68
Q

The smallest functional element controlled by the motor control system is the:
a. Motor neuron
b. Motor unit
c. Motor cortex
d. Muscle unit
e. Sarcomere

A

b. Motor unit

69
Q

The physiological classification of muscle fibers as
“fatigue resistant” suggests that these fibers:
a. Generate large amounts of force
b. Operate for short time periods
c. Are active during strenuous activities
d. Are well suited to support rapid burst of force production
e. Generate small levels of force during most routine behaviors

A

e. Generate small levels of force during most routine behaviors

70
Q

The myofibril is composed of two critical proteins whose interaction underlies the process of muscle contraction. These two proteins are:
a. Myosin and tropomyosin
b. Actin and cytoskeleton
c. Myosin and actin
d. Troponin and actin
e. Myoactin and tropomyosin

A

c. Myosin and actin

Mosby Review Questions (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions