Chapter 11-15 (low weighted) Flashcards

1
Q

CHAPTER 11: Eye

A

How should eye drops be applied?
 Instill into the pocket formed by gently pulling down the lower eye-lid, blinking a few times to ensure even spread and then close the eye.
 Eye ointment should be applied in a similar fashion inside the lower eye lid , blinking a few times to ensure even spread and then close the eye
 Eye ointments can for a film and can cause blurry vision and affect driving.
 Leave 5 minutes between eye preparations.
 Always apply eye drops BEFORE eye ointments (more viscous).
 Eye drops can cause systemic side-effects as they can be absorbed into the blood stream
 Discard eye drop bottles after 4 weeks unless stated otherwise by manufacturer.

*hylo-forte/hylo-tear: longer shelf-life but otherwise 28 days max
*chloramphenical eye drops only use for course of 7 day treatment, discard afterwards (eye drops not to be shared, reduce contamination, separate eye drops per person)

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2
Q

Contact Lenses

A

> TWO TYPES – Hard and Soft lenses.
Most patients use soft lenses
Advice the need to maintain good hygiene.
Patients who use soft contact lenses are susceptible to Acanthamoeba Keratitis mostly due to poor hygiene.
Only use PRESERVATIVE FREE EYE DROPS with contact lenses. (preservative interacts with lens, also pts who have had eye surgeries, use glasses if product contains preservative)
DO not use eye ointment with contact lenses. (if using, use glasses)
Some drugs can discolour contact lenses . E.g. sulfasalazine can change colour to orange=>reassure discolouration is from a known side effect, use eye glasses during use of medications

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3
Q

Eye Infections

A

> CONJUNTIVITIS – self limiting (advise to use warm flannel and water for 72hrs and can get treatment if symptoms still exist), chloramphenicol (2 days, 2hrs+3 days, 4hrs+2 days, 4 hrs), fusidic acid drops (after treatment, pt still complains but could be adherence, but can advise one more course (2 max), after 2, refer to get fuscidic eye drops) (if pregnant/breastfeeding, can’t treat=>grey baby syndrome, under 2 need rx)
STYE - self limiting (warm flannel for 72hrs), chloramphenicol ointment (5 days TDS+2days TDS)
BLEPHARITIS– wipes/lotion (blephaclean & blephasol brand=>reduces symptoms not treat), chloramphenicol eyedrops, tetracyclines orally
KERATITIS – specialist treatment
CORNEAL ULCERS – specialist treatment
Each patient must use individual eye drop containers to avoid cross contamination.

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4
Q

Glaucoma

A

●Glaucoma - Increased intraocular pressure → optic nerve damage and vision loss  Primary open angle - most common type, develops slowly. (causes: genetics, hypertension, lifestyle=>reduce salt intake, lose weight/exercise, cut alcohol intake)
 Angle closure - rare, more common in Asians, more severe form of Glaucoma
 For Treatment: N/B - Combination of treatments may be used

 Drugs, Side effects and cautions
 Prostaglandin analogues (-prost) (eg: Latanoprost) Browning/ change in colour of iris , Increase in eyelash
 Beta Blockers (-lol) (eg: Timolol) Contraindicated for cardiac conditions in asthma/ COPD
 Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (- zolamide)(eg: Dorzolamide)
 Alpha 2 agonist/ sympathomimetics(-monidines) (eg: Brimonidine) can cause Palpitations, headaches, hypertension
 Cholinergics (eg: Pilocarpine) - Can cause ciliary spasms affecting night vision and Headache

**salbutamol inhaler (beta agonist) + timolol (beta antagonist)=>increase breathing difficulties and they are fighting for the receptors

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5
Q

Dry eyes

A

 More common in elderly and women, certain seasons
 Causes ● Ageing , Underlying medical conditions such as blepharitis (inflammation of eyelids) , Hormonal changes in women/menopause, pregnancy, Hot or windy climate, using computer screens.

 Symptoms
 ● Usually mild - but more severe cases can be painful and lead to complications
 ● Usually affects both eyes
 ● Eyelids stick together when waking up
 ● Feelings of dryness, grittiness or soreness that gets worse throughout the day
 ● Some people may have episodes of watering eyes - occurs because eye tries to relieve irritation by producing tears
 How to distinguish dry eyes from conjunctivitis? **dry eyes (affects both eyes) vs conjunctivitis (usually one eyes, purulent mucous)
 ● Should not have purulent discharge or small corneal infiltrates
 ● Usually affects both eyes as opposed to just one eye

 Treatment
● Ocular lubricants - different treatment regimes for different stages of dry eye (mild, moderate and severe)
»hypromellose 0.3, 0.5, carbomer
»hylotear/hyloforte
»if had surgery, give preservative free

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6
Q

SUBCONJUNTIVAL HAEMORRAGE

A

 SYMPTOMS
 blood shot eye accompanied with lack of coordination, loss of vision, nausea and vomiting , confusion, pain in the eyes=>red flag
**first line: self-liming measure (warm flannel), second line: optrex blood shot eyes=>sooth eye and speed healing
**different reasons: minor tear to blood vessels due to stress, physical cause to cause rupture (rubbing)

 if has red flag symptoms with blood shot eyes=>REFER patient to A/E can be a serious indicator of bleeding in brain that has lead to this condition

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7
Q
  1. EAR, NOSE, AND OROPHARYNX
A

EAR
 Otitis externa Infection (can be managed OTC) of the ear canal, a topical anti-infective such as neomycin or clioquinol may be used, but for only about a week. Acetic acid 2% (Ear Calm) acts as an antifungal and antibacterial in the external ear canal and may be used to treat mild cases. In more severe cases an anti-inflammatory preparation with or without an antibiotics is required (otomize, fluclox/clarithromycin).
 Otitis media (pharmacy 1st scheme, diagnose using otoscope) Most common cause of severe ear pain in small children. Many infections are caused by viruses, and uncomplicated cases resolve without antibacterial treatment. In children with systemic features, **antibacterial treatment (amoxicillin) may be started after 72 hours if no improvement. See pharmacy first scheme
 Removal of earwax - Wax provides a protective film on the ear canal, and only needs to be removed if it causes hearing loss. Wax can be softened using olive or almond oil, or ear drops; ear drops are also effective, but may cause dryness of the ear canal. If necessary, wax may be removed by irrigation with warm water. (sodium bicarbonate, OTEX eardrops=>dont need syringe or irrigation, if not able to help natural removal they will need to be referred to get irrigation)

***red flag: discharge, blood, loss of hearing (after rule out earwax), sharp pain, medication (bisphosphonates: alendronic acid/risidronate=>otonecrosis of ear canal)

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8
Q

Nose

A

> > blocked nose/runny nose from cold/flu can manage in pharmacy, if infection like polyp needs to be referred=>treatment for infection: naseptin cream (contains neomycin, chlorhexidine), ask if allergic to nuts bc contains peanut oil/arachis oil
 Allergic rhinitis is self-limiting but can be controlled with antihistamines (e.g. azelastine), or nasal corticosteroids (e.g. beclomethasone, mometasone). Sodium cromoglicate is an alternative but may be less effective. If necessary, a pregnant woman can use nasal beclometasone, budesonide, fluticasone, or sodium cromoglicate.
 Bacterial sinusitis may require treatment with antibacterials (amoxicillin or doxycycline). There is no evidence that topical anti-infective nasal preparations have any therapeutic value in rhinitis or sinusitis. However, Naseptin and Bactroban are licensed for the eradication of nasal carriage of staphylococci.
 Nasal polyps can be treated with short-term use of corticosteroid (e.g. beclomethasone, mometasone)

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9
Q

OROPHARYNX

A

 Dry mouth - Often caused by antimuscarinic drugs (oxybutinin),diuretics (hypovolaemia: low water=>dehydration=>dry mouth) OR surgery (neck and throat cancer: first line treatment, pilocarpine, radiotherapy=>can affect/destroy salivary glands).
May be relieved by simple measures such as frequent sips of cool drinks or sucking pieces of ice or sugarfree fruit pastilles. Sugar-free chewing gum stimulates salivation in patients with residual salivary function. Artificial saliva can provide useful relief of dry mouth.

> DENTAL / Oral hygiene (should see dentist 1-2 times a year especially for those on biphosphonates to maintain dental/oral hygiene)
 There is no convincing evidence that antiseptic lozenges and sprays have a beneficial action, they can irritate and cause sore tongue and sore lips. A warm saline mouthwash is ideal for superficial infections and can be prepared by dissolving half a teaspoonful of salt in a glassful of warm water.
 Hydrogen peroxide, may be useful in the treatment of acute ulcerative gingivitis. Chlorhexidine (can discolour teeth to brown, reversible as soon as treatment is stopped) is an effective antiseptic which has the advantage of limited inhibition of plaque formation on the teeth. Fluoride toothpaste is used in the prophylaxis of dental caries.
 FLUORIDE supplementation (min age to quality: 6 months, 2 strengths 2800ppm/5000ppm that children under 10 can’t use): scenario different parts of the UK=>amount of fluoride would be given in each of these areas=>which part of these areas require fluoride supplementation? min of 700mcg/L

Ulceration and inflammation
**acute sore throat under pharmacy first scheme
 Important to establish the diagnosis, as each case will require specific management. Unexplained mouth ulcer of more than 3 weeks requires urgent referral to hospital to exclude oral cancer. Preparations include saline mouthwash, chlorhexidine mouthwash, oral corticosteroids, benzydamine (difflam), flurbiprofen (sore throat), and choline salicylate, bonjela (GSL to P=>contains lidocaine, affects growth/development of children) bonjela adults, bonjela children (P, contains lidocaine, only if tried every other option, last line), bonjela infants (GSL, no lidocaine)

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10
Q

Chapter 13: Skin

A

 DRY SKIN
 EMOLLIENTS (hydromoor, E45, epaderm, aqueous cream=>flammable) Hydrate the skin; their effects are short-lived and should be applied frequently and regularly. Some preparations contain urea to relive itching & hydrate the skin. Emollients should be applied in the direction of hair growth to reduce the risk of folliculitis. Safety information Emollients soak into fabric and can become a fire hazard. Patients should be advised not to smoke, use naked flames (or be near people who are smoking or using naked flames), or go near anything that may cause a fire while emollients are in contact with their medical dressings or clothing.
 STEROIDS – mild, moderate, potent and very potent (1st line for contact dermatitis: hydrocortisone not used for face, broken/bleeding skin, private areas, min age 10 yrs, less than 10yrs see GP), eumovate OTC: 12 yrs+
 ACNE (presence of comedones, 12yrs+ OTC: freedom, ancecide; if OTC doesnt help, refer to GP=>zimerat on Rx needs to be made up, how does does it last for?)– RETINOIDS = ISOTRETINOIN, ACRTRETIN
>antibiotics can be used as well=>doxycycline, macrolides
 Female/childbearing age for vitamin A agonist: PPP, isotret can cause MOOD CHANGE, 30 day supply, 7 day expiry on Rx, pregnancy test taken before Rx given, ensure contraception, cannot donate blood while on medication

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11
Q

Skin

A

 Topical corticosteroid preparation potencies
 Potency of a topical corticosteroid preparation is a result of the formulation as well as the corticosteroid. Therefore,
proprietary names are shown.
 Mild
 Hydrocortisone 0.1–2.5%
 Dioderm
 Mildison
 Synalar 1 in 10 dilution
 Mild with antimicrobials
 Canesten HC
 Daktacort
 Econacort
 Fucidin H
 Hydrocortisone with chlorhexidine hydrochloride and nystatin
 Terra-Cortril
 Timodine

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12
Q

Skin

A

 Moderate
* Betnovate-RD (0.025%)
* Eumovate
* Haelan
* Modrasone
* synalar 1 in 4 dilution
* Ultralanum Plain
 Moderate with antimicrobials
* Trimovate (kept in fridge)
 Moderate with urea
* Alphaderm

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13
Q

Skin

A

 Potent
*beclometasone dipropionate 0.025%
* Betamethasone valerate (benovate) 0.1%
* Betacap
* Betesil
* Bettamousse
* Betnovate
* Cutivate
* Diprosone
* Elocon: mometasone
* Hydrocortisone butyrate
* Locoid
* Locoid Crelo
* Metosyn
* Mometasone furoate 0.1%
* Synalar

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14
Q

Skin

A

 Potent with antimicrobials
* Aureocort
* Betamethasone and clioquinol
* Betamethasone and neomycin
* Fucibet
* Lotriderm
 Potent with salicylic acid
* Diprosalic

 Verypotent
* Clarelux
* Dermovate: clobetasol (eumovate=clobetasone)
* Etrivex
 Very potent with antimicrobials
* Clobetasol with neomycin and nystatin

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15
Q

Chapter 14: Vaccines

A

 Immunoglobulins:
 Passive immunity (only lasts for a few weeks)-
 Immunity with protection against certain infective organisms can be obtained by injecting preparations made from plasma of immune individuals with adequate levels of antibody to the disease for which protection is sought.
 The duration of this passive immunity varies according to the dose and type of immunoglobulin.
 Passive immunity only lasts a few weeks, when necessary, it can be repeated.
 Antibodies of human origin are usually termed immunoglobulins. The term antiserum is
applied to material prepared in animals.
 Two types of immunoglobulin are available: normal immunoglobulin and disease-specific immunoglobulins.

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16
Q

Skin Infections (photos, min of 2 pic questions)

A

Review photo conditions

White coating on tongue: oral thrush/candiadasis

Bump on eye: stye

circle splotch on skin: ringworm, tinea coporus (capitus=>head, cruis=>jock itch)

Flushed cheeks: slapped cheek syndrome is self-limiting (antihistamines, simple analgesics: paracetamol/ibuprofen), can take 2 weeks to disappear

molloscum: looks like skin tags/skin coloured moles, caused by a virus, self-limiting

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17
Q

Active Immunity

A

 ACTIVE IMMUNITY:
 Acquired by natural disease or vaccination. Vaccines stimulate production of antibodies and other components of the immune system.
 1) A live attenuated (MMR- viral) (BCG- bacterial)
 2) Inactivated preparation (influenza vaccine)
 3) Detoxified exotoxins produced by a micro-organism (tetanus vaccine)
 4) Extracts of a micro-organism, which may be derived from the organism
(pneumococcal vaccine) or produced from recombinant DNA (hep B vaccine)
 Live attenuated vaccines usually produce durable immunity, but not always as long as natural infection.
 Inactivated vaccines may require a primary series of injections of vaccine to produce an adequate antibody response, and in most cases booster injections are required.

**if patient is taking an immunosuppressant drug (cyclosporine/mexotrexate): avoid live vaccines=>further impairs patients immunes system

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18
Q

Routine Immunisation Schedule

A

**general population
**
prison immunisations

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19
Q

You work as a pharmacist in HM prisons. You are asked to give a presentation to the inmates regarding prison vaccination schedules. As regards hepatitis B vaccines, how many doses are recommended for inmates in the resource provided.
 A. Hepatitis B vaccines are available to all ages and 3 doses are recommended.
 B. Hepatitis B vaccines are available to inmates over 18 years and 3 doses are recommended.
 C. Hepatitis B vaccines are available to all ages and 4 doses are recommended.
 D. Hepatitis B vaccines are available to males of all ages and 3 doses are recommended.
 E. Hepatitis B vaccines are available to all ages and 2 doses are recommended.

A

 C. Hepatitis B vaccines are available to all ages and 4 doses are recommended.

**MEP course: green book (details on individual vaccines ie if there is an egg allergy, dont give yellow fever, flu jab), pink book (if condition has an available vaccine)

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20
Q

Chapter 15: Anaethetics

A

 LOCAL ANESTHETICS (lidocaine: emla cream, blocks sensation to a specific area) AND GENERAL ANAESTHETICS (due to deliver/surgery)
 CAN CAUSE SEDATION. WARN ABOUT DRIVING.

MHRA wanring: no aesthetics products to pregnant woman, no piles treatment (anusol, preparation H)

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21
Q

Anaethesia

A

**skipped slide…

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22
Q

Stop Before Surgery

A

Combined Oral Contraceptives: stop 4 weeks before major surgery and all surgery to legs or surgery that involves immobilisation due to risk of venous thromboembolism

Hormone Replacement Therapy: stop 4 to 6 weeks before surgery and restart on full mobilisation

Antidepressants: MAOI: gradually withdraw 2 weeks before surgery, TCA: inform anaesthetist if continued, risk of arrhythmia and hypotension

Lithium: stop 24 hours before major surgery (constant fluid and electrolyte balance to avoid toxicity)

Potassium-Sparing Drugs: AVE inhibitors/ARBs (also cause severe hypotension), Potassium-sparing diuretics as risk of hyperkalemia if renal perfusion is impaired or if there is tissue damage

Antiplatelet/Oral Anticoagulants: consider stopping if increases risk of bleeding and convert to Heparin for during surgery

Diabetes: switch patient to insulin during surgery, give infusion of glucose with potassium and insulin on a sliding scale, once patient begins to eat, start SC insulin before breakfast and stop IV insulin 30 minutes after

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23
Q

May Continue During Surgery

A

Anti-Epileptics
AntiParkinson
Antipsychotics
Anxiolytics
Bronchodilators
Cardiovascular Drugs (except K+ sparing diuretics)
Glaucoma Drugs
Immunosuppressants
Progesterone Only Contraceptives
Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs

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24
Q

Drugs and Antidotes

A

FOR EACH DRUG, PLEASE STATE THE ANTIDOTE IN CASES OF OVERDOSE OR TOXICITY
 1. THEOPHYLINE = activated charcoal
 2. HEPARIN = Protamine Sulphate
 3. DABIGATRAN = idaricuzimab
 4. ASPIRIN = sodium bicarbonate
 5. WARFARIN = vitamin k
 6. IRON = dexferboxamine
 7. APIXABAN/ RIVAROXABAN = andaxanet alfa
 8. BENZODIAZEPINES = flumenazil
 9. PARACETAMOL = acetyl ceistine
 10. OPIOIDS = naloxone

Fluid Therapy: Lithium
Nalaxone: Opioids

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25
Q

A 16-year-old patient was sustained a 1st-degree burn to his hand whilst ironing his shirt. His mother phones your pharmacy to ask for advice on what to do next. She explains that she has instructed his son to run tap water on the burn area. What is the correct next line of action in this situation?
A. Call 999 immediately
B. cool the burn with Ice
C. Remove anything that’s stuck to the skin.
D. cover the burn by placing a layer of cling film over it.
E. Apply Vaseline on the affected area.

A
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26
Q

A 65-year-old patient has radiotherapy treatment for neck and throat cancer. He has developed xerostomia as a result. Which of the drugs listed below is the most suitable treatment for patients who have dry mouth due to radiotherapy treatment for neck and throat cancer?
A. Chlorhexidine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Biotene mouthwash
E. Salivix pastiles

A
27
Q

Mr. D. is a new bus driver who developed contact dermatitis after driving for one month. He also mentions that his hands feel dry and cracked. He would like to buy suitable treatment for his condition. What would you recommend?
A. Recommend hydrocortisone cream. B. Recommend aqueous cream.
C. Recommend clotrimazole 1% cream. D. Recommend calamine lotion.
E. Recommend hydrocortisone cream and cetraben cream.

A
28
Q

Which of the following advice regarding the administration of eye drop is incorrect? Five available answer options. Select only one option
A. Patient should leave an interval of at least 5 minutes between two different eye drops.
B. Eye ointment should be applied after drops.
C. Pressure on the lacrimal punctum for at least a minute after applying eye drops reduces nasolacrimal drainage and therefore decreases systemic absorption from the nasal mucosa.
D Patient should leave an interval of at least 2 minutes between two different eye drops.
E Instillation of more than one drop should be discouraged because it may increase systemic side-effects.

A
28
Q

You are asked to explain clinical trial to a third-year pharmacy student. Clinical trial can be described as
a. Testing a hypothesis to determine outcome
b. Checking practice against known standards
c. Carrying out a review of services to ensure financial viability
d. Putting standards or research evidence into practice
e. Developing standard operating procedures

A
29
Q

Angela is a 50-year-old patient who is currently suffering from asthma. She walks into your clinic for medicines use review. You notice on her PMR that she takes the following medication.
Bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg OD Salbutamol 200mcg inhaler Oxybutynin 5mg M/R OD Naproxen 500mg BD
Timolol 0.25% eye drops
State a potentially serious drug reaction - …………………………………………

What is the main risk of not notifying her doctor of a potential drug interaction?
A. Seizures
B. Hyperkalaemia
C. Myopathy
D. QT-prolongation
E. Breathing difficulties

A
30
Q

You work in a community pharmacy, one morning Mr. B. presents with symptoms of scabies. You decide to recommend permethrin cream and give him counselling advice. Which of the following is incorrect counselling as regards the use of permethrin cream for scabies treatment? Choose one correct answer below.
A. All members of household should be treated.
B. Wash all beddings at high temperature -50 degrees.
C. recommended that permethrin should be applied, two weeks apart.
D. Apply to the whole of the body including, scalp, neck, ears, face, fingers and wash off after 8 to 12 hours.
E. Permethrin can be sold over the counter for use by patients over 2 years old.

A
31
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING VACCINES SHOULD NOT BE GIVEN TO PATIENTS WITH EGG ALLERGY?
A. Yellow fever vaccine
B. MMR vaccine
C. Pnuemococal vaccine
D. Varicella zoster vaccine
E. Anthrax vaccine

A
32
Q

WHICH OF THR FOLLOWING PATIENTS CAN A LIVE VACCINE BE ADMINISTERD TO
A. A patient taking methotrexate.
B. A patient with COPD
C. A pregnant patient
D. A patient receiving HIV treatment.
E. A patient receiving cancer treatment with vincristine.

A
33
Q

A 65-year-old patient presents with pain in her ear and hearing impairment. She mentions that she had received treatment in hospital recently which drug can cause the symptoms described by the patient in this scenario?
A. Indapamide B. Methotrexate C. Ciclosporin D. Vancomycin
E. Ofloxacin

A
34
Q

A 45-year-old male patient presents with Otitis externa. Samples are taken and sent to the lab for microbiology analysis. The tests confirm the presence of a common microorganism which is known to cause otitis externa. Excluding staphylococcus aureus, which of the following microorganisms is a common cause of otitis externa?
* Select an appropriate answer from the list below.
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Streptococcus pyrogens
C. Candida Albicans
D. Campylobacter
E. Hemophilus influenzae

A
35
Q

A 30-year-old female patient presents with a blood shot eye. She explains that she also suffers from lack of coordination, loss of vision, nausea and vomiting and confusion. What would you advice this patient to do in this circumstance.
A. Give self-limiting advice.
B. See you GP if the symptoms do not improve. C. Sell chloramphenicol eye drops.
D. Sell optrex blood-shot eye drops.
E. Refer to A/E immediately.

A
36
Q

Clinical audit is a way to find out if healthcare is being provided in line with standards and let’s pharmacists know
where their service is doing well, and where there could be improvements.
Which of the following statements about audits is CORRECT?
Select one:
A. Audits can only be conducted on topics where clinical guidance exist. B. Data collection is NOT part of the audit cycle.
C. Ethics approval is required to conduct a clinical audit.
D. NHS community pharmacies are required to conduct at least one audit
per year.
E. Re-audit performance is part of the audit cycle.

A
37
Q

You work as a pharmacist in a GP surgery. A pregnant patient presents with otitis media. She complains of pain, inflammation and discharge from her left ear. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment given that she is allergic to penicillin?
A. Flucloxacillin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Erythromycin
E. Amoxicillin

A
38
Q

One Sunday afternoon, a mother presents with her 1-year-old child who has symptoms of stye. She explains that she noticed it yesterday and would like your advice. What is the correct next line of action?
A. Refer to A & E immediately for urgent medical attention.
B. Explain that the symptoms are self-limiting and will get better in a few days without medication. Use warm compress.
C. Sell chloramphenicol eye ointment over the counter.
D. Refer to her GP surgery for medical attention.
E. Sell calpol suspension over the counter.

A
39
Q

You work as a hospital pharmacist. A 42-year-old was admitted after taking an overdose of diazepam. What is the most suitable antidote in this scenario?
* A. Andaxenat alpha
* B. Idarisuzimab
* C. Activated charcoal.
* D. Sodium bicarbonate
* E. Flumazenil
* F. Fluid therapy and restrict diuretics.
* G. Desferoxamine
* H. proteamine sulphate
* I. Naloxone
* J. No antidote available

A
40
Q

Mr. T, a 43-year-old with bipolar disorder takes lithium regularly, he presents with severe headaches, stupor, confusion, nausea and vomiting. What is the correct treatment option in this scenario?

  • A. Andaxenat alpha
  • B. Idarisuzimab
  • C. Activated charcoal.
  • D. Sodium bicarbonate
  • E. Flumazenil
  • F. Fluid therapy and restrict diuretics.
  • G. Desferoxamine
  • H. proteamine sulphate
  • I. Naloxone
  • J. No antidote available
A
41
Q

You work as a hospital pharmacist. After been administered rivaroxaban for a few days for DVT, Mr. A, aged 69 years, presents with nose bleeds. What is the most suitable antidote for rivaroxaban in this scenario.
* A. Andaxenat alpha
* B. Idarisuzimab
* C. Activated charcoal.
* D. Sodium bicarbonate
* E. Flumazenil
* F. Fluid therapy and restrict diuretics.
* G. Desferoxamine
* H. proteamine sulphate
* I. Naloxone
* J. No antidote available

A
42
Q

An elderly patient who suffers from asthma comes into your pharmacy. He tells you that he has been prescribed theophylline and instructed to take it twice a day. After 5 days, his plasma concentration appears to be 30mg/Litre (normal range 10 – 20 ) . What is the correct antidote in this scenario?
* A. Andaxenat alpha
* B. Idarisuzimab
* C. Activated charcoal.
* D. Sodium bicarbonate
* E. Flumazenil
* F. Fluid therapy and restrict diuretics.
* G. Desferoxamine
* H. proteamine sulphate
* I. Naloxone
* J. No antidote available

A
43
Q

A 50-year-old was admitted in hospital after taking an overdose of edoxaban. He asks you if there is an antidote for edoxaban. What would your reply be?
* A. Andaxenat alpha
* B. Idarisuzimab
* C. Activated charcoal.
* D. Sodium bicarbonate
* E. Flumazenil
* F. Fluid therapy and restrict diuretics.
* G. Desferoxamine
* H. proteamine sulphate
* I. Naloxone
* J. No antidote available

A
44
Q

A 70-year-old male patient is admitted in hospital. You are asked to prepare a pharmaceutical care plan for the patient. Which drug is the most likely to result in severe neurotoxicity if given via the intrathecal route?
A. Azathioprine
B. Baclofen
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Vincristine
E. Methotrexate

A
45
Q

Which of the following is not a stage in the cycle of patients change in behaviour?
A. Contemplation stage
B. precontemplation stage
C. Action stage
D. Preparation stage
E. Completion stage

A
46
Q

You work as a hospital pharmacist and notice that one of your colleagues is making a lot of serious errors recently. He always smells of alcohol during his shifts at work. You are very concerned and decide to report this. Which regulation below protects you if you report this matter?
A. Misuse of drugs act 1971
B. Public interest disclosure act 1998 C. Whistle blowing act 2012.
D. Data protection act 1998
E. Gosport report 2018

A
47
Q

Which of the following advice regarding the administration of chloramphenicol eye drop is most correct? Five available answer options. Select only one option

A. Apply one drop to the affected eye(s) every 2 hours for the first two days and every 4 hours thereafter for 3 days. Use during waking hours only.
B. Apply one drop to the affected eye(s) every 2 hours for the first two days and every 4 hours thereafter. Use during waking hours and sleeping hours.
C. Apply one drop to the affected eye(s) four times a day for 5 days. Use during waking hours only.
D. Apply one drop to the affected eye(s) every 1 hour for the first two days and every 4 hours thereafter. Use during waking hours only.
E. Apply one drop to the affected eye(s) every 2 hours for the first two days and every 4 hours thereafter for 5 days. Use during waking hours only.

A
48
Q

You are asked to explain clinical trial to a third-year pharmacy student. Audit can be described as
a. Testing a hypothesis to determine outcome
b. Checking practice against known standards
c. Carrying out a review of services to ensure financial viability
d. Putting standards or research evidence into practice
e. Developing standard operating procedures

A
49
Q

You work in a community pharmacy, one morning Mr. B. presents in your pharmacy asking for travel advice to Bali. He has never been to the country before and wonders which vaccination is required before entering the country. Which option below is an example of required vaccine for travel to Bali. See resource via link below.
Entry requirements - Indonesia travel advice - GOV.UK (www.gov.uk)
A. MMR vaccine
B. Influenza vaccine
C. Yellow fever vaccine D. pneumococcal vaccine E. Tetanus vaccine

A
49
Q

You are working as the on-call pharmacist and receive a call from a staff nurse asking about the reconstitution for vancomycin 1g powder for solution for infusion. On questioning, you gather that the patient is being treated for MRSA positive cellulitis and otherwise the patient is fit and well. He is 53 years old and weighs 80kg.
The nurse has reconstituted two 1g vials with 20mL of water for injection and to produce 50mg/ml per vial and requires advice on further dilution and administration for a single dose. Which of the following is most adequate diluent to use.

Vancomycin 500mg powder for concentrate for solution for infusion vials - Summary of Product Characteristics (SmPC) - (emc) (medicines.org.uk)

A) Reconstitute with 0.9% glucose injection.
B) Reconstitute with 10% dextrose injection solution. C) Reconstitute with 5% dextrose injection solution. D) Reconstitute with 5% sodium chloride solution
E) Reconstituted with Ringer’s Lactate Injection

A
50
Q

ACNE VULGARIS CAN BE CONFIRMED BY THE PRESENCE OF …………. ?
A. RED BLISTERS
B. comedones
C. Molluscum D. Papules
E. Ecthyma

A
51
Q

A mother brings her 8-year-old child to your community pharmacy. She presents with symptoms of contact dermatitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next line of action.
A. Refer to the GP.
B. Sell E45 cream
C. Refer to A/E
D. Sell hydrocortisone cream
E. Sell clobetasone (eumovate) cream.

A
52
Q

A mother comes into the community pharmacy wanting some advice for their 6 year old child who had a minor burn 2 days ago but the area that was burned is now starting to ooze, and is warm to touch. What would you advice the mother to do?
Five Answer options
A. The wound is starting to heal
B. Give the child paracetamol
C. Take the child to the GP.
D. Apply antiseptic cream to the burn.
E. Apply a bandage to the burn.

A
53
Q

A male patient comes into the pharmacy asking for some pseudoephedrine tablets as they have a blocked nose and congestion. Upon questioning they also explain that they have an enlarged prostate for which they currently take medication. What advice would you give this patient. An spc for pseudoephedrine has been provided?
Sudafed Decongestant Tablets - Summary of Product Characteristics (SmPC) - (emc) (medicines.org.uk)
five Answer options:
A. It is safe to sell the pseudoephedrine and counsel the patient correctly.
B. Tell the patient they should not take the pseudoephedrine at the same time as their other medication.
C. Tell them not to drive whilst taking pseudoephedrine.
D. Refuse the sale as it is contraindicated.
E. Tell them to purchase pseudoephedrine from an online pharmacy.

A
54
Q

51-year-old man is admitted to your hospital medical ward with confusion, visual disturbances and hallucinations. His alcohol consumption has increased over the past few months and he consumes over 1.5 L of cider each day. He is administered with vitamin B substances and ascorbic acid intravenously once daily for five days for prophylaxis of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Which of the following oral vitamin supplements is the most appropriate for this patient following intravenous therapy?
a) Vitamin B2
b) Vitamin B1 c) Vitamin C
d) Nicotinamide
e) Vitamin B6

A
55
Q

Dental checks are necessary before and during treatment with certain medication. Which of the following drugs requires dental check up before initiation?
A. Methotrexate
B. Alendronic Acid
C. Carbimazole
D. Vancomycin
E. Levothyroxine

A
56
Q

What is the recommended age for daily use of fluoride mouthwash by patients who are of concern to their dentists according to public health England?
A. 6 months and over
B. 2 years and over
C. 5 years and over
D. 7 years and over
E. 10 years and over

A
57
Q

One Monday afternoon, a female patient presents in your pharmacy to discuss possible treatment for chronic open-angle glaucoma. She would like you to give examples of medication that can used to treat the condition. Which of the following is not a suitable example?
A. Latanoprost.
B. Lodoxamide
C. Brimonidine
D. Brinzolamide
E. Betaxolol

A
58
Q

A man presents with his young son who has a dry skin condition. He would like to buy hydrocortisone cream. What is the minimum age for OTC sale of hydrocortisone 1% cream over the counter from a pharmacy?
A. 6 years and over
B. 10 years and over
C. 12 years and over
D. 16 years and over
E. 18 years and over

A
59
Q

You are working in a community pharmacy when you receive a call from nurse from the local GP surgery. She reconstituted a live MMR vaccine (MMRVAXPRO) for a patient in her clinic who changed their mind about receiving it during consultation. She has another patient booked in for the same vaccine later on today and is enquiring if it will be okay to use later on for this patient.
The SPC for live MMR vaccine MMRVAXPRO is provided in the resource pack.
MMRVAXPRO - Summary of Product Characteristics (SmPC) - (emc) (medicines.org.uk)
a) After reconstitution, the vaccine can be kept at room temperature (less than 25OC) for up to 6 hours
b) After reconstitution, the vaccine is not physically stable and should be used immediately
c) In use stability has shown the reconstituted vaccine is stable for 8 hours when refrigerated (2-8OC)
d) After reconstitution, the vaccine can be stored for up to 24 hours in the fridge (2-8 OC)
e) After reconstitution, the vaccine must be frozen (-20 OC) and once thawed given immediately.

A
60
Q

Miss K is 20 years old, and she comes into the pharmacy with a prescription for isotretinoin capsules. Which one of the following statements is false regarding the treatment?
A. Isotretinoin can cause depression.
B. Patients must wait for 6 months before blood donation following discontinuation of treatment with isotretinoin.
C. Patient should use sunscreen and avoid sunlight exposure.
D. She should be advised not to use waxing during treatment for at least 6 months.
E. Patient should have her pregnancy status established as negative within the preceding 7 days of dispensing date.

A
61
Q

Notifiable diseases must be reported to a Proper Officer of the local authority. Which of the following diseases would not need to be notified by doctors when attending to a patient suspected of suffering the disease?

A. Yellow fever
B. Rubella
C. Food poisoning
D. Influenza
E. Typhoid fever

A
62
Q

Miss V came into the pharmacy and request information about the yellow fever vaccine, she explains that she and her partner are travelling abroad to a yellow fever endemic area and want to find out more about the vaccine. Which of the following should you consult as a reference?
A. Orange book
B. Green book
C. Blue book
D. White book
E. Red book

A