Basic respiratory Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Which muscles are involved in inspiration? Which are involved in expiration?

A

diaphragm (normal inspiration)
strap muscles: all scalenes (normal inspiration) and sternocleidomastoid (deep inspiration)
external intercostals
large back muscles, some paravertebral muscles, muscles of shoulder girdle, and pectoralis muscles (maximal effort)

Expiration:
The muscles of expiration include the:

Normal expiration is passive
Internal intercostals (depending on level the names can change a bit, but just remember any intercostal that’s not the external intercostal is involved in expiration)
Abdominal muscles
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2
Q

Explain vital capacity:

A

Finally, to take the largest breath you possible can you need to take a normal tidal volume, plus your inspiratory reserve volume and then blow it all out all the way down to your residual volume (this is the vital capacity)

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3
Q

Why is lung volume never zero?

A

Because the chest wall’s outward force, the lung volume is never zero or even all the way down to residual volume (unless there’s a pneumothorax, in which case the chest can outwardly recoil and the lung inwardly recoil unopposed).

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4
Q

90% of airway resistance occurs where? And what are these airways?

A

In the conducting airways. These airways include the very large cartilaginous airways and the non-cartilaginous conducting airways including “terminal” bronchioles.

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5
Q

The bronchioles at the distal end of the conducting airways do not have _________ support and have the highest proportion of ___ muscle. This is also the area most affected by ______, and constriction of these airways can increase airway resistance profoundly. COPD can have both ______ and ______ involvement, increasing resistance at both areas.

A

The bronchioles at the distal end of the conducting airways do not have cartilaginous support and have the highest proportion of smooth muscle. This is also the area most affected by asthma, and constriction of these airways can increase airway resistance profoundly. COPD can have both bronchiole and alveolar involvement, increasing resistance at both areas.

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6
Q

In the larger airways, resistance is a result of the balance between laminar and turbulent flow. The Reynold’s number describes the balance between the two types of flow. In general, and always true with air, laminar flow will have less resistance than turbulent flow.

A

True

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7
Q

You absolutely need to know the difference between laminar and turbulent flow, and the factors that affect their contributions to resistance. So tell me about flow in the large conducting airways and where _____ is greatest.

A

In the large conducting airways, flow tends to be turbulent. Turbulence is greatest near branching points in the airway and any deformities (tumors, etc). The balance between laminar and turbulent flow is described by the Reynold’s number.

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8
Q

What determines if flow will be turbulent as it relies to density and speed of flow? What does the reynold’s number have to do with that? What does helium have to do with this?

A

you do need to know that the higher the density and faster the flow, the more likely flow will be turbulent. A Reynold’s number greater than 2,000 (or 2,300 if you want to be technical) means that the flow will be primarily turbulent.
decreasing density with low density heliox can decrease the work of breathing for people with very turbulent airflow.

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9
Q

Explain Poiseuille’s Law:

A

In asthma, there is a loss of radius in small conducting airways as described above, creating an increased pressure drop for a given flow, therefore increasing resistance. Poiseuille’s Law describes pressure changes for laminar flow (which would be expected in bronchioles) and the equation is:

Pressure drop = (8 X viscosity X length of airways X flow rate) / (π X radius^4)

Therefore according to Poiseuille’s Law: at a given flow rate, resistance will increase with decreasing radius, increasing length of airways and viscosity.

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10
Q

Describe the The Law of LaPlace

A

Laplace-describes the pressure within the alveoli, assuming that alveoli behave anything like bubbles.

Pressure = (wall tension X wall thickness X2) / radius

So, for an alveoli, less pressure is required to open an alveoli when the wall tension is lower (like adding surfactant) or the radius is larger (avoiding atelectasis). The Law of LaPlace

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11
Q

For air to flow into the lungs, what must happen?

A

For airflow into the lungs, the pressure in the alveoli must be more negative than the pressure in the atmosphere.

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12
Q

The largest breath you can take and exhale is ____. At which lung volume or capacity would pleural pressure be most negative? Why?

A
Vital capacity (starting point is TLC).
TLC. Why? Because if one was to take the largest breath they could take, you need to generate even more negative pleural pressures, to create even more negative alveolar pressures, to increase airflow.
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13
Q

What is the alveolar gas equation?

A

pAO2 = [FiO2 X (atmospheric pressure – vapor pressure of water)] – pCO2/RQ

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14
Q

What does elevation do to PAO2 and PaO2? Why?

A

Increasing the elevation will decrease the atmospheric pressure, meaning your pAO2 will be lower at a given FiO2 because that vapor pressure of water does not change. This means that the pAO2 (alveolar) will decrease and therefore also the paO2 (arterial). This should all be very much review.

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15
Q

The next step is to understand how a decreased paO2 (from a low pAO2) will cause an increased CSF pH. Carotid/aortic? 4th ventricles? Carbonic anhydrase? Respiratory quotient?

A

When paO2 drops, oxygen sensing receptors in the carotid and aortic bodies send signal back to the brainstem to increase respiration.* As ventilation increases due to hypoxia, paCO2 drops. The drop in paCO2 causes a net movement of H+ from the CSF into the plasma (just as the opposite is true when the pCO2 is high), therefore increasing the CSF pH.* The decreased H+ (increased pH) in the CSF means that the medullary chemoreceptors (in the 4th ventricle)* will result in less ventilation and partially offset the increased ventilation (driven by the peripheral oxygen sensors), but the overall effect will be increased ventilation, decreased paCO2, and increased CSF pH. Remember that the blood brain barrier is impermeable to H+ and HCO3-, but not CO2. Therefore, a net movement of CO2 from the CSF to the plasma will cause the CSF to become alkalotic.

How is CO2 formed in the CSF? It’s our old friend carbonic anhydrase, that you’ll hear more about in the renal section. The H+ and HCO3- form H2CO3 and then H2O and CO2.* The CO2 dissolves down its concentration gradient from the CSF and into the plasma and is reformed into bicarb and H+ in the red blood cell.*

The respiratory quotient should not change in this setting. The RQ is the production on CO2 (VCO2) divided by the consumption of oxygen (VO2).* In normal situations the VCO2 is 200 mL/min and the VO2 is 250 mL/min, thus the RQ would be 0.8.*

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16
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of hyperventilation:

A. Arterial hypoxia
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Intracranial hypertension
D. Normal sleep

A

The correct answer is: D: Normal sleep

As described above, arterial hypoxia causes increased ventilation through stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies. Also as described above, metabolic acidosis with production of H+ go on to cause trapping of H+ (by way of CO2) in the CSF, thus increasing medullary chemoreceptor output. Central etiologies of hyperventilation include anxiety, pain, fear, high intracranial pressures, drug effects, cirrhosis, among others. With normal sleep, one’s pCO2 increases because CO2 responsiveness decreases, but peripheral hypoxic drive remains intact. Volatile anesthetics depress CO2 responsiveness and hypoxic drive.

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17
Q

Look at photo on #9 basic resp phys: it talks about the body’s response to CO2

A

Line A demonstrates that as CO2 increases, ventilation also increases. Line B has the same responsiveness per unit change in CO2 (slope) as line A, but requires a higher CO2 level for the same ventilation. This describes most ventilation depressants, which shift the curve to the right and is true for sedative doses of opioids, as well as anesthetic doses of barbituates, benzodiazepines, and far less so ketamine. The final line, C, is even more right shifted, but also has less response to a given rise in CO2 and is severely blunted. This describes very high dose opioids and volatile anesthetics at 1 MAC.

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18
Q

What is dead space? What is shunt?

A

Dead space is ventilation without perfusion and shunt is perfusion without ventilation. True dead space would be ventilation without any perfusion at all and true shunt would be perfusion without any ventilation.

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19
Q

Ventilation and perfusion are best matched in which lung zone? where is that? Higher VQ means what? Keep in mind that lower numbered ribs are more:

A

that ventilation and perfusion are best matched in West Zone 3**-the bottom of the lung. and least matched near the apex, where there’s increased dead space. Therefore the higher the V/Q, the worse the mismatch is and the greater the dead space.
Lower numbered ribs are more cephalad

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20
Q

PA pressures higher in lower or higher parts of the lung?

A

Higher in lower parts

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21
Q

A patient’s end-tidal CO2 decrease while the paCO2 increase, which of the following is an explanation:

A. Decreased cardiac output
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. COPD
D. ARDS
E. Answers A & B
F. Answers A, B, & C
G. All of the above
A

G: All of the above

A decreasing end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) and increasing paCO2 means that there has been an increase in dead space, or said another way, there is now ventilation without perfusion. This question did not give a time period in which this occurs, but if it happened intraoperatively, likely only decreased cardiac output (CO) and pulmonary embolism (PE) could cause this. With decreased CO, there is less perfusion and more areas where alveolar pressure is greater than pulmonary precapillary pressure are present, therefore increasing dead space. In fact the absence of ETCO2 is a fairly good indictor that the patient had a cardiac arrest, and decreased ETCO2 is not all that bad for hypotension either. With a PE, perfusion is prevented, but ventilation continues unobstructed. There is a change in alveolar architecture in COPD that can lead to areas of decreased perfusion as well as dynamic hyperinflation with resultant high alveolar pressures due to the obstructive lung disease. ARDS can have profound vasoconstriction to ventilated areas of the lung (and lack of hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction to unventilated portions). ARDS develops over hours typically, whereas COPD takes years to decades.

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22
Q

After placing an otherwise healthy patient on mechanical ventilation, dead space:

A

A: Increases to approximately 50% of tidal volume

Under normal circumstances, a healthy person will have 2/3rds of their tidal volume contribute to ventilation, and 1/3rd to dead space. Dead space is categorized as either anatomic dead space or alveolar dead space. With mechanical ventilation (not accounting for the artificial airway even), alveolar dead space will increase. Why? Perfusion is more or less the same (well, read the advanced cardiopulmonary section and then see if you still agree with that statement) but alveolar pressure is now positive, meaning that the areas where alveolar pressure is greater than perfusion pressure has increased.

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23
Q

A patient has a paCO2 of 30 mm Hg and an ĒTCO2 of 20 mm Hg, what is the percent dead space:

A

That was a pretty simple question, I admit, but I wanted to showcase the dead space equation and not wrap it up in an unrelated explanation. The equation is:

% Dead Space = (PaCO2 – ĒTCO2)/(PaCO2)

The ETCO2 that you get on your anesthesia machine is not the same thing that you’re using for this equation. For this, ĒTCO2 really means the pCO2 from all expired gasses, not the end-tidal (that’s what the little line above the E means). That being said, if you use the ETCO2 from your anesthesia machine you’ll get a rough estimate.

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24
Q

Name 4 sources of shunt:

Which one explains why there will always be an A-a gradient?

A

The first are venous system that bypass the right heart and empty directly into the left atrium such as the Thebesian, bronchiolar, and pleural veins. These contribute less than 5% of cardiac output and are one reason that there will always be an alveolar-arterial oxygen tension gradient (A-a gradient).

The second source is intracardiac lesions, such as a patent foramen ovale or ventricular septal defect (and patent ductus arteriosus in neonates).

The third cause is intrapulmonary shunts, and certain disease states such as end stage liver disease will increase the incidence of this (a-v malformations).

The final source is the most complex, and that is diseases affecting the alveoli. Disease states include pulmonary oedema

25
Q

When we talk about shunt and the reasons behind it being things that affect the alveoli, you can call it VQ mismatch, or you can call it: ________. Explain.

A

Venous admixture.
Remember shunt is perfusion without ventilation, and in these disease states there can be some level of ventilation at the individual alveoli that is incomplete.
What this means is that for an incomplete shunt, one can think of describing the shunt in regards to how much (desaturated) venous blood would need to be added to explain the shunt (A-a gradient).

26
Q

Which of the following will result in the difference between the calculated A-a gradient utilizing the alveolar gas equation and the actual post alveolar capillary (Cc’O2) to arterial PaO2 gradient to increase:

When you use the alveolar has equation, it assumes what?

A

The A-a gradient is the difference between the calculated oxygen tension in the alveoli and the arterial blood. The Cc’O2 is the difference between the blood that immediately leaves the (ventilated) alveoli and the arterial blood. The theoretical Cc’O2 should be the same as the pAO2 (alveolar O2 tension). The difference between the pAO2 or Cc’O2 and arterial O2 tension is due to shunt

Therefore when you use the alveolar gas equation to calculate how saturated the blood leaving the lungs are, it assumes that all of the blood is maximally saturated. BUT, there is theoretically always shunt. But, in the setting of a very low mixed venous saturation, even perfectly functioning lungs can (theoretically) have post alveolar capillary blood that has an oxygen tension well below that which was calculated. Since these values will be lower, the actual Cc’O2-a gradient (difference) will be smaller than what was calculated (A-a gradient). How does this matter? In practice you’ll probably not worry about it and increase the FiO2 or recruit more alveoli by increasing PEEP.

27
Q

A patient has an arterial haemoglobin saturation of 90% and a mixed venous saturation of 60%. Approximately, what is the shunt fraction: and shunt in a healthy person is usually:

A

VQI = (1-SaO2)/(1-SmvO2)

Using the values from the stem: (1-0.9)/(1-0.6) = 0.1/0.4 = 25%. Shunt in a healthy individual is typically less than 5%. For example a normal person has a 99% arterial saturation and a 75% venous saturation, therefore: (1-0.99)/(1-0.75) = 0.01/.25 = 4%.

28
Q

Above which shunt fraction would supplemental oxygen not expect to increase the PaO2 by more than 10 mm Hg:

A

Its important to have a general idea at which degree of shunt will supplemental O2 not have an effect on increasing the arterial pO2. Different people will have different answers on this, but what is established is that above 30% shunt you’ll get very little increase in pO2 with increased FiO2, and at 40% shunt raising the FiO2 from 21% to 100% will have almost no effect on arterial pO2.

29
Q

Why does decreasing ERV increase venous admixture aka shunt?

A

Think of it this way, with reduced lung volumes at end expiration it means that it will hold less oxygen for blood flow to pick up…and that means the ratio of ventilation to perfusion will decrease (perfusion stays the same, ventilated alveoli decrease) and therefore shunt will worsen (increase).

30
Q

For normal ppl, a person’s FVC is:

A

For normal individuals, a person’s FVC should be within 20% of predicted, so this patient could be normal

31
Q

People with mild obstructive lung disease generally have a _____ FVC, but with severe the FVC can ______ significantly, although less so than ______.

A

People with mild obstructive lung disease generally have a preserved FVC, but with severe disease the FVC can decrease significantly, although less so than restrictive lung disease.

32
Q

Restrictive lung disease and FVC

A

Restrictive lung disease is associated with significantly decreased total lung capacities and FVC’s. Even mild restrictive lung disease should have an FVC less than 80%,

33
Q

Tell me about obstructive disease. What is its hallmark? What’s the FEV1 like? The FEV1/FVC ratio? What’s a normal FEV1/FVC ratio?

A

With severe obstructive disease notice two things. First the FVC is moderately reduced. Second, and far more importantly, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, meaning that they have a descent sized breath, but it takes a very long time to completely exhale and after 1 second (FEV1) a very small proportion of the FVC is exhaled. Therefore, the FEV1/FVC ratio will be reduced. The FEV1/FVC ratio is an important tool for grading COPD, the smaller the ratio, the worse the disease. A normal FEV1/FVC is about 80%. Severe COPD is associated with FEV1/FVC ratios below 50%.

34
Q

Now, for restrictive-tell me about the FEV1 FVC, and their ratio-is it preserved?

A

Graph C has a severely reduced FVC and FEV1, but the FEV1/FVC ratio is preserved. Think of it this way, with restrictive lung disease, the problem is more to do with inspiration (too small of breaths) and not expiration.

35
Q

How are flow volume loops made?

A

Flow volume loops are generated by plotting gas flow during forced exhalation, followed by forced inhalation (vital capacity).

36
Q

How does obstructive disease look on flow volume loops?

A

Obstructive disease has a scooped triangle for exhalation owing to the fact that there is an obstructive lesion during exhalation, whereas inhalation appears relatively normal.

37
Q

How does restrictive disease look on flow volume loops?

A

Restrictive lung disease maintains a general triangle shape during exhalation (remember restrictive disease has a relatively normal exhalatory pattern) but has very reduced flow during inspiration

38
Q

In case it ever comes up on an exam, a normal tidal volume will look like a circle, not a triangle with a rounded bottom like the vital capacity breath does.

A

In case it ever comes up on an exam, a normal tidal volume will look like a circle, not a triangle with a rounded bottom like the vital capacity breath does.

39
Q

What is the DLCO? Why is it a good test? What causes a reduced DLCO?

A

The DLCO is a measurement of how well gas exchanges between the alveolus and capillary blood

Because CO is has such a high affinity for Hb (200X more than O2) it’s a convenient test. Any disease process that affects the alveolus will decrease the DLCO. Examples include disease states with junk that accumulates inside the alveolus such as pulmonary oedema as well as diseases that affect the alveolus itself such as sarcoidosis, asbestosis, etc. In fact, most restrictive lung diseases (certainly all that are intrinsic to the lung) will have a reduced DLCO. What you may not have known is that COPD can decrease DLCO as well, and when it is as severe as in the above flow-volume loop, it certainly will. Recall that COPD will destroy the alveolar-capillary interface, change alveolar geometry, and have associated loss of capillary beds and V/Q mismatching. All of this will decrease DLCO.

40
Q

What other factors decrease DLCO? What about asthma?

A

A couple other technical factors that will decrease DLCO test, although not actually be due to lung disease is anaemia and elevated pCO2. Asthma, on the other hand, is associated with a normal or elevated DLCO.

41
Q

Explain what the FEF 25-75% is, how does it indicate obstructive dz?

A

The forced expiratory flow (FEF) is typically broken up into quarters: FEF25%, FEF50%, & FEF75%, which means the exhaled volume at 25% of FVC, 50% of FVC, and 75% of FVC, respectively.

Between the 25% and 75% marks on the FVC curve is called the effort independent flow because it will theoretically not change whether or not the patient is blowing at maximal effort. FVC and FEV1 will change significantly depending on effort. Unfortunately, the FEF FEF25%-75% is fairly variable when a patient blows for spirometery (the standard is at least three forced exhalations). The FEF25%-75% is an early indication of obstructive disease and is often significantly reduced prior to the FEV1/FVC ratio decreasing. However, because of its intra-individual variability and lack of significant evidence of being all that valuable clinically, it’s often noted but ultimately ignored. Therefore, it is a board’s favorite! So what is FEF25%-75% actually telling us anyway? A decreased value is indicative of medium (some say small) airway disease. File this under a sensitive, but not specific test.

42
Q

What are patient and surgical factors that serve as good predictors of perioperative pulmonary complications?

A

Patient factors which increase the incidence of perioperative pulmonary complications are COPD, asthma, productive cough, smoking (especially >40 pack years), maybe obesity, exercise intolerance of less than one flight of stairs, and age > 65 years. Surgical factors include upper abdominal surgery, thoracic surgery, and length of surgery.

Despite so much emphasis of PFTs on the boards, there is little evidence any of it makes a big difference or predicts perioperative pulmonary complications.

43
Q

The patients you’ll have a hard time extubating with COPD are:

A

The worst of the worst of COPD’ers are the CO2 retainers, and these are people you will have a hard time keeping extubated after surgery. CO2 retention classically has compensated elevated bicarb (CO2 on the chem 7), and choice C describes such a patient.

44
Q

Following an abdominal operation, at what time would the FRC be expected to be the lowest:

A

FRC is affected by position, anesthesia, and operations. Following an operation FRC is classically the lowest 12 hours following an operation. This is due to splinting, atelectasis, residual affects of anesthesia (including analgesics for post-op pain control), and post-operative positioning.

45
Q

FRC and positioning:
Upright to supine
Upright to prone
Supine to prone

A

Here’s the deal with FRC and positioning: FRC will decrease in a healthy adult by 15% just by changing from an upright to supine position (from a loss of ERV…but you already knew that…right?). Changing from an upright to prone position will also drop the FRC quite a bit, but less so. Changing from supine to prone position has pretty mild effects, unless you’re paralyzed, mechanically ventilated, and obese, in which case it improves FRC significantly.

46
Q

What does GA do to FRC?

A

General anesthesia will decrease FRC by about 10-20%* (above that caused by position differences) and the greatest decrease is 10 minutes after induction.

47
Q

What can you do to increase FRC?

A

What can you do to increase FRC. Hmmm, lets see…you can raise the head of the bed, you can get them out of bed early, and you can give them PEEP (or CPAP post-operatively).

48
Q

Ciliary function after quitting smoking takes ______ to return to normal.

A

Following cessation of smoking it takes about 2-4 weeks for ciliary function to return to normal

49
Q

Sputum and quitting.?carboxyhemoglobin and quitting

A

Immediately following cessation of smoking, sputum production actually increases, if the patient stops smoking just before surgery, they will still have impaired ciliary function and even more increased sputum production. Even a day of not smoking will significantly decrease levels of carboxyhaemoglobin back to normal values, which will increase oxygen carrying capacity (DO2)

50
Q

EKG findings in patients with COPD

A

COPD puts strain on the right heart and can lead to right heart failure. Classic findings on the ECG are signs of right heart strain, such as poor R-wave progression, enlarged P-waves (P pulmonale), R waves greater than S waves in V1, RBBB, and right axis deviation. Also present, on exams, are low voltage ECGs because of dynamic lung hyperinflation. Likewise, classic for exams is increased incidence of multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT), which will present with at least three different distinct wandering P waves and an irregular rhythm.

51
Q

Lung volumes Following upper abdominal surgery:

What’s the main takeaway?
ERV?
RV?
TV?

A

Residual volume (RV) increases by 10%

Abdominal surgery is very injurious to the respiratory system, and if you’re asked about this, good chance you’ll be asked in relation to lung volumes. The main take away clinically is that abdominal surgery decreases FRC, which decreases lung compliance and increases shunting and hypoxia.

The decrease in FRC is due to a 25% loss in ERV. Interestingly, following abdominal surgery RV increases by a little over 10%. TV decreases moderately (~20%) as does total lung volume, following surgery. These effects are usually worst 12 to 24 hours after surgery* and are back to baseline in 2 weeks.

52
Q

Sternal angle is a good reference point for the level of the:

A

Carina

53
Q

What is plateau pressure? How is it measured, what’s its relationship to static compliance?

A

Plateau pressure is measured with an inspiratory hold so that there is time for airflow from the ventilator to the alveoli to equilibrate (in other words the net movement from the higher pressure ETT to the lower pressure alveoli equilibrate and all airflow stops). This means the pressure you are measuring is the equivalent pressure that the alveoli are experiencing. Furthermore, this is the pressure that is needed to keep the lungs inflated at the given volume. This is what is called static compliance. It is measured by the following simple equation:

Static compliance = Volume/ Pressure = Tidal volume delivered/ (Plateau pressure – PEEP).

So plateau relates to static.

54
Q

What is dynamic compliance?

A

Dynamic compliance is the compliance of the respiratory system during inspiration. This means that the pressure is taking into account not only the static compliance (the pressure needed to keep the lungs inflated, but also the pressure needed to overcome the intrinsic airway resistance to deliver the air to the alveoli).

Its equation is also simple:

Dynamic compliance = Volume/ Pressure = Tidal volume delivered/ (Peak pressure – PEEP).

55
Q

What’s the difference between peak and plateau pressure-meaning-what does it represent?
Peak pressure aka: ____ and plateau pressure: _____

A

The difference between the peak and plateau represents the “resistance flow.” This means that it is the pressure needed to overcome the resistance to flow within the airways (remember from question 3 that most of this occurs in the conducting airways). Other terms you will come across is calling the peak pressure the airway pressure and the plateau pressure the alveolar pressure.

56
Q

Which of the following will most likely increase peak pressure without an increase in plateau pressure:

A. Kinked ETT
B. ARDS
C. Pleural effusion
D. Trendelenburg position

Plateau pressure increases-what about the relationship to peak pressure?

A

With a kinked ETT there will be increased resistance to deliver the air to the alveoli (peak pressure high) but the actual alveoli themselves will not be affected (plateau normal). With ARDS, or any type of pulmonary oedema, the alveoli are filled with fluid (as well as a surfactant deficiency, etc, etc, etc) and it takes much more pressure to open those alveoli, therefore plateau pressure will increase.

Now, when plateau pressure increases, peak pressure will also increase, but the difference between peak and plateau will remain about the same

57
Q

Simple terms: peak and plateau pressure:

A

Lets remember that plateau pressure basically means the pressure in the alveoli and the peak pressure means the pressure in the airways.

58
Q

Plateau pressure above 30 is:

A

Above a plateau pressure of 30 cm H20, the risk of barotrauma increases greatly, therefore we want to keep the plateau pressures less than that, even if we significantly limit tidal volumes

59
Q

Obese ppl-what are their plateau pressures? How are they not in a constant state of barotrauma? Substitute for pleural pressure?

A

In obese people, because of large abdomens and noncompliant chests, their static compliance of the respiratory system is very low, meaning that a plateau pressure above 30 cm H20 is very likely…BUT, this doesn’t mean they are at risk for barotrauma. Why? Barotrauma really occurs when the transpulmonary pressure (remember it is alveolar pressure minus pleural pressure) is high.
Sub: esophageal