Specific Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Veterinary Prescriptions

A

Record Keeping Requirements:

> Batch number
If there is a written prescription, the name and address of the prescriber
Name of the medicine
The date of receipt or supply

under the veterinary cascade:

dispensing label:
>Date of supply
>Name and address of the animal owner
>Name and address of the pharmacy
>The words ‘For animal treatment only’

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2
Q

Revalidation

A

2 planned
2 unplanned
1 reflective
1 peer review

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3
Q

HIV Patient

A

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus that causes immunodeficiency by infecting and destroying cells of the immune system, particularly the CD4 cells. AIDS (cannot be transmitted) below 200 cells/microlitre

The regimen of choice contains a backbone of emtricitabine and either tenofovir disoproxil or tenofovir alafenamide. An alternative backbone regimen is abacavir and lamivudine. The third drug of choice is either atazanavir or darunavir both boosted with ritonavir, or dolutegravir, or elvitegravir boosted with cobicistat, or raltegravir, or rilpivirine. Efavirenz may be used as an alternative third drug.

Breast-feeding by HIV-positive mothers may cause HIV infection in the infant and should be avoided.

HIV is found in the body fluids of an infected person. This includes semen, vaginal and anal fluids, blood and breast milk. HIV cannot be transmitted through sweat, urine or saliva.

Vaccines: HepB, HPV, flu, pneumonia, meningococcal, DTP

AVOID (live): BCG, polio, typhoid, smallpox/chickenpox, rotavirus, yellow fever, MMR

HIV positive patients cannot transmit the virus through sex if their viral load has been undetectable for over 6 months; undetectable=untransmittable (U=U)

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4
Q

Citalopram

A

SSRI (depression, panic disorder)

Hyponatraemia (drowsiness, confusion, and
convulsions)

can take up to 4-6 (6 in elderly, in part response use for another 2-4 weeks) weeks to start feeling benefit from treatment do not stop taking after a week or two

do not drink alcohol, can increase side effects (sleepy)

can effect glucose

do not take with St. John’s wort

skin may become more sensitive to sunlight, use SPF

SE: nausea, sleepy, dry mouth, headache, mood changes (anxious, shaky)

Speak with GP: increased sweating, loss of appetite, weightless, tingling, reduced sex drive, palpitations, runny nose, itching

contra: epilepsy
QT-interval prolongation

***postpartum haemorrhage

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5
Q

Amlodipine

Diltiazem

Felodipine

Lercaidipine

Nifedipine

Verapamil

A

CCB

***avoid grapefruit juice

A: hypertension, avoid in pregnancy

D: angina/ hypertension/chronic anal fissure, avoid in pregnancy, MR: Swallow this medicine whole. Do not chew or crush

F: MR: Swallow this medicine whole. Do not chew or crush, dose reduction, avoid pregnancy and BF okay, uncommon to feel fatigue

L: avoid in hepatic and pregnancy, take 30 to 60 minutes before food

N: caution Diabetes, MR: Swallow this medicine whole. Do not chew or crush, constipation, avoid before 20 weeks pregnant

V: unlicensed for cluster headaches, avoid in 1st trimester, MR: swallow this medicine whole. Do not chew or crush, avoid in pregnancy, overdose: hypotension, arrhythmia

contra: acute acute porphyria (pain, digestive, muscle, mental changes), cariogenic shock, HF, severe bradycardia

caution: elderly, hepatic impairment, sudden withdrawal exacerbation of myocardial ischaemia

SE: headache, flushed, hot, abdominal discomfort, oedema, dizzy

poisoning: nausea, vomiting, dizziness, agitation, confusion, and coma in severe poisoning. Metabolic acidosis and hyperglycaemia may occur. severe hypotension secondary to profound peripheral vasodilatation.

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6
Q

Tamsulosin

Dutasteride
Finasteride

A

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

> alpha blocker

contra: severe hepatic impairment, postural hypotension, micturition syncope, may affect driving

SE: dizzy/faint/sweating, sexual dysfunction

> 5-alpha reductase inhibitors

***women should not handle if pregnant, use condom

D: contra in sever liver, caution in mild/moderate liver, 500 micrograms once a day, Consider reducing the dosing frequency of dutasteride if adverse effects occur during long-term concurrent treatment with potent CYP3A4 inhibitors (such as itraconazole, ritonavir, and clarithromycin

F: 5 mg once a day

SE: sexual dysfunction tends to improve, breast changes

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7
Q

Methylphenidate

A

ADHD

Sch 2

Ensure same brand

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8
Q

Diabetes in Pregnancy

A

use effective contraception until good blood glucose control has been achieved

Offer up to monthly measurement of HbA1c levels for women with diabetes who are planning a pregnancy

5mg folic acid for diabetic pregnancy to prevent spina bifidaup to 12 weeks

Advise women with diabetes who are planning a pregnancy to aim to keep their HbA1c level below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%), Strongly advise women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) not to get pregnant until their HbA1c level is lower

T1DM fasted: 5-7
unfasten: 4-7

Feed your baby as soon as possible after the birth (within 30 minutes) to help keep their blood glucose at a safe level.

Baby will have heel prick test to check glucose

Stop ACE/AII as well as statins in pregnancy

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9
Q

preparation of intravenous infusions

preparing and administering injections from a multi-dose vial

A

once running, intravenous infusions should be intermittently checked for signs of interaction or contamination

> the bung of each multi-dose vial must be cleaned with an alcohol wipe and allowed to air dry before use
the date and time of reconstitution should be marked on each vial
a single dose canNOT be drawn from more than one multi-dose vial if necessary
a new sterile syringe and needle should be used each time a dose is withdrawn from a vial
the time that the vaccine must be used by should be marked on each vial

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10
Q

H. Pylori infection

A

common cause of peptic ulcer (duodenal, gastric), NSAIDs (ibuprofen, aspiring) may exacerbate

presence of H. Pylori to be confirmed before treatment, ‘test and treat’ strategy

urea (13C) breath test, Stool Helicobacter Antigen Test (SAT), or laboratory-based serology

urea (13C) breath test and SAT should not be performed within 2 weeks of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor or within 4 weeks of antibacterial treatment, as this can lead to false negatives.

Retesting should be performed at least 4 weeks (ideally 8 weeks) after treatment

comprises a PPI and 2 antibacterials for 7 days

1st: a proton pump inhibitor, plus amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole

PENICILIN ALLERGY: A proton pump inhibitor, plus clarithromycin, and metronidazole.

2nd: A proton pump inhibitor, plus amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole (whichever not used in first line)

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11
Q

expiry date

use by

A

should not take after the end of the last day of month given (July 2020=July 31 2020)

used before date given

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12
Q

Canesten Combi Pessary and Cream

A

if symptoms do not improve in 7 days, seek GP

not recommended in children

-more than two infections of candidal vaginitis in the last 6 months.

-previous history of sexually transmitted disease or exposure to partner with sexually transmitted disease.

-pregnancy or suspected pregnancy.

-ages 16-60 years.

Canesten Combi Pessary and External Cream should not be used if the patient has any of the following symptoms whereupon medical advice should be sought:

-irregular vaginal bleeding, abnormal vaginal bleeding or a blood-stained discharge.

-vulval or vaginal ulcers, blisters or sores.

-lower abdominal pain or dysuria.

-any adverse events such as redness, irritation or swelling associated with the treatment.

-fever or chills, nausea or vomiting, diarrhoea, foul smelling vaginal discharge.

Treatment during the menstrual period should not be performed due to the risk of the pessary being washed out by the menstrual flow. The treatment should be finished before the onset of menstruation.

Do not use tampons, intravaginal douches, spermicides or other vaginal products while using this product.

Vaginal intercourse should be avoided in case of vaginal infection and while using this product because the partner could become infected.

in pregnancy, the pessary should be inserted without using an applicator

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13
Q

PSD vs PGD

A
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14
Q

T1DM

A

offer the structured education programme 6 to 12 months after diagnosis

offer carbohydrate‑counting training

Measure HbA1c levels every 3 to 6 months in adults with type 1 diabetes, then 6 month intervals

Lifestyle including diet management — 48 mmol/mol (6.5%).
Lifestyle including diet combined with a single drug not associated with hypoglycaemia (such as metformin) — 48 mmol/mol (6.5%).
Drug treatment associated with hypoglycaemia (such as a sulfonylurea): 53 mmol/mol (7.0%).

Fasted: 5-7
before meal/other times: 4-7
unfasted: 5-9

Consider ketone monitoring (blood or urine) as part of ‘sick‑day rules’ for adults with type 1 diabetes, to help with self‑management of hyperglycaemia, especially in DKA

hypoglycaemia signs
DKA signs

sick days: Medication may be restarted once the person is feeling better and eating and drinking for 24–48 hours (unless insulin, do not stop, dose may be altered), An increase in monitoring frequency may be needed, such as at least every 3–4 hours including through the night and advice to record the result, onsider the need for blood or urinary ketone monitoring (ketone level is greater than 2+, or blood ketone level is greater than 3 mmol/L, the person should seek immediate medical advice)

Retinopathy
low: every 2 years (no signs after two successive test)
everyone else: every year

Foot Problems
low: annually
moderate: 6-8 weeks
high: 2-4 weeks

driving/diabetes BNF
notify DVLA due to hypos
>they should test their blood glucose every 2 hours when on a long journey
>drivers should monitor their blood glucose more frequently when their meal routine has been altered
>drivers treated with insulin should ensure that a supply of sugar is always available in the vehicle
>If hypoglycaemia occurs, stop the vehicle in a safe place, wait until 45 minutes after blood glucose has
returned to normal before continuing journey
>If hypoglycaemia occurs, then drivers must stop the vehicle in a safe place and switch off the engine and
move from the driver’s seat

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15
Q

Colchicine

A

no antidote to overdose is currently available

gout

monitor full blood ocunt

caution: cardiac, elderly, GI
contra: blood disorder

SE: Abdominal pain; diarrhoea; nausea; vomiting

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16
Q

Cefalexin

A

cephalosporin

UTI, HAP

adjust in renal impairment

false positive: urinary glucose, Coombs’ test

cannot take if penicillin allergy

can be taken either before or after food, although it may start to work a little sooner if it is taken before food

contraceptive can be reduced due to vomitng and diarrhoea

can stop oral typhoid vaccine

okay in pregnancy

SE: diarrhoea, stomach discomfort

allergy: swelling of the tongue

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17
Q

ordering and supply of ‘unlicensed specials’

A

if a licensed medicinal product is available, despite being ‘off-label’, this should be used in preference to an ‘unlicensed special’

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18
Q

Spiolto Respimat

A

once in use, the cartridge has a shelf life of three months

Spiolto Respimat is effective for 24 hours so you will need to take Spiolto Respimat only ONCE A DAY, if possible at the same time of the day. Each time you use it take TWO PUFFS.

Breathe out slowly and fully.
Close your lips around the mouthpiece without covering the air vents. Point your Inhaler to the back of your throat.

While taking a slow, deep breath through your mouth, PRESS the dose-release button and continue to breathe in slowly for as long as comfortable.
Hold your breath for 10 seconds or for as long as comfortable
epeat TURN, OPEN, PRESS for a total of 2 puffs.
Air vent
ONCE DAILY
• Close the cap until you use your inhaler again.

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19
Q

supply of pseudoephedrine and ephedrine

A

regulations apply due to the potential for use in the illicit production of crystal meth (methylamphetamine)

Pseudoephedrine can only be sold from a pharmacy when the responsible pharmacist is present

cannot be sold together

pseudo: 720, ephin: 180

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20
Q

Maloff Protect (atovaquone 25 mg and proguanil hydrochloride 100 mg) Tablets

bite avoidance and sun protection

chloroquine
(Avloclor®) tablets.

A

Malaria

if you have diarrhoea, you should continue to take your tablets as normal

DEET (N,N-Diethyl-meta-toluamide) 30 % and sunscreen SPF 20

A 50% DEET-based insect repellent is recommended as the first choice; there is no further increase in duration of protection beyond a DEET concentration of 50%. DEET is safe and effective when applied to the skin of adults and children over 2 months of age. It can also be used during pregnancy and breast-feeding. However, ingestion should be avoided, therefore breast-feeding mothers should wash their hands and breast tissue before handling infants. When sunscreen is also required, DEET should be applied after the sunscreen. DEET reduces the SPF of sunscreen, so a sunscreen of SPF 30–50 should be applied.

Length of Prophylaxis: Prophylaxis should generally be started before travel into an endemic area; 1 week before travel for chloroquine and proguanil hydrochloride (avoid in epilepsy); 2–3 weeks before travel for mefloquine; and 1–2 days before travel for atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride or doxycycline. Prophylaxis should be continued for 4 weeks after leaving the area (except for atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride prophylaxis which should be stopped 1 week after leaving).

Avloclor: Two tablets should be taken once a week, on the same day each week. Continuing for 4 weeks after return from
malarias area.

any illness that occurs within 1 year and especially within 3 months of return might be malaria

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21
Q

creating a local formulary

A

> improved cost management of medicines and appliances across the health community
improved local care pathways
improved patient outcomes by optimising the use of evidence-based therapies
support for prescribers in implementing prescribing guidance published by regulatory bodies

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22
Q

fridge items

A

label the items clearly ‘under quarantine’ and place in the pharmacy fridge

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23
Q

Praxbind (idarucizumab) antidote

A

dabigatran

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24
Q

Sodium Valproate

A

HIGH RISK DRUG

Epilepsy

Unlicensed use:
Migraine prophylaxis

***risk of suicidal thoughs/behaviors can occur in 1st week, PPP plan to be met

if potential pregnancy: advise the woman to take a pregnancy test, continue to take the sodium valproate and discuss the result with her GP

withdrawal after patient has even seizure-free after two years, avoid abrupt withdrawal, at least 4 weeks

caution: systemic lupus erythematosus, liver toxicity

Sodium Valproate is associated with hepatotoxicity therefore liver function should be measured at
baseline and at regular intervals throughout therapy.

monitor: liver function for 6 months (ALT), full blood count, false positive urine test for ketones, weight and BMI

SE: nausea, shaky, hair loss, headache, sleepy, increased weight

urgent: vomiting, abdominal pain, jaundice, oedema, drowst/malaise, loss of seizure control, suicidal ideation…uncontrolled movements, yellowing of eyes, unexplained cough/sore throat, unusual bleeding/bruising

should supplement with calcium if immobilised or limited sun exposure

brand dispensing

potentiated MAOI, antidepressants, benzo
increases warfarin
increased lamotrigine metabolism (serious skin reaction)
erythromycin

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25
Q

Azathioprine

A

Crohn’s disease, rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune conditions, transplant rejection

immunisation with live vaccines should be avoided

Manufacturer advises reduce dose to one-quarter of the usual dose with concurrent use of allopurinol and in elderly, risk of myelosuppression (decrease bone marrow) in patients with reduced thiopurine methyltransferase activity withdraw in RA if nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea

counsel on bone marrow suppression: brusing, bleeding, infection

withdraw in RA if nausea, vomiting or diarrhoea

reduce dose in elderly

Using azaTHIOprine together with mesalamine may increase the effects of azaTHIOprine

warning signs: malaise, dizziness, diarrhoea, fever, myalgia, rash, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, unexplained bruising, bleeding or infection (bone depression/myelosuppresion)

monitoring: full blood count (can cause low blood count: thrombocytopenia and low white blood cell: leucopenia), renal and liver function

interaction: risk of anaemia/leucopenia with ACE, anticoagulant reduced: coumarins, haematological toxicity: allopurinol, risk of infection with live vaccine

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26
Q

isotretinoin

A

depression, pop, 2 month supply, increased risk of dry eye syndrome, vitamin a toxicity

prescriptions are valid only
for seven days
max 30 day supply

retinoid

severe acne

***PPP

**neuropsychiatric reactions and sexual dysfunction: erectile dysfunction and decreased libido, depression

Caution: Avoid blood donation during treatment and for at least 1 month after treatment, dry eye syndrome (associated with risk of keratitis); history of depression (risk of neuropsychiatric reactions)

contra: Hyperlipidaemia; hypervitaminosis A

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27
Q

Montelukast

A

night terrors

advise the parents to continue administering montelukast but make an immediate appointment with the GP

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28
Q

ceoliac disease

A

low Hb, low MCV, low ferritin
would experience breathlessness

aim of treatment: eliminate symptoms of diarrhoea, bloating, and abdominal pain

treatment: strict, life-long GF diet

increased risk of malabsorption of calcium and vitamin D=>risk of osteoporosis

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29
Q

lipid modification therapy for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease

A

> familial hypercholesterolaemia
type 1 diabetes
QRISK 3 score of 23.4 %
chronic kidney disease

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30
Q

Grave’s disease

A

an autoimmune condition where your immune system produces antibodies that cause the thyroid to produce too much thyroid hormone

once euthyroid, the woman may need to adjust her daily calorie intake

Carbimazole should be offered as first-line definitive treatment if radioactive iodine and surgery are unsuitable treatment options.

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31
Q

T2DM Side Effect for Immediate Attention

A

muscle cramps

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32
Q

sign or symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency (Riboflavin)

A

a common side effect of treatment with metformin is vitamin B12 deficiency:

> depression
fatigue
glossitis: inflammation of the tongue
paraesthesia: burning/prickling sensation in hands, arms, legs, feet

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33
Q

midazolam CD

A

CD NO REGISTER POM

except from safe custody

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34
Q

Gina

A

Treatment of vaginal atrophy due to oestrogen deficiency in postmenopausal women aged 50 years and above, who have not had a period for at least 1 year

estradiol 10 micrograms vaginal tablets

Initial dose: One vaginal tablet daily for two weeks.
Maintenance dose: One vaginal tablet twice a week.

Treatment may be started on any convenient day.

If a dose is forgotten, it should be used as soon as the patient remembers. A double dose should be avoided.

Gina may be used in women with or without an intact uterus.

contra: endometrial cancer, genital bleeding, endometrial hyperplasia, vulval dermatoses, current vaginal infection, vulval rash, severe vaginal itching, breast cancer/ovarian cancer, DVT, angina/myocardial infarction, ischaemic stroke, liver disease, porphyria

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35
Q

Bumetanide

Furosemide

Co-amilofruse

A

Loop Diuretics (Potassium Loss)

Hypokalaemia, which can be caused by potassium-depleting diuretics such as the loop diuretics, increases the
toxicity of the digitalis glycosides.

oedema/resistant hypertension

contra: liver cirrhosis, renal failure, anuria (kidney failure), severe hypokalaemia/hyponatraemia (nausea, diarrhoea, palpitations and feeling faint)

caution: can exacerbate diabetes and gout, hypotension be corrected before, elderly, urinary retention in enlarged prostate

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36
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Breast Cancer

Tamoxifen should be taken daily to reduce the risk of the breast cancer returning

must not get pregnant, contraception must be used during treatment and for 2 months after stopping, risk of multiple pregnancy

SE: hot flush, vaginal discharge, nausea, headache, dizzy, itchiness

urgent: unusual vaginal bleeding (risk of endometrial cancer), [breathlessness, pain/swelling in lower leg/calf and is warm to the touch=>DVT]

Tamoxifen should be taken daily to reduce the risk of the breast cancer returning, with ongoing review of the
benefits versus risks of continuing.
Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer. Paroxetine reduces the effectiveness of tamoxifen
through inhibiting its conversion to its active form. Timing of tamoxifen will not reduce the hot flush which is a
common side effect. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and a swollen leg could suggest
a deep vein thrombosis which requires urgent medical attention in a hospital.
Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer. Paroxetine reduces the effectiveness of tamoxifen
through inhibiting its conversion to its active form. Timing of tamoxifen will not reduce the hot flush which is a common side effect. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and a swollen leg could suggest
a deep vein thrombosis which requires urgent medical attention in a hospital.

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37
Q

risk of developing venous thromboembolisim (VTE)

A

prolonged immobility

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38
Q

COPD rescue pack

A

Antibiotic with Steroid

1st line: Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5 days

2nd: Doxycycline: 200 mg on first day, then 100 mg once a day for 5 days

3rd: Clarithromycin: 500 mg twice a day for 5 days

Prednisolone 5mg tablets: 30 mg oral prednisolone once daily for 5 days

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39
Q

home nebuliser device

A

inform the parents that independent purchases of nebulisers without medical supervision is not recommended

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40
Q

acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

prescribe an additional inhaler containing a corticosteroid

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41
Q

acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

prescribe an additional inhaler containing a corticosteroid

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42
Q

reconstitution of Velcade (bortezomib)

A

the strength of solution when prepared for intravenous infusion is 0.1% w/v

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43
Q

NEWS2

A

Low risk (aggregate score 1 to 4) – prompt assessment by ward nurse to decide on change to frequency of monitoring or escalation of clinical care.

Low to medium risk (score of 3 in any single parameter) – urgent review by ward-based doctor to determine cause and to decide on change to frequency of monitoring or escalation of clinical care.

Medium risk (aggregate score 5 to 6) – urgent review by ward-based doctor or acute team nurse to decide on escalation to critical care team.

High risk (aggregate score of 7 or over) – emergency assessment by critical care team, usually leading to patient transfer to higher-dependency care area.

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44
Q

Emergency Contraceptive

Levonelle

EllaOne

A

L: 3 days/72hrs, levonogestrel
1500mcg, prevents about 84% of expected pregnancies

  • stopping your ovaries from releasing an egg;
  • preventing sperm from fertilising any egg you may have already released

If vomiting occurs within three hours of taking the tablet, another tablet should be taken immediately.

can be used at any time during the menstrual cycle unless menstrual bleeding is overdue

After using emergency contraception it is recommended to use a local barrier method (e.g. condom, diaphragm spermicide, cervical cap) until the next menstrual period starts.

not recommended in patients with severe liver dysfunction, Crohn’s disease (inhibits absorption).

menstrual periods are usually normal and occur at the expected date. They can sometimes occur earlier or later than expected by a few days

E: 5 days, ulipristal acetate
30mg

by postponing ovulation
Of 100 women who take this medicine

approximately 2 will become pregnant

if your period is more than 7 days late; if it is unusually light or unusually heavy; or if you experience symptoms such as abdominal (stomach) pain, breast tenderness, vomiting or nausea, you may be pregnant

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45
Q

progestogen-only pill (pop)

A

> 3-hour progestogen-only pill (traditional progestogen-only pill) – must be taken within 3 hours of the same time each day (Noriday)
12-hour progestogen-only pill (desogestrel progestogen-only pill) – must be taken within 12 hours of the same time each day (Cerazette, desogestrel)

if sick within 2 hrs of taking it, take another one and the next at the usual time

can take if over 35, smoke, can be used if you cannot use contraception that contains oestrogen

must take at the same time each day

there’s no break between packs of pills – when you finish a pack, you start the next one the next day.

can start any time during menstrual cycle:
day 1 to 5 (the first 5 days of your period), it’ll work straight away and you’ll be protected against pregnancy. You will not need additional contraception.

If you have a short menstrual cycle, you’ll need additional contraception, such as condoms, until you’ve taken the pill for 2 days.

If you start on any other day, you will not be protected from pregnancy straight away and will need additional contraception until you’ve taken the pill for 2 days.

if you miss less than 3 or 12 hrs:

take the late pill as soon as you remember, and
take the remaining pills as normal, even if that means taking 2 pills on the same day

if you miss more than the 3 to 12 hr window:

> take a pill as soon as you remember – only take 1, even if you’ve missed more than 1 pill
take the next pill at the usual time – this may mean taking 2 pills on the same day (1 when you remember and 1 at the usual time); this is not harmful
carry on taking your remaining pills each day at the usual time
use extra contraception such as condoms for the next 2 days (48 hours) after you remember to take your missed pill, or do not have sex
if you have unprotected sex from the time that you miss your pill until 2 days after you start taking it reliably again, you may need emergency contraception

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46
Q

biphasic contraceptive (combined)

A

The standard way to take the pill is to take 1 every day for 21 days, then have a break for 7 days, and during this week you have a bleed like a period. You start taking the pill again after 7 days.

if you get sick within 3 hrs, take another pill and the next one at the usual time.

starting day 1-5, you will be protected straight away

if you start after day 5, You will not be protected from pregnancy straight away and will need additional contraception until you have taken the pill for 7 days.
heavy periods or painful periods, PMS (premenstrual syndrome) or endometriosis the combined pill may help

if you miss one pill:

> take the last pill you missed now, even if this means taking 2 pills in 1 day
carry on taking the rest of the pack as normal
take your 7-day pill-free break as normal, or if you’re on an everyday (ED) pill, take your dummy (inactive) pills
You do not need to use extra contraception.

if you miss 2 or more: week 1
If you’ve missed 2 to 7 pills in the first week of a pack, or you’ve started a new pack 2 or more days late, you may need emergency contraception if you’ve had unprotected sex.

Take the last pill you missed, even if that means taking 2 in a day, and leave any earlier missed pills. Use extra contraception, such as condoms, for the next 7 days.

week 2-3

take the last pill you missed even if that means taking 2 pills in a day and leave any earlier missed pills.

You do not need emergency contraception, but use extra contraception, such as condoms, for the next 7 days.

Then take the rest of the pills in your pack as normal if week 2.

If week 3, start a new pack the next day.

no evidence that the pill will make you gain weight, low risk of serious side effects, such as blood clots and cervical cancer, link between the pill and depression

contra: blood clots, stroke, heart abnormality, migraine, breast cancer, gallbladder/liver disease, diabetes

SE: DVT, stroke, heart attack

increase risk: breast, cervical cancer

decrease risk: uterus cancer, ovarian cancer, bowel cancer

interaction:

antibiotics: rifampicin and rifabutin

enzyme inducer: the epilepsy drugs carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, primidone and topiramate
St John’s wort (a herbal remedy)
antiretroviral medicines used to treat HIV

Blood pressure should be measured as hypertension is a known risk factor that increases the risk of arterial
disease associated with oral contraceptives.

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47
Q

Monophasic Contraceptive: 21 day

Phasic Contraceptive: 21 day

Everyday Pill: 21 active, 7 inactive (no break)

A

Microgynon, Marvelon and Yasmin

Logynon

Microgynon ED

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48
Q

emollient preparation derived from animals

A

anhydrous lanolin

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49
Q

Clarinaze Allergy Control (mometasone furoate 0.05%) nasal spray

A

common side effect: epistaxis (nosebleed)

discard after two months of opening

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50
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

do not take milk, indigestion remedies, or medicines containing iron or zinc, 2 hours before or after you take this medicine

quinolones are contra-indicated in patients with a history of tendon disorders related to quinolone
use.

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51
Q

frequency of this adverse reaction

A

*very common (≥ 1/10)
*common (≥1/100 to <1/10)
*uncommon (≥1/1000 to <1/100)
*rare (≥1/10000 to <1/1000)
*frequency not known (cannot be estimated from available data

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52
Q

first-line treatment by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for the management of painful diabetic neuropathy

A

amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin

Do not prescribe more than one neuropathic pain drug at the same time

Consider capsaicin 0.075% cream (Axsain®) for people with localized neuropathic pain

duloxetine 60 mg capsules, 1 OD
Gabapentin 300 mg capsules

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53
Q

MHRA Medicines Recall

A

Class 1: the defect presents a risk of death or disability=>immediate action

Class 2: the defect may cause mistreatment or harm to the patient, but it is not life-threatening or serious=>recall with 48 hrs

Class 3: the defect is unlikely to cause harm to the patient, and the recall is carried out for other reasons, such as non-compliance with the marketing authorisation or specification=>action to be taken within 5 days

Class 4: the MHRA also issues “Caution in Use” notices, where there is no threat to patients or no serious defect likely to impair product use or efficacy.

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54
Q

Parkinson’s

anti-emtic

treatment options

A

domperidone

patients whose motor symptoms decrease their quality of life should be offered levodopa combined with carbidopa (co-careldopa) or benserazide (co-beneldopa)

Parkinson’s disease patients whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life, could be prescribed a choice of levodopa, non-ergot-derived dopamine-receptor agonists (pramipexole, ropinirole or rotigotine) or monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors (rasagiline or selegiline hydrochloride)

drooling: Glycopyrronium bromide

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55
Q

Responsible Pharmacist

A

In a NHS pharmacy, there must be a pharmacist present whenever pharmaceutical services are being provided.
>Handing out of dispensed and checked medicines to the delivery driver
>Making an emergency supply of a medicine at the request of a patient
>Supervising the consumption of buprenorphine
>Wholesaling of medicines
can only take place when the responsible pharmacist is in charge of the pharmacy and need to
take place under the supervision of a pharmacist and the supervising pharmacist will need to be physically
present at the pharmacy.

RP not needed: Ordering stock from a wholesaler

RP absence:
>You can hand over the responsible pharmacist role to the second pharmacist
>If the second pharmacist takes over as responsible pharmacist, they canNOT also be absent for two hours
during the same day
>If you remain the responsible pharmacist, you do need to record the absence in the pharmacy record
>Trained pharmacy staff can carry on date checking of medicines in your absence
>You can continue to be the responsible pharmacist whilst you are absent

RP pharmacy record:
>If an amendment is made to the record, it should be clear who made this change and when they made it
>either an electronic record or paper records is kept
>The Record must be kept for a minimum of five years
>The Record should include the registration number of the responsible pharmacist
>The Responsible Pharmacist is required to personally make entries in the pharmacy record

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56
Q

side effects of chemotherapy

A

symptoms of severe exhaustion, episodes of breathlessness and paleness of the skin are normal and should subside upon completion of treatment

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57
Q

55-year-old white person with type 2 diabetes and hypertension

additional antihyptertensive to losartan 100

NICE recommended BP

A

amlodipine 5 mg tablets

< 140/90 mmHg

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58
Q

Hypertensive Stages

A

Use clinic blood pressure measurements to monitor the response to lifestyle changes or drug treatment in
people with hypertension.

Persistent Hypertension: High blood pressure at repeated clinical encounters.

Stage 1: 140/90 mmHg to 160/100, ABPM 135/85*

over 80: target 150/90 (145/85 ABPM)
under 80: target 140/90 (135/85 ABPM)

***treat under 80 if they have target-organ damage, CVD, renal disease, diabetes, or QRISK 10%

Stage 2: 160/100 mmHg or higher but less than 180/120, ABPM 150/95+

***treat stage 2 regardless of age

Stage 3: Clinic systolic blood pressure of 180 mmHg or higher or clinic diastolic blood pressure of 120 mmHg or higher

***treat promptly

Offer treatment and lifestyle advice in stage 2, stage 1 in adults under 80 with organ damage/CVD/renal disease/diabetes/QRISK 10%

T2DM (with or without)/under 55: ARB or ACE (cough), if not controlled then add CCB or thiazide, then ACE or ARB and CCB and thiazide

if ACE not tolerated use ARB, do not combine ACE with ARB

55+/noDM/Afro: CCB, if not controlled add ACE/ARB/thiazide, then ACE or ARB and CCB and thiazide

T1DM, under 80:
ACR less than 70, target 140/90
ACR more than 70, target 130/80

T1DM, over 80: below 150/90

T2DM, any age: above 140 should receive treatment, normal BP 130/80

Hypertension in Pregnancy (140/90): labetalol=>nifedipine MR=>methyldopa, target 135/85

Renal Disease: ACE, risk of hyperkalaemia

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59
Q

Children Conditions

A

Chickenpox: itchy, spots filled with fluid, associated with red spots that typically look like blisters. The spots can appear on any part of the body. small erythematous
macules on her stomach and arms, and a few some pustules.

paracetamol may be used to reduce pain and fever

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60
Q

indication of shock

A

pale, cold, clammy skin
sweating
rapid, shallow breathing
weakness and dizziness
feeling sick and possibly vomiting
thirst
yawning
sighing

call 999 as soon as possible and ask for an ambulance

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61
Q

stridor

A

a variable, high-pitched respiratory sound that can be assessed during breathing

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62
Q

urticaria

A

the main symptom of hives (urticaria) is a rash.

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63
Q

look-alike sound-alike

A

‘Tall-Man lettering’ used in differences between drugs

check for high risk indication/usage between drug

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64
Q

dentist prescribing temazepam

A

pharmacists should challenge the prescription if they believe there is no legitimate use for the drug for dental purposes

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65
Q

Amiodarone

A

High Risk Drug

long half-life (3-2-1 dosing), no grapefruit juice

caution: elderly, HF, bradycardia (increased risk with beta blockers, dilimiazem, verapamil)

increase risk of myopathy with simvastatin

monitoring: liver, potassium, chest xray, thyroid function, ECG (IV use)

WARNING: vision impairment (sore, painful, dim, dazzled by headlights at night), contains iodine so can cause thyroid dysfunction, liver toxicity (jaundice), shortness of breath/breathless/cough (pulmonary toxicity), skin can be sensitive to sunlight (burning sensation, grey discolouration, use sunscreen), numbness (peripheral neuropathy), tremor (neurological effects)

***sofosbuvir with daclatasvir; sofosbuvir and ledipasvir; simeprevir with sofosbuvir: risk of severe bradycardia and heart block when taken with amiodarone

***can cause serious adverse reactions affecting the eyes, heart, lung, liver, thyroid gland, skin, and peripheral nervous system that may persist for a month or longer after treatment discontinuation

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66
Q

elevated blood pressure, reducing salt take, medication to look into

A

Gaviscon Advance is high in sodium and must be taken into account if the patient is on a low sodium diet

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67
Q

treatment of opioid dependence with methadone

A

severe pain/Adjunct in treatment of opioid dependence

when starting methadone, a low dose should be prescribed if tolerance is unknown

*respiratory depression (benzos and opioids), risk of dependance and addiction

caution: QT prolongation (Domperidone increases QT prolongation)

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68
Q

Evista (raloxifene)

A

Prevent and treat osteoporosis

Black Box Warning: Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism

leg pain; feeling of warmth in the lower leg; swelling of the hands, feet, ankles, or lower legs; sudden chest pain; shortness of breath; coughing up blood; or sudden changes in vision, such as loss of vision or blurred vision.

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69
Q

Gabapentin

A

Antiepileptic

***risk of suicidal thoughts/behaviour, severe respiratory depression

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70
Q

Olanzapine

Clozapine

Amisulpiride

Aripriprazole

Quetiapine

Risperidone

A

Antipsychotic, second generation

schizophrenia, bipolar, mania

patients taking antipsychotics, particularly olanzapine are susceptible to hyperglycaemia
and diabetes therefore fasting BG must be tested at baseline and at regular intervals thereafter.

caution: ECG may be required in CVD risk factors, elderly

monitor: hyperprolactin at start, 6 months, then yearly=> gynaecomastia “manboobs”, CVD risk assess annually, blood lipids and weight at baseline every 3 months for first year, then yearly, fasting blood glucose after one month, then every 4-6 months

withdrawal in neonates when taken in 3rd trimester

**monitor blood concentration for toxicity

CLOZAPINE: schizophrenia, psychosis in Parkinson’s

blood counts (leucocyte) monitored for toxicity: For the first 18 weeks, blood counts should be monitored every week, then fortnightly for up to one year, then monthly

blood lipids and weight: at baseline, at 3 months (weight at frequent intervals in first 3 months), then yearly. every three months for the 1st year, then yearly

fasting blood glucose: after 1 month treatment, then every 4-6 months

prolactin concentration: at start, at 6 months, then yearly

caution: ECG required in CVD risk patients (fatal myocarditis common in first 2 months), elderly, hypothermia in antipsychotic agents

Cigarette smoking induces metabolism of clozapine, resulting in significant increases in levels when quitting,
hence dose adjustment and increased monitoring is required. This is not related to the nicotine component,
hence the effect is not negated by NRT.

***fatal risk of intestinal obstruction, faecal impaction, and paralytic ileum, monitor blood concentration (smoking changes, pneumonia/infections)

***aripripazole: preparation for acute apisode not to be confused with depot preparation for maintenance

***clozapine: fatal risk of intestinal obstruction, faecal impaction, and paralytic ileus (varying degrees of impairment of intestinal peristalsis)

***risperidone confused with ropinirole

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71
Q

PPI: omeprazole

Esomeprazole
Lansoprazole
Omeprazole
Pantoprazole
Rabeprazole

A

Measurement of serum-magnesium concentrations should be considered before and during prolonged treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, especially when used with other drugs that cause hypomagnesaemia or with digoxin.

***Very low risk of subacute cutaneous lupus: lesions in sun-exposed areas can occur from weeks/months/years after exposure of drug

can increase the risk of fractures when used in high doses for over a year in elderly, risk of osteoporosis

may mask symptoms of gastric cancer

increased risk of C. difficile

SE: muscle weakness, cramps

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72
Q

vitamin D toxicity

A

hypercalcaemia: frequent nausea,vomitting constipation and palpitations

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73
Q

alendronic acid

A

patient will suffer from hypocalcaemia=>osteoporosis

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74
Q

alendronic acid

A

patient will suffer from hypocalcaemia=>osteoporosis

patients should be advised to stop taking the tablets and to seek medical attention if they develop symptoms of oesophageal irritation such as dysphagia, new or worsening heartburn, pain on swallowing or retrosternal pain

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75
Q

vaccines in COPD

A

annual influenza vaccine
pneumococcal

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76
Q

childhood immunisation schedule

A

9 month old: BCG

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77
Q

rotavirus

A

importance of good hand hygiene as one of the vaccines is a ‘live’ vaccine that can be excreted in the baby’s faeces

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78
Q

Deponit 5 mg/24 hours (glyceryl trinitrate) transdermal patches for the prophylaxis of angina

spray usage

A

apply one patch daily between 8am and 8pm

Tablet: Put 1 tablet under your tongue as soon as possible. If you’re still in pain after 5 minutes you can have a second dose by putting 1 more tablet under your tongue

Spray: Use 1 or 2 sprays under your tongue. If you’re still in pain after 5 minutes you can have a second dose of 1 or 2 sprays under your tongue.

call 999:
if you’ve taken 2 doses of GTN and you’re still in pain 5 minutes after your 2nd dose, your pain is getting worse, you feel unwell

Side effects of GTN include postural hypotension, tachycardia (but paradoxical bradycardia also
reported); throbbing headache, dizziness; less commonly nausea, vomiting, heartburn, flushing, syncope,
temporary hypoxaemia.

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79
Q

Qutenza (capsaicin 8%) patches to help manage the pain

A

apply one patch once weekly for 6 weeks followed by a 7-day patch free interval

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80
Q

Evra (6 mg norelgestromin and ethinyl estradiol 600 micrograms per 20 cm2) patches

A

apply one patch once weekly for 3 weeks followed by a 7-day patch-free interval

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81
Q

Scopoderm (hyoscine 1.5 mg) patches

A

apply one patch 5-6 hours before needed

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82
Q

Mastitis

A

Mastitis is an inflammation of breast tissue that sometimes involves an infection. The inflammation results in breast pain, swelling, warmth and redness. You might also have fever and chills. Mastitis most commonly affects women who are breast-feeding (lactation mastitis)

signs of sepsis (tachycardia, fever, chills): hospital admission

Treatment: analgesic for pain and discomfort (paracetamol and ibuprofen), use warm compress, continue breastfeeding

infected nipple fissure not improved 12-24 hrs: flucloxacillin 500 mg four times a day for 10–14 days

if allergic: erythromycin 250–500 mg four times a day or clarithromycin 500 mg twice a day for 10–14 days.

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83
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

causes muscle weakness, droopy eyelids
double vision
difficulty making facial expressions
problems chewing and difficulty swallowing
slurred speech
weak arms, legs or neck
shortness of breath and occasionally serious breathing difficulties

managed with long term prednisolone

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84
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

causes muscle weakness, droopy eyelids
double vision
difficulty making facial expressions
problems chewing and difficulty swallowing
slurred speech
weak arms, legs or neck
shortness of breath and occasionally serious breathing difficulties

managed with long term prednisolone

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85
Q

measles

A

a highly contagious, serious airborne disease caused by a virus that can lead to severe complications and death

high fever, cough, runny nose, and watery eyes

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86
Q

Lithium carbonate

A

Lithium Salt HIGH RISK

Bipolar disorder

If lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks (preferably over a period of up to 3 months).

Narrow therapeutic range: 0.4 to 1 mmol/L (lower end for maintenance and elderly) and 0.8 to 1 mmol/L for acute episodes of mania and relapse patients

Warning: serum conc over 2 mmol/L, seizure, coma, BP change, GI disturbance, blurred vision, CNS disturbance, tremor, weight gain, fatigue, headache, renal dysfunction

monitoring: conc weekly, then every 3 months, renal, cardiac, and thyroid every 6 months

may impair driving

interactions: ACE, ARB, diuretics, NSAIDs, SSRI, tricyclic, metronidazole, amiodarone

caution: long-term use associated with thyroid disorder, cognitive/memory impairment

preparations have wide bioaviailbily

treatment pack to be given, toxicity worse by sodium depletion so consume adequate salt and wanter, avoid NSAID/alcohol

do not stop until told

Warning: Read the additional information given to you with this medicine

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87
Q

Dioralyte Relief oral powder sachets (potassium chloride with rice powder, sodium chloride and sodium citrate

oral rehydration sachets
(Dioraltye®)

A

shelf life if stored at room temperature: 1 hr

The solution itself must not be boiled. Must be stirred well in water, discarded after 24 hours. 1-2 sachets after
each loose motion

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88
Q

Gestational diabetes 1st line

A

metformin

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89
Q

dapagliflozin (SGLT2)

A

increased risk of peri-operative diabetic ketoacidosis, so blood ketones are to be measured whilst treatment with a particular anti-diabetic is interrupted.

Risk of diabetic ketoacidosis with sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors (canagliflozin, dapagliflozin or empagliflozin)

monitor ketones in blood during treatment interruption for surgical procedures or acute serious medical illness

reports of Fournier’s gangrene (necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineum)

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90
Q

insulin degludec

A

reduce the usual daily dose of one of their treatment by 20% the day before surgery

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91
Q

Chlorphenamine maleate (Piriton)

Hydroxyzine HCl

Promethazine Hal (Phenergan)

A

sedating antihistamine

***C: children under 6 should not be given OTC cough and cold with chlorphenamine

***H: Risk of QT-interval prolongation and torsade de pointes (avoid in elderly max dose 50 mg, max dose in adult 100mg, children up to 40kg 2 mg max/kg)

antimuscarinic: used with caution in prostatic hypertrophy, urinary retention, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma

rare: hypotension, palpitation, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal effects, dizziness, confusion

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92
Q

loratidine (Clarityn)

Acrivastine (Benadryl)

Cetirizine HCl

Fexofenadine (Allevia)

Levocetirizine HCl (isomer of cetirizine)

A

non-drowsy antihistamine

safe in renal impairment but caution is advised, initial dose reduction to alternate days

Age Groups: cetirizine, loratatinde, chlorphenamine, promethazine

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93
Q

statins

A

https://bnf.nice.org.uk/treatment-summaries/dyslipidaemias/

High intensity:
Atorvastatin 20, 40, 80
Rosuvastatin 10 20 40
Simvastatin 80

Medium intensity:
Atorvastatin 10
Rosuvastatin 5
Simvastatin 20, 40

Low intensity:
Fluvastatin 20, 40
Pravastatin 10, 20, 40
Simvastatin 10

Amlodipine slightly increases the exposure to simvastatin. Manufacturer advises adjust simvastatin dose to a
max. 20 mg daily with concurrent use of amlodipine

Stop statin while on clarithromycin (metabolised by CYP3A4, risk of myopathy which affects the muscle)

(Transaminases (ALT/AST) should be checked 3 and 12 months after commencing treatment by requesting
LFTS. Statins should be used with caution in patients with a history of liver disease as they are metabolized by
the liver, so hepatic impairment will increase their levels and thus the risk of myopathy. Simvaststin is
contraindicated in active liver disease or if transaminases ALT & AST are raised more than 3 times the normal
range.

Statins are the drugs of first choice for treating hypercholesterolaemia and moderate hypertriglyceridaemia. Severe hypercholesterolaemia or hypertriglyceridaemia not adequately controlled with a maximal dose of a statin may require the use of an additional lipid-regulating drug such as ezetimibe.

Fenofibrate may be added to statin therapy if triglycerides remain high even after the LDL-cholesterol concentration has been reduced adequately.

Familial hypercholesterolaemia: high-intensity statin with LDL reduction of 40%+ is 1st line, then titrated to a LDL reduction of 50%

Treatment with a fibrate or a bile acid sequestrant (such as colestyramine (patient with gallstones can help lower lipids too) or colestipol hydrochloride) can be considered under specialist advice, in patients for whom statins or ezetimibe are inappropriate.

primary prevention: DM, hypertension, smoking, CKD, 85+

secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, including elderly: atorvastatin 80 mg tablets, one to be taken at night

SE: myopathy, myositis, rhabdomyolysis, muscle toxicity

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94
Q

Diabetic Medicines and side effects

A

Sulphonylureas

glibenclamide (long acting, gliclazide short acting)

take with breakfast, recognise hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar: sweating, anxious palpations, dizzy=>oral gel), SE: feeling sick, constipation/diarrhoea, weightGAIN
avoid high dose in elderly
consider DVLA due to hypos

avoid in: porphyria, G6PD deficient

SGLT2 (-flozins), T2DM/HF/CKD

dapgaliflozin (Forxiga), empagliflozin (Jardiance), canagliflozin (Invokana)

SE: dizzy, dehydration, urine/genital infections, back pain, weightLOSS

***risk of DKA, Fournier’s gangrene, lower limb amputation (canagliflozin), excess excretion of glucose=>UTI/candida, hypovolarmia, footsore

metallic taste call GP

Thiazolidinediones/Glitazones (Pioglitazone)

reduces insulin resistance

risks: cardiac failure, liver toxicity (hepatotoxicity), bone fracture, bladder cancer (blood in urine, painful/difficult),

weightGAIN

contraindications with digoxin (HF)

T2DM 1st line:
Metformin (biguanides), if not tolerated, then MR

SE: altered taste, dry mouth, frequent urination, low B12, GI discomfort

Incretin mimetics/GLP-1 (Ozempic, Trulicity, VIctoza)

DPP-4 inhibitors (-gliptins)

Linagliptin (Januvia)

Gum, Foot, and Eye care

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95
Q

Conjunctivitis

**when to refer in eye conditions

A

Conjunctivitis: gritty, uncomfortable, sticky, self-limiting

Chloramphenicol eye drops

Refer when painful

96
Q

Yellow Card Scheme

A

As this is a new medicine is it important to ensure all side effects, no matter how mild are reported using in
accordance with usual reporting procedures. This includes known side effects. In this case, the vaccine is known
to cause headaches - see SmPC for more information. The Yellow Card Scheme is a national scheme for
reporting side effects with any medicine, which can be used by patients and healthcare professionals.

97
Q

chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) maintenance therapy, dosing

A

Aclidinium / Formoterol (DuaKlir Genuair®)

Glycopyrronium / Indacaterol (Ultibro Breezhaler®)

Ipratropium (Atrovent Inhaler CFC-Free®)

Tiotropium (Spiriva Handihaler®)

Triotropium (Spiriva Respimat®)

98
Q

standardised controlled drug requisition forms

A

> In emergencies, a doctor can be supplied with a schedule 2 controlled drugs on the condition that they
will furnish a requisition within 24 hours
Supplies made against faxed requisitions are NOT legally acceptable
The pharmacy must send the original requisition to the relevant NHS agency
The purpose of the requisition must be included on the form
The use of the approved form applies to both requisitions for human and veterinary use

99
Q

Doxycycline

A

Tetracycline

Respiratory Infections/UTI/Susceptible disease (Clamhydia)

Alcohol dependence; children 8–11 years—use only in acute or severe infections when there are no adequate alternatives (deposition in growing bone and teeth, by binding to calcium, causes staining and occasionally dental hypoplasia); children under 8 years—use only in severe or life-threatening conditions (e.g. Rocky Mountain spotted fever) when there are no adequate alternatives (deposition in growing bone and teeth, by binding to calcium, causes staining and occasionally dental hypoplasia)

avoid: pregnancy

Manufacturer advises capsules and tablets should be swallowed whole with plenty of fluid, while sitting or standing. Take with a full glass of water

Do not take indigestion remedies, or medicines containing iron or zinc, 2 hours before or after you take this medicine

Protect your skin from sunlight—even on a bright but cloudy day. Do not use sunbeds (adverse drug reaction)

caution: myasthenia graves (muscle weakness increased), systemic lupus erythematosus (exacerbated)

100
Q

metronidazole

A

BV: 2 g orally as a single dose.

tooth infection: 400 mg three for seven days

Patients should to avoid alcohol drugs while taking metronidazole and for at least 48 hours after stopping the
drug. Monitor for flushing, nausea, and vomiting if the combination is used.

101
Q

glyceryl trinitrate patch (Transiderm Nitro®), to be applied once a day for the management of his angina.

A

The patch should be applied to the lateral chest every 24 hours. It does not need to be removed for
showering/bathing and should be used regularly to prevent angina rather than when required.

102
Q

Digoxin

A

loading doses may be required, therapeutic range: 0.8 to 2 mcg/L

Dose adjustment: reduce dose by half with concurrent use of amiodarone, dronedarone and quinine

caution: hypercalcaemia (digitalis toxicity), hypokalaemia (digitalis toxicity), hypomagnesaemia, hypoxia (low oxygen), elderly,

monitoring: digoxin concentration after 6 hrs, electrolytes (K, Mg, Ca), renal function, HR about 60 b/min

WARNING: cardiac (arrhythmia, heart block), neurological (weakness, lethargy, headache), GI (vomitting, diarrhoea, abdominal discomfort), visual (blurred, yellow vision), toxicity range of 1.5-3

Bioavilablity: IV (100%), Tablet (50-90%), 75%

interactions: NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, St. John’s wort, looop/thiazide diuretics, acetazlmide/amphotericin, cyclosporine, mirabegron, itraconazole

Digoxin toxicity: Advise the patient to stop taking digoxin and refer for medical review urgently. The BNF monograph
recommends that if toxicity occurs, digoxin should be withdrawn as serious manifestations can occur requiring
urgent specialist management. A digoxin plasma concentration within the therapeutic range does not exclude
digoxin toxicity.

103
Q

Bendroflumethizide

Co-amilozide

Indapamide

A

Thiazides and related diuretics

Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic that causes hypokalaemia by increasing potassium excretion by the
kidney.

104
Q

short-term management
of his acute post-operative pain in CKD

A

Oxycodone immediate release tablets most appropriate: Morphine is metabolised to morphine-6-glucuronide which accumulates in renal impairment, resulting in CNS
depression. Similarly, the clearance of codeine, and its metabolites are significantly reduced in renal impairment.
The pharmacokinetics of oxycodone is also affected in renal failure, however it may be preferred to morphine in
some circumstances. The BNF recommends to avoid codeine in renal failure and to use morphine and
oxycodone with caution. The BNF also recommends to avoid ibuprofen (systemic NSAID) in severe renal
impairment. Fentanyl patches and slow release tablets are not appropriate for acute pain due to their slow onset
of action and long duration of action.

105
Q

methotrexate

A

taken once weekly

SE: nausea and loose stools

effective contraception

avoid NSAIDS/aspirin

live vaccine avoided, should obtain flu vaccine

men should not father a child after 6 months of treatment end

strategy to prevent the side effects: Folic acid 5 mg once a week, taken on a different day to methotrexate

Folic acid is indicated for the prevention of side effects from methotrexate however it needs to be taken on a
different day to the methotrexate, otherwise it will reduce the effectiveness of the methotrexate. The use of folinic
acid is reserved for use as a part of treatment protocols for methotrexate infusions.

methotrexate toxicity: cough, sore throat

Cefalexin in appropriate: Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid, amoxicillin, trimethoprim, and ciprofloxacin may increase the risk of methotrexate toxicity.
Nitrofurantoin is not recommended for pyelonephritis as its penetration is limited to the lower tract only.

monitoring: full blood count, renal, liver function

warning: GI toxicity, liver toxicity (jaundice, dark urine), blood disorder (bone marrow suppression: sore throat, mouth ulcers, bruising), pulmonary toxicity (cough), pregnancy/breastfeeding

hepatotoxicity with acitretin, nsaids, penicillins, haemotological toxicity with co-trimoxazole/trimethoprim, PPI, tetracycline

106
Q

microcytic anaemia

A

Microcytic Anaemia (low MCV) most commonly due to iron deficiency.

107
Q

Summary Care Records (SCR)

A

Pharmacists currently do not have write access to SCR although this may change soon. There is a consent form
however verbal consent is also accepted. The use of SCR in the pharmacy setting is linked to quality payment
scheme in community pharmacies and is available to technicians. Must seek consent unless in emergency e.g.
unconscious patient. To access the SCR consent needs to be gained for each patient, at each pharmacy, on a need-by-
need basis

108
Q

Hughes Syndrome (antiphospholipid syndrome), contraception

ie. patient on warfarin

A

the immune system that causes an increased risk of blood clot

Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system is most appropriate: NSAIDs would be contra-indicated as they increase the risk of bleeding when given with warfarin. Tranexamic
acid and the combined oral contraceptive pill are also contra-indicated in antiphospholipid syndrome due to the
additive increase in thrombosis risk.

109
Q

Treatment of Hypoglycaemia

A

Adults with symptoms of hypoglycaemia who have a blood-glucose concentration greater than 4 mmol/litre, should be treated with a small carbohydrate snack such as a slice of bread or a normal meal, if due.

Any patient with a blood-glucose concentration less than 4 mmol/litre, with or without symptoms, and who is conscious and able to swallow, should be treated with a fast-acting carbohydrate by mouth. Fast-acting carbohydrates include Lift® glucose liquid (previously Glucojuice®), glucose tablets, glucose 40% gels (e.g. Glucogel®, Dextrogel®, or Rapilose®), pure fruit juice, and sugar (sucrose) dissolved in an appropriate volume of water. Oral glucose formulations are preferred as absorption occurs more quickly. Orange juice should not be given to patients following a low-potassium diet due to chronic kidney disease, and sugar dissolved in water is not effective for patients taking acarbose which prevents the breakdown of sucrose to glucose. Chocolates and biscuits should be avoided if possible, as they have a lower sugar content and their high fat content may delay stomach emptying.

If necessary, repeat treatment after 15 minutes, up to a maximum of 3 treatments in total. Once blood-glucose concentration is above 4 mmol/litre and the patient has recovered, a snack providing a long-acting carbohydrate should be given to prevent blood glucose from falling again (e.g. two biscuits, one slice of bread, 200–300 mL of milk (not soya or other forms of ‘alternative’ milk, e.g. almond or coconut), or a normal carbohydrate-containing meal if due). Insulin should not be omitted if due, but the dose regimen may need review.

In an emergency, if the patient has a decreased level of consciousness caused by hypoglycaemia, intramuscular glucagon can be given by a family member or friend who has been shown how to use it. If glucagon is not effective after 10 minutes, glucose 10% intravenous infusion should be given.

110
Q

first line over the counter treatment for allergic rhinitis

A

Allergic rhinitis is inflammation of the inside of the nose caused by an allergen, such as pollen, dust, mould, or flakes of skin from certain animals: moderate; nasal itching, congestion,
sneezing and rhinorrhoea.

The patient is suffering from allergic rhinitis, therefore the most appropriate treatment is nasal irrigation with
saline (local treatment is recommended as first line).

111
Q

Warts

Verruca (tiny black dot)

A

Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen can be carried out to freeze a wart

Topical salicylic acid (15–50%) should be applied once or twice daily for up to 12 weeks

Warts are caused by infection in the outer layer of the skin (epidermis) with a virus called the ‘human papilloma
virus’. refer to GP for facial warts. Without any treatment, warts may spontaneously resolve but may take many
months or even years

Preparations of formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde, and silver nitrate are also licensed for the treatment of warts on hands and feet.

112
Q

supply of adrenaline auto-injectors to schools

A

A written signed order signed by principal/headteacher at the school must be provided

113
Q

Otitis Externa: itchy, inflamed, painful ear, swimmer (common)

A

Temporary hearing loss is a common symptom of Otitis Externa and therefore is not a referral point.

Refer: Fever, Mucopurulent discharge, Pain, spreading towards the jaw, Symptoms that are not improving and have been present for 3 or more days

2% acetic acid (Earcalm)

cellulitis: infection of deeper layers of skin and surrounding tissue=>antibiotic

114
Q

Paracetamol in Children dosing

A
  • 1–3 months 30–60 mg TDS
  • 3–6 months 60 mg QDS;
  • 6 months–2 years 120 mg QDS
  • 2–4 years 180 mg QDS
  • 4–6 years 240 mg QDS
  • 6–8 years 240–250 mg QDS
  • 8–10 years 360–375 mg QDS
  • 10–12 years 480–500 mg QDS
  • 12–16 years 480–750 mg QDS
  • 16 and over 500 mg–1 g QDS
115
Q

Ibuprofen Dosing in Children

A
  • 1–3 months 5 mg/kg QDS
  • 3–6 months 50 mg TDS
  • 6 months–1 year 50 mg QDS
  • 1–4 years 100 mg TDS
  • 4–7 years 150 mg TDS
  • 7–10 years 200 mg TDS
  • 10–12 years 300 mg TDS
  • 12 and over initially 300–400 mg QDS; increased if necessary to max. 600 mg QDS
116
Q

patient confidentiality

A

For disclosures required by law, pharmacists should be satisfied that those requesting
confidential information have a legitimate interest

NOT TRUE:
>If you are asked to disclose confidential information without the consent of the person receiving care, it is
not necessary to ask for the request in writing
>Pharmacists should not disclose confidential information to the police
>Under no circumstances, should pharmacists disclose confidential information without consent
>Your professional duty to a patient’s confidentiality ends after they have died

117
Q

Stroke Prevention

A

Aspirin (secondary prevention)

Clopidogrel is recommended if aspirin is not tolerated. Aspirin/dipyridamole would not be recommended for this
patient as it may worsen headaches/migraines. Prasugrel and ticagrelor are not indicated for ischaemic
stroke/CVA.

118
Q

Patient Consent

A

If verbal consent is obtained a record must be kept of this

Not True:
>If the patient has previously consented to having a vaccination you would not need to obtain consent this
time round
>Implied consent would be acceptable here in giving a vaccination
>The patient does not need to be made aware about information that will be shared with their GP
>Written consent must be obtained prior to providing the service

> patient consent to share information is not needed if the disclosure can be justified in the public interest
As the patient is a young person, you should use the same criteria to assess competence as you would
for an adult
If on this occasion it is deemed that the person lacks capacity, you should not assume that they lack
capacity to make all future decisions
If this individual lacked the capacity to consent, the person with parental responsibility for her could give
consent if it was in the best interest of the patient to have a health check
You can assume the patient has the capacity to make their own decisions unless there is sufficient
evidence to suggest otherwise

119
Q

Doxorubicin

A

most likely to cause neutropenia: Decreased neutrophil levels may be the result of severe infection, liver disease, enlarged spleens or other
conditions, such as responses to various medications or chemotherapy

120
Q

Sch 2 CD

A

> If the prescription is written by a dentist, it must contain the words ‘For dental treatment only’
Pharmacist independent prescribers can issue prescriptions for Schedule 2 controlled drugs
The prescription is valid for 28 days after the appropriate date on the prescription
The prescription must include a clearly defined dose
The total quantity must be written in both words and figures

121
Q

management of nausea and
vomiting as a result of the apomorphine therapy in advanced Parkinson’s disease

A

Domperidone

Metroclopramide, haloperidol and prochlorperazine should not be used in Parkinson’s disease as they cross the
blood brain barrier and cause dopamine blockade, resulting in worsening of symptoms. Ondansetron is
contraindicated with apomorphine due to additive QTc prolongation and risk of serious arrhythmia. The
manufacturers of apomorphine recommend the use of domperidone to control nausea and vomiting, however
there is still a risk of QT prolongation with this combination , hence an assessment of cardiac risk factors and
ECG monitoring is recommended to ensure that the benefits outweight the risks.

122
Q

Patient Safety

A

> Concerns can be reported to someone outside of the organisation
The General Pharmaceutical Council Standards for Pharmacy Professionals require pharmacists to
speak up when they have concerns
You can obtain advice from external organisations such as a professional body or union if you are not
sure if you should raise a concern
You should follow the organisation’s policy for raising concerns wherever possible

DONOT: the first step is to always contact the General Pharmaceutical Council about your concerns

123
Q

Naproxen

A

***NSAIDS, BNF

primary dysmenorrhea/gout/migraine/pain and inflammation in RA

250 mg tablet 3 times per day

Do not exceed three tablets daily

Naproxen (1 g daily) is associated with a lower thrombotic risk, and low doses of ibuprofen (1.2 g daily or less)
have not been associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. COX-2 inhibitors), diclofenac and high
dose ibuprofen are associated with increased CVD risk

124
Q

Safe Management of Healthcare Waste V

A

> Pharmacies can accept waste medicines from patients
Pharmacies cannot accept other household waste such as cosmetics
Pharmacies should remove blister strips from their outer packaging
Schedule 2 controlled drugs should be denatured prior to disposal
Waste medicines must be kept in secure waste containers in a designated area preferably away from
medicines

125
Q

Psoriasis

A

This is a skin condition that causes pink red, flaky, crusty patches of skin covered with silvery scales. These
patches normally appear on your elbows, knees, trunk, scalp and behind ears, but can appear anywhere on your
body. In some cases, the patches can be itchy or painful

Offer topical treatment first-line to all patients with psoriasis. Topical treatment options include emollients, topical corticosteroids, coal tar preparations, and topical vitamin D or vitamin D analogues

Emollients are widely used in psoriasis; they moisturise dry skin, reduce scaling, and relieve itching. They also soften cracked areas and help other topical treatments absorb through the skin to work more effectively

Continuous long-term use of potent or very potent topical corticosteroids may cause psoriasis to become unstable, and lead to irreversible skin atrophy and striae. Consecutive use of potent topical corticosteroids should not be used for more than 8 weeks at any one site; 4 weeks for very potent topical corticosteroids.

126
Q

Clinical Audit

A

PSNC Clinical audit

> Audits can be conducted on topics where clinical guidance does not exist
Data collection is part of the audit cycle
Ethics approval is not required to conduct a clinical audit
NHS community pharmacies are not required to conduct at least one audit per year
Re-audit performance is part of the audit cycle

127
Q

Metered Dose Inhaler (MDI) usage

A

Care should be taken not to scrub the inside of the spacer as it will affect the way it works. Spacers help improve
the distribution of the medicine to the intended site of action and reduce the risk of side effects, hence they
should be used wherever possible/feasible, not just indoors. Spacers are only compatible with MDs.

Spacers should be cleaned before initial use, and then once a month afterwards

128
Q

Impetigo

A

Impetigo is a skin infection that’s very contagious but not usually serious. It often gets better in 7 to 10 days if you get treatment. Anyone can get it, but it’s very common in young children.

Impetigo starts with red sores or blisters, but the redness may be harder to see in brown and black skin.

The sores or blisters quickly burst and leave crusty, golden-brown patches.

The patches can:

look a bit like cornflakes stuck to your skin
get bigger
spread to other parts of your body
be itchy
sometimes be painful

Advise the person, and their carers if appropriate, about good hygiene measures to aid healing and reduce the spread of impetigo to other areas of the body and to other people. Recommend that the person:
Washes affected areas with soap and water.
Washes their hands regularly, in particular after touching a patch of impetigo.
Avoids scratching affected areas.
Avoids sharing towels, face cloths, and other personal care products and thoroughly cleans potentially contaminated toys and play equipment.

Ensure optimal treatment of any pre-existing skin conditions such as eczema, head lice, scabies or insect bites.

For localised non-bullous (sores) impetigo:

Consider prescribing hydrogen peroxide 1% cream (apply two or three times daily for 5 days) for people who are not systemically unwell or at a high risk of complications.
If this is unsuitable, prescribe a short course (5 days) of a topical antibiotic, offer:
Fusidic acid 2% (apply three times a day for 5 days), or
Mupirocin 2% (apply three times a day for 5 days) if fusidic acid resistance is suspected or confirmed.

referral if signs of sepsis, blisters (bullous impetigo)

129
Q

emergency supply at the request of a patient

A

Does an entry need to be made in the POM register within 72 hours?

> You have ascertained that the patient previously had the medication dispensed from checking his
summary care record
You have ascertained there is an immediate need for the medication and that it is not practical for the
patient to obtain a prescription without undue delay
You have added the words ‘Emergency Supply’ to the dispensing label
You have decided to issue enough tablets for 30 days treatment

130
Q

Common Side Effects

A

Sildenafil is not associated with cold hands and feet

> Orlistat and urgent bowel movements
Sumatriptan and tingling sensations in the skin
Tamsulosin and dizziness
E. Tranexamic acid and diarrhoea

131
Q

Amorolfine 5% nail lacquer can be sold over the counter for the treatment of fungal nail infection.

A

61 year old female is correct. Amorolfine is licensed from 18 years, should not be used in diabetes or in
pregnancy. People with three affected nails should be referred. The doctor referring them doesn’t override the
licensing

132
Q

mild acne purchases a tube of benzoyl peroxide

A

Benzoyl peroxide prevents new lesions rather than shrinking existing ones, and therefore should be applied not
just to active lesions. Advise that the face should be washed and left to dry for 20 minutes before applying
treatment. Treatment should start with the lower strength product to allow the skin time to adjust to the
medication. Acne is notoriously slow to respond to treatment and it can take months to see the maximum
benefit.

During the first few days, the skin is likely to redden and be irritated

133
Q

Threadworm

A

Entire household must be treated

One time Mebendazole 100mg

134
Q

Co-amoxiclav

A

most likely causes jaundice

contra: history of co-amoxiclav-associated jaundice or hepatic dysfunction; history of penicillin-associated jaundice or hepatic dysfunction

135
Q

Dyspepsia (indigestion)

A

Symptoms include but are not limited to upper abdominal pain or discomfort, heartburn, gastric reflux, bloating, nausea and/or vomiting. Symptoms can be attributed to an underlying cause (e.g. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, Peptic ulcer disease, gastro-oesophageal malignancy, or side effects from drugs), but the majority of patients are likely to have functional dyspepsia, where an underlying cause cannot be identified and endoscopy findings are normal.

Urgent endoscopic investigation is required for patients with dysphagia, significant acute gastrointestinal bleeding, or in those aged 55 years and over with unexplained weight loss and symptoms of upper abdominal pain, reflux or dyspepsia.

Initial management: PPI for 4 weeks, test for H. Pylori

Then H2 receptor antagonist, NSAID such as paracetamol, cox2 (celecoxib)

unintentional weightloss requires a referral

136
Q

Pain management in palliative care

A

Opioids reduce peristalsis, increase the anal sphincter tone, and promote absorption of water from the large
intestine; this leads to hard stools and constipation. Ispaghula husk, a bulk-forming laxative, can cause
obstruction and increase the risk of faecal impaction in opioid-induced constipation especially if fluid intake is
inadequate. Constipation from opioid use is best treated with a stimulant laxative, or a stool-softening laxative, or
both if necessary. Adequate fluid intake should be maintained. (Source MHRA)

Methylnaltrexone and naloxegol are reserved for where first line therapies have failed.

distressing cough in terminal lung cancer: diamorphine and methadone, morphone preferred

137
Q

Hives

A

A raised, itchy red rash (hives) can appear as an allergic reaction to things like stings, medicines or food.

The main symptom of hives is an itchy rash.

usually get better within a few minutes to a few days

The rash can:

be raised bumps or patches in many shapes and sizes
appear anywhere on the body
be on 1 area or spread across the body
feel itchy, sting or burn
look pink or red when affecting someone with white skin; the colour of the rash can be harder to see on brown and black skin

treatment: antihistamine

138
Q

trigger for an epilepsy seizure

A

> Flashing lights
Having an illness causing a high body temperature
Lack of sleep
Not taking prescribed epilepsy medicines
Stress

139
Q

Excipients

A

> Binders are used to help ingredients come together
Colouring agents are used to improve patient acceptability
Diluents are used to provide bulk and accurate dosing
Film coatings are used to protect the tablet from the environment
Glidants are used to improve flow of powders during tablet manufacturing, NOT to allow the tablet to be swallowed with ease

140
Q

Buscopan (hyoscine butylbromide 10mg)

A

Hyoscine butylbromide causes constipation. Constipation; dizziness; drowsiness; dry mouth; dyspepsia;
flushing; headache; nausea; palpitations; skin reactions; tachycardia; urinary disorders; vision disorders;
vomiting

141
Q

Eye preparations

A

hypromellose+latanoprost: leave 5 minutes between using each product

Eye drops are generally instilled into the pocket formed by gently pulling down the lower eyelid, blinking a few times to ensure even spread, and then closing the eye; in neonates and infants it may be more appropriate to administer the drop in the inner angle of the open eye. A small amount of eye ointment is applied similarly; blinking helps to spread it. Eye drops and ointments may cause temporary blurring of vision.

When two different eye preparations are used at the same time of day, the patient should leave an interval of at least 5 minutes between the two, to allow the first to be fully absorbed; eye ointment should be applied after drops.

normally discarded 4 weeks after first opening

142
Q

Meningitis

A

an infection of the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord (meninges), can cause sepsis, common in babies, young children, teenagers and young adults

symptoms: a high temperature (fever)
being sick
a headache
a rash that does not fade when a glass is rolled over it (but a rash will not always develop)
a stiff neck
a dislike of bright lights
drowsiness or unresponsiveness
seizures (fits)

call 999

benzylpenicillin, cefotaxime, or chloramphenicol.

143
Q

Ringworm

A

fungal infection, can form anywhere even scalp and groin, can be scaly, dry, swollen or itchy

Must refer to GP to treat scalp ringworm.

Scaling and hair loss are common symptoms. Hydrocortisone cannot be sold in this situation, ringworm is
contagious and transferable through objects and often treatment must continue sometime after the rash has
disappeared

anti fungal cream: terbinafine cream or an imidazole such as clotrimazole, miconazole, or econazole cream

inflammation: Hydrocortisone 1% cream to be applied once daily for a maximum of 7 days.

144
Q

most accurate oral temperature reading

A

Oral temperature is taken by inserting the bulb of the thermometer under the tongue and sealing the lips around
the thermometer

145
Q

nicotine patches side effects

A

Headaches
Skin irritation
Upset stomach
Vivid dreams
Insomnia but not sleepiness

146
Q

anaphylaxis vs ADR

A

anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity:
Clammy skin
Collapse
Difficulty breathing
Lightheaded feeling
increased HR

147
Q

safe
use of stimulant laxatives when sold or supplied over the counter (MEP)

A

> Large packs of laxatives are not available to purchase in newsagents
One of the reasons these changes have been introduced is due to the misuse and abuse of stimulant
laxatives
Stimulant laxatives available on general sale are recommended for use in people aged 18 years or over
Stimulant laxatives can be purchased over the counter for children aged 12 or over

148
Q

St John’s Wort (enzyme inducer)

A

decrease the effectiveness of:
warfarin
aminophylline/theophylline
phenytoin
tacrolimus
apixaban
desogestrel/levenogestrel
chc
dabigatran
digoxin

149
Q

Wholesale Dealer’s License (WDL)

A

When supplying a medicine without a WDL, the supply must not be for onward wholesale
distribution

NOT CORRECT:

Pharmacies with a WDL do not need any additional licences for commercially trading controlled drugs
B. The requirements for wholesale dealing without a WDL still apply if there is exchange of stock between
two pharmacies that are part of the same legal entity
C. There is an exemption in UK law for pharmacies to hold a WDL
D. When supplying a medicine without a WDL, any amount of profit can be made on the supply

150
Q

Symbicort Turbohaler® (budesonide/formoterol) device

A

Form a tight seal around the mouthpiece with their lips, then breathe in quickly and
deeply

151
Q

Vancomycin

A

HIGH RISK
Loading doses may be required due to long half-life; Therapeutic Range: trough 10 to 15mg/L
(15 to 20mg/L for endocarditis or less sensitive strains of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus or complicated infections caused by S. aureus)

Monitoring (all glycopeptides):
blood counts, hepatic and renal function, urinalysis, plasma levels, auditory function in elderly

warning: (patients advised to report all to doctor immediately)
* Ototoxicity
(hearing loss, vertigo, dizziness, tinnitus)
* Red man syndrome (flushing of the upper body)
* Blood disorders
(fever, sore throat, mouth ulcers, unexplained bleeding or bruising)
* Phlebitis
(drug irritates tissue causing inflammation)
* Nephrotoxicity
(elevated serum creatinine levels)
* Skin disorders (rashes, pruritic, SJS)
* Hypotension and anaphylaxis occur if administered too quickly

Pregnancy and breastfeeding:
Manufacturer advises to avoid – if used plasma concentration monitoring essential to minimise foetal toxicity; present in milk, significant absorption unlikely

Drug Interactions:
* Increased risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity when vancomycin given with ciclosporin, aminoglycosides, polymixin antifungals
* Increased risk of ototoxicity when vancomycin given with loop diuretics
* Vancomycin enhances effects of suxamethonium
A vancomycin trough plasma concentration level should be taken before the 4th dose

All patients require serum-vancomycin measurement (on the second day of treatment,
immediately before the next dose if renal function normal, earlier if renal impairment—consult product literature).
The next vancomycin dose should not be withheld whilst awaiting results unless toxicity is suspected.
Administration rate should not exceed 10mg/min to reduce the risk of red-man’s syndrome.

152
Q

Propranolol

A

Beta Blocker

adverse drug reaction: Fatigue is a lesser known side effect of beta blockers but important to mention in counselling. Causes
bradycardia rather than tachycardia.

153
Q

Clindamycin

A

Specific side effects Common or Very Common Abdominal pain, Antibiotic associated colitis,
diarrhoea.

adverse drug reaction: abdominal pain

154
Q

Trimethoprim

A

SE: may cause fungal overgrowth

155
Q

Tramadol

A

contraindicated in uncontrolled epilepsy

156
Q

Rubella

A

rash tends to start behind ears and on face before spreading to the rest of the body

157
Q

Hand, foot, and mouth

A

an acute viral illness characterized by vesicular eruptions in the mouth and
papulovesicular lesions of the distal limbs. It is not to be confused with foot and mouth disease of animals, which
is caused by a different virus.

sore throat, low-grade fever and tender lesions in the mouth and
papulovesicular lesions of the distal limbs

158
Q

Croup

A

characterised by the sudden onset of a seal-like barking cough, often accompanied by stridor, voice
hoarseness, and respiratory distress.

Mild croup is largely self-limiting; but treatment with a single dose of a corticosteroid e.g. dexamethasone is usually offered. More severe croup (or mild croup that might cause complications) calls for hospital admission, dexamethasone or budesonide (by nebulisation) will often reduce symptoms; the dose may need to be repeated after 12 hours if necessary. If still not controlled, nebulised adrenaline solution is given.

159
Q

Colic

A

presents with excessive crying, inconsolable crying which occurs in late afternoon
or evening and draws its knees up to abdomen when crying.

signs of colic which starts in the first weeks of life and resolves by around 3–4 months of age.

160
Q

Eplerenone

Spirnolactone

Amiloride HCl

A

Diuretic>Potassium-Sparring Diuretic>Aldosterone Antagonist

Adjunct in stable patients with left ventricular ejection fraction ≤40% with evidence of heart failure, following myocardial infarction (start therapy within 3–14 days of event),
Adjunct in chronic mild heart failure with left ventricular ejection fraction ≤30%

Initially 25 mg daily, then increased to 50 mg daily, increased within 4 weeks of initial treatment.

Contra: hyperkalaemia

***causes potassium retention, potassium supplement not to be given

thiazide: relieve oedema due to HF to reduce blood pressure
loop: in pulmonary oedema due to left ventricular failure/chronic heart failure

161
Q

Lamotrigine

A

Warning. Do not stop taking this medicine unless your doctor tells you to stop

162
Q

Methylpenicillin V

A

Take this medicine when your stomach is empty. This means an hour before food or 2 hours after
food

163
Q

Mirtazapine

A

Tetracyclic antidepressant

Major depression

Warning: This medicine may make you sleepy. If this happens, do not drive or use tools
or machines. Do not drink alcohol

164
Q

Amitriptyline HCl

Dosulepin HCl

Doxepin

Nortriptyline

Vortioxetine

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

Depressive Illness

165
Q

sulfasalazine

New 5-AMA: (avoids SE of sulfasalzine)
mesalazine
balsalazide
olsalazine

A

Aminosalicylate: High Risk Drug

Ulcerative Colitis/Crohns Disease

***Sulfasalazine has been confused with sulfadiazine

monitoring: full blood count (white and platelet, bc prone to blood disorders), renal function, liver function

This medicine may colour your urine/body fluids yellow/orange. This is harmless; contacts may be stained.

SE: insomnia, stomatitis (sore mouth), taste altered; tinnitus (hearing), urine abnormalities

Warning: jaundice, unexplained bruising/bleeding (blood disorder), signs of infection (fever, malaise, sore throat)

maintain fluid intake, need folic acid, caution in G6PD

reduces digoxin, bone marrow suppresion/leucopenia with azathioprine/6-meraptopurine

Treatment of mild to moderate ulcerative colitis, acute attack

> 2.4g in divided doses (Asacol MR 400)
2.4g-4.8g in divided doses (Asacol MR 800)
2.4g-4.8g OD or divided doses (Octasa)
4g OD or divided doses (Pentasa tablets: Manufacturer advises tablets may be halved, quartered, or dispersed in water, but should not be chewed.
Pentasa granules: Manufacturer advises granules should be placed on tongue and washed down with water or orange juice without chewing
In Children: Expert sources advise contents of one sachet should be weighed and divided immediately before use; discard any remaining granules.)

Hepatic/Renal Impairment: caution in mild to moderate, avoid in severe

MR tablet: Take with or just after food, or a meal, Swallow this medicine whole. Do not chew or crush

GR tablet: Do not take indigestion remedies 2 hours before or after you take this medicine, Swallow this medicine whole. Do not chew or crush

MR granules: Swallow this medicine whole. Do not chew or crush

Hepatic/Renal impairment: caution in mild to moderate, avoid in severe
>Renal function should be monitored before starting, at 3 months, and annually during treatment

Breast feeding: diarrhoea in breast-fed infant

Contra-indicated: blood clotting abnormalities

Stick to same brand

Side Effects: gastrointestinal symptoms, aches and pains, blood disorder: unexplained bleeding, bruising, red or purple discolourations of the skin (purpura), sore throat, a high temperature (fever), or if you feel generally unwell (malaise).

166
Q

Andexanet alfa antidote

A

antidote and chelator

recombinant form of human factor Xa

Reversal of apixaban or rivaroxaban in life-threatening or uncontrolled bleeding

167
Q

diverticulosis

A

treatments not recommended

bulk-forming laxatives for constipation/diarrhoea, antibacterials not recommended, paracetamol for analgesia

168
Q

mebeverine

alverine citrate
peppermint oil

A

Antispasmodic
IBS
200mg BD

Symptomatic relief: max. single dose is 135 mg, max. daily dose is 405 mg;

For uses other than symptomatic relief of irritable bowel syndrome: max. single dose is 100 mg and max. daily dose is 300 mg.

Suspension not for children under 10, Tablet/MR capsule not for use in children.

Avoid in pregnancy
Side effects: mild, rarely causes problem, allergy (itchy rash, swelling), angiodema/face oedema

isphagula husk to aid dietary fibre, do not use lactulose

second-line: can use tricyclic antidepressant (amitriptyline) or if not tolerated, SSRI

169
Q

Constipation

Diarrhoea

A

Bulk-forming: isphagula husk, methycellulose, sterculia (onset 72 hrs)

Stimulant: senna, co-danthramer, bisacodyl

Faecal softeners: decussate sodium, glycol

Osmotic: lactulose, macrogrol

opiod-induced: bulk avoided, osmotic or docusate and a stimulant are recommended, naloxegol/methylnaltrexone recommended when response to others is inadequate

in pregnancy: bulk is 1st choice, osmotic can be used as well as Senna/bisacodyl

children: laxative with dietary change, bulk then stimulant

Diarrhoe: ORT, loperamide

170
Q

Antacids

A

Magnesium-containing: laxative
Aluminium-containing: constipating
Bismuth-containing: not recommended, can be neurotoxic
calcium-containing: can induce rebound acid, high-doses can cause hypercalaemia

171
Q

Gastric and Duodenal ulcers/GERD

GERD in pregnancy

Food Allergy

A

H2 receptor antagonists: heal ulcers/relieves symptoms of GERD by reducing gastric acid output

***Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (too much gastric acid) better treated by PPI

Pregnancy: if lifetyle changes and antacid/alginate don’t work, omeprazole or ranitidine can be used in severe cases.

FA: chlorphenamine

172
Q

biliary disorders

gallstone disease

A

cholestasis: impairment of bile formation

cholestatis pruritus: colestyramine

GB: paracetamol=>IM diclofenac=>IM opiod

ursodeoxycholic acid can be used but no evidence

173
Q

anal fissure

heamorrhoids (piles)

A

bulk forming or osmotic as an alternative, topical prep (lidocaine ointment) or paracetamol

chronic AF (6 weeks+): GTN rectal ointment 0.4% 0r 0.2% (higher strength has more side effects), alternative diltiazem hcl 2% or nifedipine 0.2-0.5%

H: if constipated, bulk forming and paracetamol. opioids avoided cause constipation, NSAIDs avoided cause rectal bleeding.

topical corticosteroid no more than 7 days (anusol HC, sheriproct, proctosedyl) and local anasthetic for a few days (excessive application avoided bc irritation and sensitisation of anal skin)

pregnancy: no preparation for use, only bulk forming

174
Q

Pancreatic Insufficiency

A

reduced secretion of pancreatic enzymes causing maldigestion, malnutrition

treatment: pancreatic enzyme replacement (Creon)

175
Q

Atrial Fibrillation/Atrial Flutter

A

***all patients should be assessed for risk of stroke, thromboprophylaxis need, and risk of bleeding using CHA2DS2-VASc (0 for men, 1 for women is low risk) assessment tool for stroke risk and the HAS-BLED tool for bleeding risk

1st line: rate control with beta blocker, CCB (diltiazem) or verapamil as monotherapy

digoxin: mono therapy in sedentary patients

when single drug fails, combination of beta blocker, digoxin, or diltiazem can be used.

sinus-rhythm post-cardioversion: beta blocker (sotalol, flecainide, propafenone, and amiodarone)

176
Q

Terminating paroxysmal supraintraventricular tachycardia

A

abnormal heart rhythm: regular but rapid heartbeat that starts and stops abruptly

treat with adenosine, digoxin

**verapmil cannot be used after beta blocker

177
Q

Antifibrinolytics and haemostatics

A

Tranexamix acid (inhibits fibrinolysis)

Desmopressin (mild to moderate haemophilia and von Villebrand’s disease

178
Q

Thromboembolism

A

anti-embolism stockings (mechanical) worn all day and night until patient is sufficiently mobile

patients with risk factors should only be on pharmacological prophylaxis

low molecular weight heparin suitable in all types of surgery; heparin (unfractioned) in renal impairment, or fondaparinux.

acute illness: LMWH as 1st line or Fonda

birth/miscarriage/termination: in past 6 weeks, start LMWH 4-8 hrs after event and continued min 7 days

pregnancy: heparins dont cross placenta, lmwh preferred bc lower risk of osteoporosis and heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, lmwh more rapidly eliminated requiring alteration of dose (dalteparin, enoxaparin, tinzaparin) and treatment should be stopped at onset of labour

endoxaban not an alternative to unfractioned heparin

Initial treatment of deep-vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism uses a low molecular weight heparin or unfractionated heparin IV infusion. Warfarin is usually started at the same time (the heparin needs to be continued for at least 5 days and until the INR is ≥2 for at least 24 hours). Laboratory monitoring for unfractionated heparin, preferably on a daily basis, is essential.

179
Q

Stroke

A

TIA: Aspirin 300 mg immediately (if aspirin contraindicated clopidogrel 75 mg immediately)

Acute ischaemia stroke: alteplase within 4.5 hrs of onset, treatment with aspirin 300 mg once daily for 2 weeks should be initiated 24 hours after thrombolysis (clopidogrel 75mg once daily if aspirin contraindicated)

long-term management tia/is: clopidogrel, if contraindicated then MR dipyridamole with aspirin, if aspiring and clopidogrel contraindicated, then MR dipyridamole only, if MR and clopidogrel contraindicated then aspirin alone

high-intensity statin to be started 48 hrs after onset, blood pressure checked (less than target 130/80) and treatment initiated but not with beta blockers

180
Q

Target INR

A

2.5, within 0.5 units is generally satisfactory

Oral anticoagulants: coumarins and phenidione

warfarin (drug of choice)
acenocoumarol
phenidone

takes 48-72 hrs for effect to develop fully

not to be used in cerebral artery thrombosis, peripheral artery occlusion, tia risk (aspiring more appropriate)

main adverse effect: haemorrhage

give phytomenadione to stop bleeding

stop warfarin 5 days before surgery

181
Q

Heparins

A

unfractioned heparin initiates anticoagulation rapidly but has a short duration of action meaning more frequent dosing compared to LMWH which have a longer duration of action

unfractioned heparin used in high risk of bleeding because effect can be terminated rapidly, whereas LMWH are for routine use

LMWH (dalteparin, enoxaparin, tinzaparin) preferred over unfractioned heparin in venous thromboembolism prophylaxis since they are as effective and lower risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

182
Q

Warfarin

A

Warfarin

High Risk Drug

Avoid Cranberry juice

While amoxicillin, benzylpenicillin, clindamycin, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, tigecycline and trimethoprim all have
the potential to interact with warfarin Clarithromycin is in the BNF as a potentially serious interaction.

Take at least 48 to 72 hours for the anticoagulant effect to develop fully

Target INR: 1.1 or below in healthy people, 2.5 for most indications, 3.5 for recurrent DVT or PE

Duration: 6 weeks for isolated calf-vein DVT
3 months for venous thromboembolism provoked by surgery or other transient risk factor (e.g. combined oral contraceptive use, pregnancy, plaster cast)
at least 3 months for unprovoked proximal DVT or PE; may be required long-term

WARNING:
* Haemorrhage – reversed with phytomenadione
(nosebleeds, bleeding from wounds, bruising)
* Deep-vein thrombosis / Pulmonary embolism
(pain, swelling, tenderness usually in calf, redness of skin, chest pain, shortness of breath)
* Haemorrhagic stroke (Headaches, confusion)
* Rash, skin necrosis, purple toes
* Diarrhoea and vomiting (may lead to poor absorption)

monitoring:
* INR: on alternate days in early days of treatment, then at longer intervals up to every 12 weeks
* Liver function
* Renal function
* Full blood count
* Blood pressure
* Thyroid function

Pregnancy: teratogenic in 1st and 3 trimester

  • Anticoagulant treatment booklet/ alert card
  • Take at the same time of day, once a day with a full glass of water, if a dose is missed DO NOT double the dose the next day
  • Patient should notify their anticoagulation clinic of any changes to medication, lifestyle or diet; not to change vitamin K intake (dark leafy greens)
  • Brown tablets = 1mg
    Blue tablets = 3mg
    Pink tablets = 5mg
  • dose is expressed in milligrams and not the number of tablets
183
Q

Antiplatelet Drugs

A

aspirin only to be use as secondary prevention of CVD; clopidogrel as an alternative

MR dipyridamole (take 30-60min before food, discard after 6 weeks, enhances adenosine) for secondary prevention of is/tia

Prasugrel or Ticagrel in combination with aspirin for up to 12 months for the prevention of atherothrombotic events in patients with acute coronary syndrome

Aspiring not to be given under age of 16 due to Reye’s syndrome (vomiting, fatigue, seizures, liver and brain damage) or anyone hypersensitive to aspiring/NSAIDs

Clopidogrel interacts with statins, -pines (carbamazepine), -zoles (ketoconazole), SSRI, methotrexate

184
Q

Beta blockers (-lols)

A

cardioselective (atenolol, bisoprolol, metoprolol, nebivolol) avoid in patients with asthma or bronchospasm (or give with caution if no other alternative)

Water-soluble beta-blockers (such as atenolol, celiprolol hydrochloride, nadolol, and sotalol hydrochloride) are less likely to enter the brain, and may therefore cause less sleep disturbance and nightmares. Water-soluble beta-blockers are excreted by the kidneys and dosage reduction is often necessary in renal impairment.

can be used in prophylaxis of migraine

HF: bisoprolol, carvedilol, nebivolol

glaucoma: beta-, levo-, timo-lol

bradycardia with IV injection

propranolol can reverse thyrotoxicosis within 4 days

can mask hypo in diabetic

185
Q

CCB

A

-pines, diltiazem, verapamil

nifedipine prescribed by brand

186
Q

ACE

A

-prils

caution in Afro-Caribbean

187
Q

ARBs

A

-artans

caution in Afro-Caribbean

188
Q

Heart Failure

A

ACE and a beta blocker (biso, carvedi, nebiv) should be first line

if ACE not tolerated, ARB (candesartan, losartan, valsartan)

if symptoms worsen, aldosterone antagonist as an add-on (spirinolactone, eplerenone)

if ACE and ARB not tolerated, hydralazine with a nitrate

189
Q

Angina

A

acute attacks of stable angina/prophylaxis managed with GTN sublingual

long-term chest pain prevention in stable angina: beta blocker, then ccb instead if not tolerated

can combine ccb with beta blocker

neither beta or ccb works, then nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, ranolazine used as mono therapy

190
Q

Spacers

A

cleaned once a month by washing with mild detergent and then left to air dry without rinsing, mouthpiece wiped clean of detergent before use

should be replaced every 6-12 months

191
Q

solution for nebulisation

A

severe/life-threatening asthma attacks: administered over 5-10 minutes from the nebuliser, driven by oxygen

nebuliser converts a solution of drug into an aerosol for inhalation, delivering higher dose of drug to the airway than standard inhaler

indications for usage are to deliver:

beta2 agonist or ipratropium with an acute exacerbation/COPD

beta 2 agonist, corticosteroid, or ipratropium regularly in patient with severe asthma or unable to use other inhalation device

antibiotic (colistimethate) or mucolytic in cystic fibrosis

budesonide or adrenaline/epinephrine in child with severe croup

pentamidine for prophylaxis/treatment of pneumocystis pneumonia

=>home trial should be undertaken for 2 weeks on standard treatment and up to 2 weeks on nebulised treatment before prescribing

patient must have clear instruction, not treat acute attacks without seeking help, have regular followup after 1 month then annually

192
Q

Inhaler Protocol: Asthma

A

Complete control of asthma is defined as no daytime symptoms, no night-time awakening due to asthma, no asthma attacks, no need for rescue medication, no limitations on activity including exercise, and normal lung function and minimal side effects

lifestyle: weightloss can improve symptoms, smoking cessation, breathing excersises

Age 5-16:

> Offer SABA (reliever inhaler: salbutamol or terbutaline) in newly diagnosed
Paediatric low dose ICS (preventer) as 1st-line maintenance with symptoms 3 times a week+/causing waking at night or uncontrolled with SABA alone
uncontrolled with ICS, add LTRA
uncontrolled with ICS and LTRA, then stop LTRA and start LABA (salmeterol/formoterol)
uncontrolled with ICS and LABA, then ICE with MART

17+:

> Offer SABA as reliever
low dose ICS as first-line maintenance with symptoms 3 times a week+/causing waking at night or uncontrolled with SABA alone
if uncontrolled with ICS, add LTRA (montelukast)
if uncontrolled with ICS and LTRA, offer LABA with ICS (with or without LTRA)
if Uncontrolled, change to MART with ICS
if uncontrolled MART and ICS with/without LTRA, increase ICS (either continuing on a MART regimen or changing to a fixed dose of an ICS and a LABA, with a SABA as a reliever therapy).
consider theophylline

193
Q

Acute Asthma Severity

A

Moderate: increasing symptoms, Peak flow >50-75%

Severe:
Peak flow >33-50%
Respiratory rate ≥ 25/min
Heart rate ≥ 110/min
Inability to complete sentences in one breath

Life-Threatening:
* Peak flow < 33% best or predicted
* Arterial oxygen saturation (Sp02) < 92%
* Partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) < 8 kPa
* Normal partial arterial pressure of carbon dioxide
(PaCo2) (4.6–6.0 kPa)
* Silent chest
* Cyanosis (blue discoloration)
* Poor respiratory effort
* Arrhythmia
* Exhaustion
* Altered conscious level
* Hypotension

Near-Fatal:
Raised PaCO2, requiring mechanical ventilation with raised inflation pressures, or both

Management:
supplementary oxygen to maintain SpO2 between 94-98%
1st line: high dose SABA (salbutamol, terbutaline)
Prescribe prednisolone

Can add the following if no improvement:
a. nebulised ipratropium bromide
b. intravenous dose of magnesium sulfate
c. intravenous aminophylline (caution if patient already on theophylline)

Under 2:
high flow oxygen in tight-fitting mask/cannula to achieve SpO2 94-98%
1st-line: SABA asap, discontinue LABA
Prescribe prednisolone treatment up to 3 days

194
Q

COPD

A

smoke cessation; pneumocococcal vaccine and influence vaccine offered, pulmonary rehabilitation, treat comorbidities, develop self-management plan

Inhaled therapies:
SABA or SAMA as needed

Route 1 (no asthmatic features):
LABA+LAMA

=>if day to day symptoms impact quality of life, 3 month trial: LABA+LAMA+ICS

no improvement back to LABA+Lama

=>1 severe or 2 moderate exacerbating in 1 year: LABA+LAMA+ICS

Route 2 (asthmatic features):
LABA+ICS

=>1 severe or 2 moderate exacerbating in 1 year: LABA+LAMA+ICS

xAsthmatic features/features suggesting steroid responsiveness in this context include any previous secure xxdiagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time xx(at least 400 ml) or substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%).

Prophylactic antibiotics: azithromycin to reduce risk of exacerbations in nonsmokers

195
Q

Beta2 Agonist (asthma)

A

risk of hypokalaemia

Caution and monitoring: severe asthma as risk is increased with concomitant theophylline, corticosteroid, and diuretic use, as well as with hypoxia.

196
Q

Aminophylline (Phyllocontin continus)

Theophylline (Uniphyllin Continus)

Nebuliser solutions (hypertonic sodium chloride solutions)

A

HIGH RISK

Xanthanes

SE: arrythimias, diarrhoea, dizziness, GORD, tremor

Theophylline is a antimuscarinic used as a bronchodilator in asthma, and stable COPD.

Aminophylline is rarely given as an infusion for severe acute asthma.
Therapeutic Range: 10 to 20mg/L (although a plasma theophylline concentration of 5 to 15mg/L may still be effective); loading doses may be required

WARNING: toxicity (vomiting, hypokalaemia, arrhythmia/tachycardia, restless), uncontrolled asthma (cough, wheeze, tight chest), frequent antibiotic courses

interactions: diltiazem, oestrogen, quinolones, alcohol, carbamazepine

caution: HF, hepatic, viral infection, elderly

use same brand

monitoring: potassium, theophylline conc.

Potentially serious hypokalaemia may result from beta agonist therapy. Caution required in severe asthma, because this effect may be potentiated by concomitant use of theophylline, corticosteroids, and diuretics as well as hypoxia.
Plasma potassium should be monitored in severe asthma

concentration decreased in smokers, inform GP before stop/starting as adjustment needed

continue with monitoring in pregnancy

197
Q

Acrivastine (Benadryl)

Cetirizine HCl

Fexofenadine (Allevia)

Levocetirizine HCl (isomer of cetirizine)

Loratidine (Clarityn)

A

Antihistamine, non-sedating

A: (12-adult) 8mg TDS

C: 2-5: 2.5mg BD
6-11: 5mg BD
12-adult: 10mg OD

seasonal allergy
F: 6-11: 30mg BD
12-Adult: 120mg OD
chronic allergy
12-adult: 180 mg OD

L: 5mg OD

Lora:
child ups 11 under 31kg: 6mg OD
10mg OD

198
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

secure airway, restore BP (lay patient flat, lift legs OR recovery position if unconscious/nauseous)

1 month-5 yrs: 150mcg
6yrs-11yrs: 300mcg
12-17: yrs: 500 mcg
Adult: 500 mcg

repeat in 5 min intervals

199
Q

Beclometasone dipropionate (Clenil modulite, Qvar (fine particles, twice a potent as clenil)

Beclometasone with formoterol (Fostair nexthaler, Fostair)

Becloemtasone with formoterol and glypyrronium (Trimbow)

Budesonide with formoterol (Duoresp spiromax, Symbicort turbohaler)

Fluticasone with formoterol (Flutiform)

Fluticasone with salmertol (Sereflo, Seretide 250 Evohaler, Seretide 500 Accuhaler)

Fluticasone with umeclidinium and vilanterol (Trelegy Ellipta)

Fluticasone with vilanterol (Relver Ellipta 184/22, 92/22)

A

Corticosteroid

SE: oral candidiasis

beclometasone inhaler by brand

Easyhaler beclometasone is not licensed for children under 18 years; Qvar, Clenil 200 and 250 are not licensed for children under 12.

alleviation of symptoms with 3-7 dats in asthma (Beclometasone, budesonide, fluticasone, and mometasone appear to be equally effective)

discontinue if bronchospasm

steroid card for high doses

SE in children: growth failure, reduced bone mineral density, and adrenal suppression.

Small risk of glaucoma; monitor eyes for cataracts, and weight and height for growth

200
Q

desensitising vaccines

A

indicated: seasonal hay fever caused by pollen that has not responded to anti-allergic drugs

hypersensitivity to wasp/bee venom

avoid in patients: asthma, pregnant, child under 5, beta blockers, ACE

201
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

A

evidence of lung disease (mucolytic): dornase alpha, if adequate response add hypertonic sodium chloride OR hypertonic NaCl alone

if dornase alpha is unsuitable, use mannitol dry powder

Lumacaftor is not recommended

ursodeoxycholic can be given to retire liver function in liver function is abnormal

monitor: cystic fibrosis-related low bone mineral density and diabetes

202
Q

Cough in Children

A

Children under 6 years should not be given OTC cough and cold medicines containing the following ingredients:
* antihistamines
* cough suppressants
* expectorants
* decongestants

OTC cough/cough medicines for children 6-12 restricted to 5 days or less treatment

OTC codeine containing cough suppressant avoided:
children under 12
CYP2D6 ultra rapid metaboliser
breastfeeding mother
children under 18 with respiratory problems, tonsil removal, sleep apnea

dextromethorphan avoided under 12 (cough suppressant)

203
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

mild to moderate, monotherapy with: acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are 1st line

if not tolerated, then alternative memantine (moderate to severe Alzheimers)

if already receiving acetylcholinesterase, addition of memantine if Alzheimers develops to moderate/severe

discontinuing acetylcholinesterase can worsen cognitive function

204
Q

Non-Alzheimer’s dementia

A

donepezil or rivastigmine should be given with mild-moderate dementia with Lewy bodies, galantamine can only be considered if other two not tolerated

D or R can be used in severe as well

where acetylcholinesterase are contraindicated, memantine can be used

antipsychotic drugs only offered if risk of harm to self/others, agitation, severe distress, hallucinations=>increase risk of stroke/death when used in elderly, lowest dose, short time should be used and reviewed every 6 weeks

depression/anxiety
antidepressants reserved for pre-existing mental health condition

sleep disturbance
non-drug treatments

205
Q

Epilepsy

A

When monotherapy with a first-line antiepileptic drug is unsuccessful (does not reduce or stop seizures, or if side-effects are intolerable), monotherapy with an alternative drug should be tried; the diagnosis should be checked before starting an alternative drug if the first drug showed lack of efficacy. The change from one antiepileptic drug to another should be cautious, slowly withdrawing the first drug only when the new regimen has been established. Combination (adjunctive) therapy with two or more antiepileptic drugs may be necessary, but the concurrent use of antiepileptic drugs increases the risk of adverse effects and drug interactions. If combination therapy does not reduce seizures, revert to the regimen (monotherapy or combination therapy) that provided the best balance between tolerability and efficacy. A single antiepileptic drug should be prescribed wherever possible.

***antiepiletics: increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviour

***switching

  1. Patient should be maintained on a specific brand Phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, primidone
  2. Supply of a specific brand based on clinical judgment
    Valproate, lamotrigine, perampanel, retigabine, rufinamide, clobazam, clonazepam, oxcarbazepine, eslicarbazepine, zonisamide, topiramate
  3. Unnecessary to supply a specific brand Levetiracetam, lacosamide, tiagabine, gabapentin, pregabalin, ethosuximide, vigabatrin

***antiepileptic hypersensitivity syndrome (carbamazepine, lacosamide, lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone, and rufinamide)

***withdraw antiepileptic drugs from a seizure-free patient may be considered after the patient has been seizure-free for at least two years

***DVLA: patients who have had a first unprovoked epileptic seizure or a single isolated seizure must not drive for 6 months, then can be resumed if assessed, can drive if not a danger and compliant with treatment (to continue driving, these patients must be seizure-free for at least one year)

Patients who have had a seizure while asleep are not permitted to drive for one year from the date of each seizure (unless history/pattern only occurs while asleep over one year or established pattern over 3 yrs if had zeisure while awake)

should not drive during any changes to medications and 6 months after last dose

***valpraote/valproic: teratogenic, lamotrigine and levetiracetam are safer

Focal seizures with or without secondary generalisation: >monotherapy of lamotrigine or levetiracetam as first-line options
>carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide as second-line monotherapy options
>Lacosamide should be considered as third-line monotherapy

Tonic-clonic seizures
>sodium valproate as first-line monotherapy
> lamotrigine or levetiracetam [unlicensed use] as alternative second-line options

Absence
> ethosuximide as first-line treatment
>sodium valproate as second-line monotherapy or adjunctive treatment for males, and females unable to have children
>lamotrigine or levetiracetam [unlicensed use] should be considered as third-line monotherapy or adjunctive treatment

Myoclonic seizures
> sodium valproate as first-line treatment for myoclonic seizures in males, and females unable to have children
>levetiracetam should be offered as second-line monotherapy or adjunctive treatment
>For females who are able to have children, offer levetiracetam [unlicensed use] as first-line monotherapy

Atonic or tonic seizures
> sodium valproate as first-line treatment
>lamotrigine should be offered as second-line monotherapy or adjunctive treatment
>females who are able to have children, offer lamotrigine as first-line monotherapy.

Dravet Syndrome
>Sodium valproate should be considered as first-line
>consider triple therapy with clobazam and stiripentol as first-line adjunctive therapy.

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
>Sodium valproate should be considered as first-line treatment >lamotrigine as second-line monotherapy or adjunctive treatment
>Third-line adjunctive treatment options include cannabidiol with clobazam in certain patients, or clobazam, rufinamide, or topiramate.

Repeated or cluster seizures, or prolonged seizures
>treatment with a benzodiazepine (such as clobazam or midazolam)

Convulsive status epilepticus
>Parenteral thiamine should be considered if alcohol abuse is suspected; pyridoxine hydrochloride should be given if the status epilepticus is caused by pyridoxine deficiency
>buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam in the community
>intravenous access and resuscitation facilities are immediately available, intravenous lorazepam can be used

206
Q

Carbamazepine

A

High Risk

inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels, thus preventing repetitive firing of action potentials)
Therapeutic range: 4 to 12mg/L (20 to 50 micromol/litre); brand-specific category 1

warning: toxicity (incoordination, blurred/double vision, nausea, vomiting, hyponatraemia), blood disorder, skin disorder (mouth ulcer, rash), hepatic disorder, antiepiletpic hypersensitivity syndrome (fever, rash, swollen lymph nodes)

monitoring: plasma concentration after 2 weeks, full blood count, renal and hepatic function

interations: cemitidne, clarithromycin, phenytoin, rifabutin, st john, corticosteroid, oestrogen, progestogen, simvastatin, orlistat

207
Q

ADHD

A

Lisdexamfetamine or methylphenidate: 1st line

if symptoms not improved within 6 week trial, switch to alternative 1st line drug.

Dexamfetamine sulfate [unlicensed] can be tried if the patient is having a beneficial response to lisdexamfetamine mesilate but cannot tolerate its longer duration of effect

Modified-release preparations of stimulants are preferred: pharmacokinetic profile, convenience, improved adherence, reduced risk of drug diversion, and the lack of need to be taken to work

In patients who are intolerant to both methylphenidate hydrochloride and lisdexamfetamine mesilate, or who have not responded to separate 6-week trials of both drugs, treatment with the non-stimulant atomoxetine can be considered

specialist service to start with guanfacine if nothing else has worked

208
Q

Mania

A

Antipsychotic drugs (such as haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone) are used in the treatment of acute episodes of mania or hypomania; if the response to antipsychotic drugs is inadequate, lithium or valproate may be added.

asenapine: moderate to severe manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder

olanzapine: long-term management of bipolar disorder

lithium: treatment of acute episodes of mania or hypomania in bipolar disorder, long-term management of bipolar disorder to prevent recurrence of acute episodes, when not tolerated valproate can be used

carbamazepine: long-term management of bipolar disorder, to prevent recurrence of acute episodes in patients unresponsive to lithium therapy

When discontinuing antipsychotic drugs, the dose should be reduced gradually over at least 4 weeks to minimise the risk of recurrence

209
Q

Phenytoin

A

High Risk Drug

(inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels, thus preventing repetitive firing of action potentials)

Therapeutic Range: 10 to 20mg/L (or 40 to 80 micromol/litre); brand-specific category 1; Non-linear relationship between dose and plasma drug concentration (dose changes and missed doses)

Preparations containing phenytoin sodium and phenytoin base are not bioequivalent. 100mg of phenytoin sodium is equivalent in therapeutic effect to 92mg phenytoin base. When switching formulations, the difference in phenytoin content may be clinically significant.

Warning: toxicity, skin disorder, hepatotoxicity, blood disorder, suicidal thoughts, low vitamin D (rickets, osteomalacia)

  • Increased plasma concentrations with amiodarone, chloramphenicol, cimetidine, disulfiram, diltiazem, fluconazole, fluoxetine, miconazole, topiramate, trimethoprim, metronidazole, clarithromycin, telithromycin
  • Reduced plasma concentrations with rifamycins, st Johns Wort, theophylline, itraconazole, ciclosporin
210
Q

Antidepressants

A

SSRI: better tolerated, safe in overdose

Tricyclic: discontinued bc side effects (toxicity in overdosage), more sedating, antimuscarinic, cardiotoxic effects than SSRI

MAOI: interaction with foods

St. Johns should not be prescribed/recommended for depression, multiple drug interactions as it is a drug inducer

risk of hyponatraemia in all antidepressants (more frequent with SSRI)

serotonin syndrome: uncommon adverse reaction (can occur with changes in antidepressant during washout period, irreversible MAOI or long half-life), tremor, BP, shivering, tachycardia, confusion, agitation, mania

211
Q

Anxiety

A

acute anxiety: benzodiazepine or buspirone hydrochloride

chronic: benzo may be required until antidepressant takes effect

generalised: psychological treatment before an SSRI (escitalopram, paroxetine, or sertraline [unlicensed]). Duloxetine and venlafaxine (serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)) are also recommended for the treatment of generalised anxiety disorder; if the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs (or if treatment has failed to control symptoms), pregabalin can be considered.

Panic: SSRIs, clomipramine hydrochloride [unlicensed] or imipramine hydrochloride [unlicensed] can be used second-line

OCD/PTSD/Social anxiety: SSRIs. Clomipramine hydrochloride can be used second-line for obsessive-compulsive disorder. Moclobemide is licensed for the treatment of social anxiety disorder

212
Q

Amitriptyline HCl

Dosulepin HCl

Doxepin

Nortriptyline

Vortioxetine

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

Depressive Illness

not effective for treating depression in children

213
Q

Monoamine-oxidase inhibitor (MOAI), less used than tricyclic/SSRIs

A

food restrictions, tyramine

Drepressive illness

Tranylcypromine has a greater stimulant action than phenelzine or isocarboxazid and is more likely to cause a hypertensive crisis. Isocarboxazid and phenelzine are more likely to cause hepatotoxicity than tranylcypromine.

Moclobemide should be reserved as a second line treatment.

214
Q

Antidepressant Washout

A

Other antidepressants should not be started for 2 weeks after treatment with MAOIs has been stopped (3 weeks if starting tricyclic: clomipramine or imipramine), 1 week for SSRI (5 weeks for fluoxetine)

215
Q

Chlorpromazine HCl

Flupentixol

Haloperidol

Prochlorperazine

Sulpiride

Zuclophenthixol acetate

A

first generation, antipsychotic (more likely to cause SE)

schizophrenia

***haloperidol/Zuclophenthixol: preparation for acute apisode not to be confused with depot preparation for maintenance

***Zuclophenthixol acetate confused with Zuclophenthixol decanoate

216
Q

Migraine

A

Treatment should ideally be restricted to 2 days per week and patients should be advised of the risk of developing medication-overuse headache

Monotherapy, with either aspirin, ibuprofen, or a 5HT1-receptor agonist (‘triptan’) is recommended as first-line treatment and should be taken as soon as the patient knows that they are developing a migraine (start of headache phase).

In patients who experience aura with their migraine, it is recommended that 5HT1-receptor agonists are taken at the start of the headache and not at the start of the aura (unless the aura and headache start at the same time). Treatment with a 5HT1-receptor agonist can be repeated after 2 hours with the same or different drug if there has been an inadequate response to the initial dose.

sumatriptan is the 5HT1-receptor agonist of choice. Alternative 5HT1-receptor agonists include almotriptan, eletriptan, frovatriptan, naratriptan, rizatriptan, and zolmitriptan.

NSAIDS: naproxen [unlicensed indication], tolfenamic acid, and diclofenac potassium

antiemetic: Metoclopramide hydrochloride or prochlorperazine

prophylactic: Propranolol (first-line preventative treatment in patients with episodic or chronic migraine). if propranolol is unsuitable, other beta-blockers that can be considered are metoprolol tartrate, atenolol [unlicensed indication], nadolol, and timolol maleate.

217
Q

Diabetic Foot infection

A

treatment based on severity of infection that does not require IV treatment:

mild: 1st line flucloxacillin

moderate/severe: min 7 days up to 6 weeks in osteomyelitis =>oral/IV=>flucloxacillon with/without IV gentamicin and/or metronidazole (can use co-amoxiclav instead of fluclo)

218
Q

Ear Infection

A

Otitis externa:
fluclolaxacillin, if penicillin allergy then clarithromycin

Otitis media: amoxicillin 1st line, co-amoxiclav 2nd line

if penicillin allergy, clarithromycin

219
Q

MRSA

Tuberculosis

A

tetracycline

initial phase 4 drugs: rifampicin, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, isoniazid for 2 months

continuation phase 2 drugs: rifampicin and isoniazid (with pyridoxine) for 4 further months

220
Q

UTI

non-pregnant women aged 16 years and over

children and young people under 16 years

A

1st choice: nitrofurantoin 100mg MR BD for 3 dats
trimethoprim: 200mg BD for 3 days

2nd choice: nitrofurantoin 100mg MR BD for 3 days
pivmecillinam: 400mg initial, then 200mg TDS for 3 days
Fosfomycin: 3g single dose sachet

3 months an over 1st choice: trimethoprim
nitrofurantoin

2nd: nitrofurantoin
amoxicillin
cefalexin

221
Q

UTI

A
222
Q

pneumocystis pneumonia

A

co-trimoxazole

223
Q

Endometriosis

A

3 month paracetamol/NSAID trial as 1st line

hormonal treatment offered (combined, pop)

surgery

224
Q

Heavy menstrual bleeding

A

menoragghia

levonorgestrel-releasing intra-uterine system is 1st line (irregular bleeding can occur during first months, can take uo to 6 months to recieve full benefit)

if unsuitable, trxnexamic acid, NSAID, coc, or cyclical oral progestogen should be considered

225
Q

hyperthyroidism (FT3/FT4)

A

carbimazole (propylthiouracil if carbimazole intolerant)

levo with carbimazole in blocking-replacement regimen given for 18 months. not for pregnancy

radioactive sodium iodide used in treatment of thyrotoxicosis, not in pregnancy

pregnancy: 1st trimester (propylthiouracil, risk of hepatotoxicity), 2nd carbimazole (congenital defects)

226
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

onotherapy with a conventional disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) (oral methotrexate, leflunomide, or sulfasalazine) should be given as first-line treatment; hydroxychloroquine sulfate, a weak conventional DMARD, is an alternative in patients with mild rheumatoid arthritis or those with palindromic rheumatism. Treatment should be started as soon as possible, ideally within 3 months of onset of persistent symptoms, and the dose should be titrated to the maximum tolerated effective dose.

Conventional DMARDs have a slow onset of action and can take 2–3 months to take effect; consider short-term bridging treatment with a corticosteroid

Treatment with a tumour necrosis factor (TNF) alpha inhibitor (adalimumab, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, or infliximab), other biological DMARD (abatacept, sarilumab, or tocilizumab), or targeted synthetic DMARD (baricitinib, filgotinib, tofacitinib, or upadacitinib) is recommended if there has been an inadequate response to combination therapy with conventional DMARDs.

Pain relief: NSAID, COX2 as well as PPI
if already taking aspirin, other treatment to be considered before NSAID

227
Q

Vincristine

A

IV only, intrathecal cause severe neurotoxicity

228
Q

Diclofenac Sodium

A

NSAID

not in HF, renal, hepatic impairment, pregnancy, GI disorders

avoid contact with eyes, broken skin, mucous membranes

229
Q

NSAID

A

HIGH RISK

NSAIDs reduce the production of prostaglandins by inhibiting the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase. Selective inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase-2 is associated with less gastro-intestinal intolerance, but greater cardiovascular risk.

WARNING SIGNS
(patient to report immediately to a doctor)
* Black stools or ‘coffee ground’ vomit, suggesting chronic gastrointestinal bleeding
* Iron deficiency anaemia due to GI bleeding (fatigue, dizziness, pale skin, shortness of breath)
* Progressive unintentional weight loss or difficulty swallowing
* Pregnancy and breastfeeding (contraindicated)
* Oedema
(swollen ankles or feet)
* Unexplained, recent dyspepsia
* Worsening of asthma

MONITORING
* Blood pressure (especially after dose changes)
* Renal function
* Liver function
* Haemoglobin in those with risk factors for GI
bleeding

DRUG INTERACTIONS
* Possible increased risk of convulsions when given with quinolones
* Possible enhanced anticoagulant effect of coumarins and phenindione
* Possible enhanced effects of sulfonylureas
* Increased risk of bleeding with dabigatran,
heparins, SSRIs, venlafaxine, antiplatelets
* Increased risk of nephrotoxicity when given
with ciclosporin, tacrolimus, diuretics (also
antagonism of diuretic effect)
* May reduce excretion of lithium or
methotrexate (increasing risk of toxicity)
* Increased side effects with concomitant use of
other NSAIDs, aspirin
* NSAIDs antagonise hypotensive effect of beta-
blockers, calcium-channel blockers, ACEI- inhibitors, angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, alpha-blockers, nitrates

OTHER POINTS
* All patients of any age prescribed NSAIDs for osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis or patients over 45 years who are prescribed NSAIDs for lower back pain should be co-prescribed gastro- protection (e.g. a proton pump inhibitor)
* NSAID should be taken with or just after food

230
Q

Gentamicin and Amikacin

A

Gentamicin is the aminoglycoside of choice in the UK. Therapy may require loading doses, and it has a narrow therapeutic Range:
* multiple daily dose regimens
one-hour (peak) serum concentration should be 5 to 10mg/L (3 to 5 mg/L for endocarditis); pre-dose (trough) concentration should be
< 2mg/L (< 1mg/L for endocarditis);
* once daily doses, consult local guidelines

Monitoring (all aminoglycosides):
Renal function (nephrotoxicity); auditory and vestibular function (ototoxicity which is irreversible); serum-aminoglycoside concentration must be determined in the elderly, all patients receiving parenteral treatment, those with renal impairment, in obesity and cystic fibrosis, and if high doses given.

Warning:
(patients advised to report all to doctor immediately)
* Nephrotoxicity
* Ototoxicity
(hearing impairment or hearing disturbance)
* Dehydration
(ensure patient is well hydrated before treatment to prevent dehydration)

pregnancy/breastfeeding: Risk of auditory or vestibular nerve damage in 2nd and 3rd trimester, avoid unless essential

interaction:
* Increased risk of nephrotoxicity when given with ciclosporin, tacrolimus, vancomycin
* Increased risk of ototoxicity when given with loop diuretics, vancomycin

231
Q

ciclosporin

A

therapeutic range: depends on indication

monitoring: full blood count, liver function, potassium, magnesium, blood lipids, renal, BP, dermatological and physical exam

warning: tremor, headache, encephalopathy (confusion, convulsion), blood disorder (fever, sore throat, mouth ulcer, brusing, bleeding, leucopenia/thrombocytopenia), liver toxicity, elevated creatinine (nephrotoxicity), vomiting, drowsiness, hypertension, headache, tachycardia, gingivial hyperplasia

hypertension is a common SE, monitor BP
no live vaccines
brand prescribing
avoid sunlight
avoid high potassium, grapefruit juice (oral formulation can be taken with apple or orange juice)

interactions: increased conc with colchicine, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, tacrolimus
decreased with carbamazepine, orlistat, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampicin
hyperkalaemia with ACE/ARB
nephrotoxicity with NSAIDs/diclofenac
digoxin
myopathy with statins

232
Q

Tacrolimus

A

transplant rejection

prescribe/dispense by brand name only
IR: Adoport, Prograf
suspension: Modigraf
PR: Advagraf, Dailiport

avoid skin lesions, eyes, mucous membranes, infection, immunodeficiency

monitoring: whole-blood trough concentration (esp. during diarrhoea), afro-caribbean require higher dose, BP, ECG, fasting blood glucose, haemotological/coagulation parameters, plasma protein, electrolytes (potassium), neurological/visual status, hepatic and renal function, Monitor for posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES)

warning: tremor, headache (neurotoxicity), elevated creatinine (nephrotoxicity), eyes disorder, skin disorder, blood disorder, hyperglycaemia (DM: increase thirdst, excess urination), CVD disorders (hypertension, arrhythmias, liver toxicity

avoid sunlight, report eye disorders, may affect driving

avoid live vaccine

avoid high K diet, grapefruit juice

233
Q

Corticosteroid

A

High Risk

Corticosteroids are a class of steroid hormones that are produced in the adrenal cortex. Two main classes of corticosteroids are involved in a wide range of physiologic processes, glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.

Glucocorticoids such as cortisol affect carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism, and have anti- inflammatory, immunosuppressive, anti- proliferative, and vasoconstrictive effects. Mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone are primarily involved in the regulation of electrolyte and water balance.

SE: Mineralocorticoid side effects are most marked with fludrocortisone, and are significant with hydrocortisone, corticotropin, and tetracosactide. Mineralocorticoid actions are negligible with the high potency glucocorticoids, betamethasone and dexamethasone, and occur only slightly with methylprednisolone, prednisolone, and triamcinolone.

Mineralocorticoid side effects:
* hypertension
* sodium retention
* water retention
* potassium loss
* calcium loss

Glucocorticoid side effects:
* diabetes
* osteoporosis (particularly in the elderly)
* high doses are associated with avascular
necrosis of the femoral head
* proximal myopathy
* weakly linked with peptic ulceration
* psychiatric reactions may also occur
* high doses can also cause Cushing’s syndrome,
with moon face, striae, and acne; it is usually
reversible on withdrawal of treatment
* weight gain / increased appetite

Warning signs
(patients advised to report all to doctor immediately; patients undergoing prolonged steroid treatment (>3 weeks) should be given a steroid card; oral steroids are best taken as a single dose in the morning)
* Paradoxical bronchospasm (constriction of the airways)
* Uncontrolled asthma (cough, wheeze, tight chest)
* Adrenal suppression
(adrenal atrophy can develop and persist for years after stopping prolonged corticosteroid therapy; acute adrenal suppression can lead to hypotension or death, and occurs after abrupt withdrawal of prolonged treatment; signs include fever, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, fatigue, headache, muscular weakness)
o prolonged corticosteroid therapy must be withdrawn gradually to prevent withdrawal or acute adrenal insufficiency
o gradual withdrawal should be considered in those who have:
a) received more than 40mg prednisolone (or equivalent) daily for more than one week
b) been given repeat evening doses
c) received treatment for more than
three weeks
* Frequent courses of antibiotics and/or
corticosteroids
* Immunosuppression
(prolonged treatment increases infection risk, especially severe chicken pox or measles if not already immune, patients should avoid exposure to chickenpox, shingles, or measles; more serious infections e.g. TB and septicaemia, may reach an advanced stage before being recognised; fungal or viral ocular infections may be exacerbated; oral candidiasis can be avoided by rinsing thoroughly after using inhaled corticosteroids)
* Psychiatric reactions
(linked to high doses and treatment withdrawal; aggravation of epilepsy or schizophrenia; euphoria, suicidal thoughts, nightmares, depression, insomnia; usually subside on reducing dose)

monitoring:
* blood pressure
* blood lipids
* serum potassium
* body weight and height in children and adolescents (growth can be slowed)
* bone mineral density
* blood glucose
* eye exam (for intraocular pressure, cataracts)
* signs of adrenal suppression

Pregnancy and breastfeeding:
The benefit of treatment during pregnancy and breast- feeding outweighs the risk; pregnant women with fluid retention should be monitored closely; treatment is required during labour.

Drug interactions:
Metabolism of corticosteroids accelerated by carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin and rifamycins
Corticosteroids may induce or enhance anticoagulant effect of coumarins
High dose corticosteroid can impair immune response to vaccines; avoid concomitant use with live vaccines
Corticosteroids can mask the gastrointestinal effects of NSAIDs (including aspirin); avoid concomitant use if possible and consider gastroprotection
Hypokalaemia can be severe when given with other drugs that lower serum potassium e.g. loop and thiazide diuretics
Effects of antihypertensive and oral hypoglycaemic drugs are antagonized by glucocorticoids

234
Q

Insulin

A
  1. Rapid
    Used PRN, faster onset and shorter duration of action that ‘short’, should be injected immediately before or after eating
    e.g. Aspart (Novorapid), Glulisine (Apidra), Lispro (Humalog)
  2. Short (neutral or soluble)
    Used PRN, longer duration of action, should be injected 30 mins before eating
    e.g. Actrapid, Humulin S, Insuman Rapid
  3. Intermediate
    Usually BD, up to 16 hours duration, resuspend zinc-insulin particulate before injecting, never use IV as particulate may block a capillary
    e.g. Isophane/NPH (Insulatard, Humulin I, Insuman Basal)
  4. Long-acting
    For 24hrs cover, used at the same time each day e.g. Detemir (Levemir), Glargine (Absaglar, Lantus), Deglubec (Tresiba)
  5. Biphasic
    combination of shorter- and longer- acting insulins, more convenient but less control, need to resuspend before injecting
    e.g. Novomix 30, Humalog Mix 25, Humulin M3

Warning signs
Recurring episodes of hypoglycaemia e.g. sweating, palpitations, confusion, drowsiness Signs of diabetic ketoacidosis e.g. nausea, vomiting, drowsiness
Any symptoms of liver toxicity, heart failure or pancreatitis e.g. jaundice, abdominal pain, Ulceration of foot tissue

Interactions:
Substances that may enhance blood-glucose- lowering activity (reduce insulin requirements) and increase risk of hypoglycaemia include oral antidiabetics, ACE inhibitors, MAOIs, salicylates, sulphonamide antibiotics
Substances that may reduce blood-glucose- lowering activity (increase insulin requirements) include corticosteroids, diuretics, sympathomimetics (e.g. epinephrine, salbutamol, terbutaline), thyroid hormones, oral contraceptives (oestrogens, progestogens) Beta-blockers or alcohol may potentiate and/or weaken the blood-glucose-lowering activity of insulin

235
Q

Opiod Analgesic

A

Patients should be commenced on a regular oral modified-release morphine preparation, with rescue doses of ‘as required’ oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. The standard ‘rescue dose’ of morphine for breakthrough pain is usually one-tenth to one-sixth of the regular 24-hour dose, repeated every 2–4 hours as required (up to hourly may be needed)

236
Q

Chemotherapy

A

systemic (oral, IV, SC, IM) with aim of maximal therapeutic cytotoxic effect whilst avoiding extreme toxicity to normal healthy tissues
regional (intrathecal, intraarterial) which is aimed at delivering cytotoxic directly into cavity in which tumour is located or blood vessel supplying tumour therefore minimising side effects

common side effects: extravasation of IV drugs (leakage of cytotoxic drug from vein into subcutaneous or subdermal tissue, which can lead to permanent tissue damage, refer to local guidelines for prevention and prompt management
nausea and vomiting (can cause distress and may lead to refusal of treatment so prophylaxis of n+v is very important; drugs have varying emetogenic potential
bone marrow suppresion (except vincristine and bleomycin): occurs 7-10 days after administration, important to treat infection before or when starting cytotoxic neutropenia sepsis is a medical emergency

warning: unwell, temperature 37.5+, shivering/flu, gum/nose bleed/bleeding, diarrhoea, uncontrolled comiting, mouth ulcers preventing eating/drinking

neutropenic sepsis: not to take paracetamol
antiemetic to always be prescribe in drugs causing severe/moderate emesis
maintain good oral hygiene (rinse mouth more frequently, soft brushing 2-3 times daily) to avoid mucositis