Special Situations Flashcards

1
Q

Explain obesity hypoventilation syndrome:

A
In short (oversimplified by quite a bit), obstructive sleep apnea combined with restrictive lung disease (due to obesity) leads to hypoxia and hypercarbia.
The hypoxia leads to hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction and elevated pulmonary artery pressures. The hypercarbia also increases pulmonary artery pressures. This manifests as right heart strain, dilatation, and hypertrophy (cor pulmonale). Since the left heart is “unaffected” (actually the dilated right ventricular septum bows into the LV cavity), hepatomegaly and peripheral oedema are seen, not pulmonary oedema (classically) (answer A). Chronic hypoxia leads to polycythaemia (answer E).
Chronic hypercarbia leads to a decreased CNS CO2 responsiveness, so that minute volume has an abnormally minimal response to elevated CO2 levels (answer B). Chronically elevated CO2 levels lead to bicarbonate retention by the kidneys (answer D), normalizing the pH, and removing the little increased drive to breath there was to start with. This process creates a continual feedback loop, resulting in worsening symptoms.
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2
Q

FRC and RV in obesity:

A

Functional residual capacity (FRC) decreases in obesity due to a decrease in expiratory reserve volume not so much a change in residual volume (see respiratory question 5).

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3
Q

Why do obese people have eccentric LVH?

A

This is accomplished by increasing left ventricular end-diastolic volumes (LVEDV) to increase stroke volume (answer D). The increased volume work leads to eccentric LVH

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4
Q

Why is sniffing position so important for getting an airway?

A

When patients are not in proper sniffing position, the glottis appears more anterior than it otherwise would.

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5
Q

Glottis level in kids vs adults:

A

Neonates have a glottis at the C4 level which “drops” to the C6 level by adolescent ages, and therefore was not the cause for this finding

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6
Q

Which of the following reasons increase the risk of aspiration in obese individuals:

A

A. Gastric volume greater than 25 ml
B. Gastric pH less than 2.5
C. Increased abdominal pressure
D. Greater incidence of concurrent gallbladder disease
E. Greater incidence of concurrent gastric cancer

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7
Q

A 45 year old woman presents to the preoperative clinic for vaginal hysterectomy. She has a BMI of 45, normal vital signs except for a sat of 89% on room air, and normal labs (chem-7, CBC, and coags), except for a creatinine of 1.3 and INR of 1.9. She takes no medications. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step:

A. Check transaminases and bilirubin
B. Renal ultrasound
C. Abdominal CT
D. Refer to haematologist
E. Refer back to surgeon for further workup
A

A: Check transaminases and bilirubin

With the available (sparse) history provided, non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is most likely. NASH, from an anesthesiologists perspective, is not significantly different than any other cause of chronic liver disease. NASH is associated with obesity, metabolic syndrome, insulin resistance, and diabetes.

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8
Q

A 50 year old man with a BMI of 40 had a uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP)18 months ago and is presenting for total knee athroplasty. Which of the following are MOST LIKELY:

A. The patient is no longer at increased risk of postoperative hypercarbic respiratory failure
B. The patient is probably cured of sleep apnea
C. It would be unlikely that an appropriate seal can be made with an LMA
D. The patient is likely difficult to mask ventilate

A

The pathophysiology of sleep apnea (as described partially in question 1) involves upper airway obstruction at multiple points in the airway not always addressed by UPPP. Common points of obstruction are nasal passages, soft palate, tonsils, uvula, posterior tongue (most common offender), and adenoids. Even after UPPP, or more modern variants of the surgery, obese patients find another way to obstruct (answer A & B). Any patient with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) should be assumed to be a more difficult intubation, and more importantly, difficult ventilation (answer D). The UPPP surgery does not preclude the ability of an LMA to form a good seal should positive pressure ventilation need to be used

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9
Q

T/F:
When the fat mass of an individual increases, both the lipid soluble Vd and the water soluble Vd increase, but obviously the Vd for lipid soluble drugs increases more. What does this even mean?

A

True
What does this all mean? In obese individuals, hydrophilic drugs and remifentanil should be dosed no more than 20% over the patient’s ideal body weight (supposedly). Lipophilic drugs, on the other hand, should be dosed at least more than 20% above ideal body weight (no clear recommendations given, but [ideal body weight + 40% of excess weight] is commonly quoted for BMI < 50).

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10
Q

For Propofol-TBW and IBW which one for induction, which one for maintenance?

A

IBW for induction

TBW for maintenance

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11
Q

Cardiac change in the elderly: SVR, systolic function:

A

In general, the elderly have decreased adrenergic receptor sensitivity (answer D) and an increased vagal tone, leading to a decreased heart rate (on average) (answer A). Increased arterial stiffness (decreased compliance) leads to increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and afterload (answer B). This leads to left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) and diastolic dysfunction, not decreased systolic function (answer C).

In other words, older people develop LVH in response to increased after load/ SVR to preserve their systolic function at the expense of diastolic function. With LVH, the ventricle decreases in lucitropy and compliance, therefore operating at a higher end diastolic pressure at a given volume (diastolic dysfunction).

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12
Q

E to A ratio morphology: what does it represent? Where is it measured?

A

Diastolic dysfunction
This is obtained via pulse wave Doppler at the mitral valve. Essentially, the majority (70-80%) of flow should come during early (E) diastole and the rest during atrial (A) contraction. When this ratio of velocities reverses (A > E) it is an indication of mild diastolic dysfunction. As the diastolic dysfunction worsens, the E/A ratios can become more difficult to interpret. Additionally in cases when the E/A ratios are “fused” the data is not interpretable. In this case, tissue Doppler is used to study the velocities of the mitral annulus, leading to an E prime, or e’. An elevated E/e’ (over 15 or so) is further evidence of diastolic dysfunction.

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13
Q

What is TAPSE?

A

TAPSE (tricuspid annular plane systolic excursion) is a good measure of right heart function

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14
Q
What happens to all of these things in the elderly? 
A. Closing capacity
B. Residual volume
C. Dead space
D. Arterial oxygen tension
E. VQ mismatch
A

The elderly lung tends to loose elastic recoil with age, leading them to become overly filled (essentially emphysematous). This process increases residual volume (the volume left in the lungs after complete expiration, answer B). The decreased elasticity also leads to increased collapse of small airways, increasing closing capacity (to well within normal tidal volumes) (answer A) and therefore increasing VQ mismatching (answer E). All of this leads to a decreased PaO2 (answer D). Dead space, ventilation without perfusion, also increases (answer C).

These are the physiologic underpinnings of the various formulas that predict paO2 at a given age (and there are plenty of them). An easy one to remember is paO2 = 110-(Age X 0.4)

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15
Q

PaO2 and age prediction formula?

A

An easy one to remember is paO2 = 110-(Age X 0.4)

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16
Q

79 year old man presents with hip fracture. Which of the following is true:

A. Post-operative cognitive dysfunction (POCD) would be more likely if general anesthesia were used (as opposed to regional)
B. Post-operative delirium (POD) is not associated with age
C. POCD is more likely to occur with major orthopaedic surgery
D. Inpatients and outpatients have the same incidence of POD

A

Post-operative delirium (POD) and post-operative cognitive dysfunction (POCD) are buzzwords you need to have a basic understanding of as they contribute to increased hospitalization, morbidity, and mortality. POD is delirium after surgery that is not related to the emergence of anesthesia. Like all delirium, it waxes and wanes, has a variety of subtypes, and impairs rehabilitation. POCD is more of a long-term sequelae from surgery and anesthesia. It is harder to diagnose and is a major topic of research and unplanned morbidity. Mortality incidence of patients with POCD is higher. The greatest risk for POCD is cardiac surgery (probably related to bypass, emboli, etc), but major orthopaedic surgery is a major risk factor as well (answer C). Interestingly, choosing regional anesthesia over general does not statistically significantly decrease the incidence of POCD (the trend is somewhat there, though) and seems to have no effect on POD whatsoever (answer A). Risk factors for POD are age (answer B), inpatients (D), as well as other predictable ones such as decreased preoperative cognitive reserve, use of opioids and benzos, alcohol, surgical complications, and organ failure

17
Q

Explain the following effects of anesthetics on the elderly and if they are true or false:
A. Epidural levels tend to be lower following epidural bolus
B. Spinal anesthetics tend to last longer
C. The MAC is decreased
D. Increased sensitivity of opioids are due to pharmacodynamics, not pharmacokinetic reasons

A

Increased sensitivity to anesthetics and possibly changes in the epidural space lead to epidural levels following single bolus being more cephalad (answer A), set up quicker, but essentially will produce the same amount of motor block and duration until recovery. Spinal anesthetics, on the other hand, will last longer in the elderly (answer B). In the elderly, MAC decreases, and the equation of a 4-6% decrease in MAC per decade over age 40 is often quoted (answer C). IV anesthetics, opioids, and benzodiazepines have a greater effect, more side effects, and have a long duration for pharmacodynamics, not pharmacokinetic reasons. In other words, changes in volume of distribution, compartments, etc do not explain why only 50-60% as much propofol is needed in the elderly compared to 40 year olds. Decreased liver metabolism and renal clearance are major pharmacokinetic reasons for this as well as others at the cellular level.

18
Q

The first things you should worry about with agitation in the PACU is ___ and ____.
Then what?

A

hypoxia and hypercarbia. Period. No exceptions, doesn’t matter what the stem wants to lead you towards. After hypoxia and hypercarbia, think pain, hypotension, anaemia, acidosis, and incomplete neuromuscular reversal/ recurarization. Following that, then entertain the more unconventional things like electrolytes, bladder distention, delirium, etc.

19
Q
True/False
Intraoperative hyperthermia (not hypothermia) can lead to a multiple sclerosis flare
A

True!

20
Q

What makes up the aldrete score?

A

The Aldrete score takes into account Activity (movement of extremities), Respirations (quality), Circulation (BP), Consciousness, and Oxygen Saturation. The patient needs a maximum score all but one category (score of 2 in each category) to meet discharge requirements.

21
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding ASA physical status:

A. ASA V status is a valid predictor of intraoperative mortality
B. On average, the duration of the operation increases in length with increases in ASA physical status
C. On average, the length of post-operative mechanical ventilation correlates with increases in ASA physical status
D. Cardiac complications are more than 100 times more common in ASA IV physical status than ASA I
E. Increased blood loss is more common among patients with higher ASA physical status scores

A

A: ASA V status is a valid predictor of intraoperative mortality

ASA physical status is actually a very simple and accurate way to categorize how ill patients are and predict outcomes. Complications including prolonged mechanical ventilation (answer C), operative duration (answer B), length of hospitalization, pulmonary and urinary infection, wound infection, blood loss (answer E), and mortality all increase with ASA physical status score. Cardiac complications have been reported to be 180 times more common in ASA IV patients as compared to ASA I. ASA V status predicts perioperative, but not intraoperative mortality – which means that we can keep just about any body alive in the OR with a dedicated physician working on them constantly – however, once they reach the ICU it’s a different story.

22
Q

Breakdown sedation stuff: minimal, moderate, deep

A

Minimal sedation: Patients respond normally to verbal commands, no airway or haemodynamic effects

Moderate sedation: Depressed consciousness, but will respond appropriately with verbal commands or light tactile stimulation. The airway does not need to be maintained and haemodynamic effects are minimal

Deep sedation: Depressed consciousness, aroused only to painful or repeated stimulation, may require airway support, and haemodynamic effects are minimal

23
Q

The majority of postoperative respiratory depression occurs within:

A

the first 24 hours.

24
Q

What can happen if you give too much fluid?

A

More liberal fluid administrations (the definition of liberal depends on what study) have been associated with increased length of stay, post-operative ileus*, increased wound infection, anastomotic leak, pneumonia, pulmonary oedema, arterial hypoxia, lower tissue oxygenation, among other factors.