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Special Health Care Skills Flashcards

1
Q

What is odontology?

A

study of the anatomy, diseases, and growth of the teeth

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2
Q

What are dentitions?

A

sets of teeth (a primary / deciduous and permanent/succedaneous)

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3
Q

What are teeth buds? How do little teeth form?

A

44 teeth buds at birth, these buds erupt into teeth

when a child is 2-3 years old, all 20 primary teeth erupt, these erupt to form permanent teeth

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4
Q

What are the four main sections of the tooth?

A

crown, root, cervix, apex

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5
Q

Is the crown visible in the mouth? What is protecting it?

A

CROWN: tooth visible in the mouth, protected by enamel

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6
Q

Where is the root located? Is it visible? What does it do?

A

ROOT: tooth below gingiva (gums), not visible, anchors the teeth in the jaw

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7
Q

What is the cervix?

A

neck, area where enamel (crown) meets cementum (root)

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8
Q

What is the apex?

A

tip of the root of the teeth, contains an opening called the apical foramen (nerves and blood vessels enter through tooth)

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9
Q

What four tissues are each tooth made out of?

A

enamel, cementum, dentin, pulp

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10
Q

What is enamel?

A

the hardest tissue in the body, covers the outside of the crown, calcium & phosphorus

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11
Q

What is cementum?

A

hard, bonelike tissue that covers the outside of the root

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12
Q

What is dentin?

A

makes up the main bulk of the tooth, under cementum and enamel, living tissue

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13
Q

What is pulp?

A

soft tissue inside, made up of blood vessels and nerves

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14
Q

What is periodontium?

A

structures that support and structure the teeth

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15
Q

What is the alveolar process?

A

bone tissue of the maxilla and mandible, contains sockets for each tooth

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16
Q

What is the periodontal ligament?

A

suspends the teeth in the sockets

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17
Q

What is the gingiva?

A

made of epithelial covered with mucus, cover the alveolar process

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18
Q

What are the four main types of teeth?

A

incisors, cuspids (canines to tear food), bicuspids (premolars), molars (largest and strongest teeth))

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19
Q

How many maxillary (upper) and mandibular (down) primary/deciduous teeth are there?

A

10 of both

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20
Q

Are there bicuspids in premolars?

A

NO.

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21
Q

What is the Universal/National Numbering System?

A

abbreviated form for identifying the teeth

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22
Q

How does the UNS work for primary teeth?

A

teeth identified by A to T (maxillary is A - J and mandibular is T - K)

AB________ IJ
TS _________ LK

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23
Q

How does the UNS work for secondary teeth?

A

1________16
32_________17

1-8: maxillary right
9-16: maxillary left
17-24: mandibular left
25-32: mandibular right

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24
Q

How does the Federation Dentaire International System work for secondary teeth?

A

maxillary right: 1
maxillary left: 2
mandibular left: 3
maxillary right: 4

(molars start at 8, incisors at 1 for every quadrant)

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25
Q

How does the Federation Dentaire International System work for primary teeth?

A

maxillary right: 5
maxillary left: 6
mandibular left: 7
maxillary right: 8

(molars start at 5, incisors at 1 for every quadrant)

5 4 3 2 1 – 1 2 3 4 5
5 4 3 2 1 – 1 2 3 4 5

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26
Q

What are the five sections/surfaces of the crown of the ANTERIOR TEETH (incisors and cuspids, front)

A

labial: near LIPS
lingual: language, near tongue
incisal: cutting edge of teeth
mesial: closest to the midline (which divides the jaw into right and left)
distal: far from the midline

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27
Q

What are the five sections/surfaces of the crown of the POSTERIOR TEETH (bicuspids and molars, back)

A

buccal: near cheek
lingual: language, near tongue
occlusal: grinding edge of teeth
mesial: closest to the midline (which divides the jaw into right and left)
distal: far from the midline

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28
Q

What are line angles?

A

where two crown surfaces meet

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29
Q

What are point angles?

A

where three crown surfaces meet

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30
Q

How many point and line angles does an anterior tooth have? What about a posterior tooth?

A

BOTH HAVE eight lines, 4 points

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31
Q

What does / signify?

A

tooth needs extraction

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31
Q

What does / signify?

A

tooth needs extraction

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32
Q

What does // signify?

A

tooth has already been extracted

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33
Q

What does a circled crown signify?

A

impacted tooth, tooth that isn’t its proper position

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34
Q

What does I signify?

A

tooth with root canal treatment

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35
Q

What does a saw line (/\/) signify?

A

fractured tooth

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36
Q

What does I signify?

A

tooth with completed root canal treatment

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37
Q

What is a circled crown with = in it signify?

A

gold crow

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38
Q

What does red on a dental chart signify? What about blue?

A

Red: carious lesions (decay) or treatment needed
Blue: treatment completed

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39
Q

What are two numbering systems?

A

Universal/National Numbering System (UN), Federation Dentaire International System (FDI)

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40
Q

What is four-handed dentistry?

A

dentist and dental assistant working together as a team while seated on either side of a patient

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41
Q

How much time should disinfectant solution at the dentist be left in place?

A

10 minutes

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42
Q

How close are dental lights positioned from the oral cavity?

A

30-50 inches

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43
Q

What is the air compressor? How many pounds of pressure?

A

provides air pressure to operate the handpieces and air syringes on the dental units (usually 100 pounds of pressure)

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44
Q

What is the oral-evacuation system? What does it use?

A

removes particles, debris and liquids from the oral cavity with water for suction purposes

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45
Q

What is the tri-flow/air water syringe?

A

three-way syringe, provides air and water

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46
Q

What is a saliva ejector?

A

constant, low-volume suction to remove saliva

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47
Q

What are rheostats?

A

foot controls used to operate handpieces and control speed (in dental CARTS)

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48
Q

What is the low-speed handpiece?

A

used for cavity removal and fine-finishing work, lower speed = MAXIMUM CONTROL

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49
Q

What is the contra angle?

A

cutting and polishing, burs are inserted (rotary instruments to cut)

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50
Q

What is the prophylaxis angle?

A

holds polishing cups, disks used to clean and polish

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51
Q

What is the silver thing placed in cavities?

A

Amalgam

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52
Q

How should items be placed on a dental tray?

A

in order of use, neatly

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53
Q

What are the main parts of a dental hand instrument?

A

blade/nib/point, shank (middle), shaft (handle, usually hexagonal)

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54
Q

What is a mouth mirror?

A

view areas of oral cavity, reflect light on dark surfaces

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55
Q

What is an explorer?

A

used to examine the teeth, detect cavities

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56
Q

What are cotton pliers?

A

used to carry cotton, rolls

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57
Q

What are scalers?

A

used to remove calculus (tartar) and debris from teeth

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58
Q

What is the periodontal probes?

A

used to measure the depth of the gingival sulcus, the expo has a periodontal probe at one end and an explorer at the end

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59
Q

What is an excavator?

A

used to remove caries (cavities), for cavity preparation

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60
Q

What is an excavator?

A

used to remove caries (cavities), for cavity preparation

1) spoon - for soft decay removal
2) hoe - remove caries, mostly on anterior teeth
3) hatchet - refine internal line angles

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61
Q

What are chisels for?

A

to cut enamel

1) enamel hatchet - big and heavy
2) gingival margin trimmer - curved, special

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62
Q

What is the cleoid-discoid carver?

A

double-ended, carver for amalgam (silver cavity filler)

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63
Q

What is a plastic-filling instrument?

A

shape and condense restorative material

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64
Q

What are 4 amalgam instruments?

A

amalgam carrier: carry
amalgam carver: carve
condenser-plugger: pack amalgam into area
matrix retainer and matrix band: form a wall around cavity so amalgam is in place

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65
Q

What are burnishers?

A

adapt the margins of gold restorations to a better fit

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66
Q

What are surgical forceps?

A

extracting forceps, used for extracting teeth (1 for each type of tooth)

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67
Q

What are periosteal elevators?

A

used for lifting the mucous membrane and tissue covering the bone

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68
Q

What is the root (extraction) elevator?

A

used to loosen the tooth out of its socket before being removed with forceps

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69
Q

What is the root-tip pick?

A

used to remove small tips from a socket such a root tip or piece of bone

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70
Q

What is a rongeur forceps?

A

trim or cut bone tissue

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71
Q

What is a lancet?

A

incise tissue, similar to a blade

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72
Q

What are four tray setup examples?

A

1) prophylactic or general examination tray - used for basic examination and cleaning of the teeth
2) amalgam restoration - for amalgam restoration procedure
3) composite or esthetic restoration tray - placement of a composite restoration
4) surgical extraction tray - for removal of teeth

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73
Q

Where should the patient’s head rest on the dental chair?

A

upper, narrow headrest

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74
Q

What position should the chair be locked in before the patient gets in or leaves?

A

upright position

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75
Q

What are the purposes of proper brushing/flossing?

A

prevention of carious lesions (caries), removal of plaque, prevention of halitosis (bad breath)

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76
Q

What five surfaces on the tooth must be brushed?

A

chewing/biting, facial, lingual, side (2 sides)

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77
Q

Toothpastes with tartar control…

A

help prevent the hard deposits that accumulate on teeth

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78
Q

What is Alginate?

A

irreversible hydrocolloid impression material, simple to use, used for teeth and tissue impression

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79
Q

What is Polysulfide?

A

rubber-base, elastomeric impression material, really good for fine impressions/detail (SULFUR ODOR/TASTE BAD)

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80
Q

What are advantages of silicone? What are two disadvantage?

A

highly accurate impressions, shape and size retained, pleasant taste and odor free

LATEX GLOVES MAY INHIBIT SETTING, SO VINYL GLOVES MUST BE USED, expensive

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81
Q

What are the two gypsum materials used to form models?

A

plaster and stone

(plaster is weaker, less expensive and stone is opposite)

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82
Q

What is an extruder?

A

a mixing device for silicone (automix gun)

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83
Q

What are custom trays?

A

impression trays to fit a patient’s particular mouth

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84
Q

What is the most popular material for a custom tray?

A

acrylic resin

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85
Q

How long should resins set before being used for impression?

A

24 hours

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86
Q

What does anesthesia mean?

A

absence of feeling

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87
Q

What is analgesia?

A

sedation - loss of pain but not loss of consciousness (nitrous oxide and oxygen gases)

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88
Q

What is local anesthesia?

A

loss of sensation in the area (local) with numbing, most frequent in dental offices

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89
Q

What is topical anesthesia?

A

frequently used to reduce the pain or discomfort caused by injection from the local anesthesia

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90
Q

What are the two main kinds of injections used to produce local anesthesia?

A

block (injected near a main nerve trunk) and infiltration/field (terminal nerve branches of the teeth)

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91
Q

What are anesthetic carpules (cartridges)?

A

glass cylinders with premeasured amounts of anesthetic solutions

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92
Q

What 6 steps should be undertaken when using carpules? Should carpules be autoclaved?

A

check the glass (no cracks), check expiration date, check solution (should be CLEAR), check the rubber plunger (should be level or slightly below cartridge top), check bubbles (small bubbles 1-2 mm normal), check aluminum cap, do NOT AUTOCLAVE CARPULES

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93
Q

What are aspirating syringes?

A

commonly used to inject local anesthetic

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94
Q

What are 7 parts of the aspirating syringe?

A

needle adaptor, barrel, guide bearing, spring, piston, finger grip, thumb ring

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95
Q

When should a syringe be dismantled?

A

5 tries

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96
Q

What are cements and bases used for?

A

to line teeth

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97
Q

What are liners?

A

materials used to cover, line or seal exposed tooth tissue

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98
Q

What is a base?

A

protective material placed over the pulpal area of a tooth

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99
Q

What is a cement?

A

material used to permanently seal inlays, crowns and bridges

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100
Q

What is a temporary?

A

material used for a restorative material for a short time

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101
Q

What is varnish used for?

A

liner to protect exposed surfaces of dentin from thermal shock

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102
Q

What is calcium hydroxide?

A

base in larger restorations and for pulp capping

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103
Q

What is zinc phosphate?

A

thermally protective base under metallic fillings and a cement for gold restorations

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104
Q

In light curing, how long is the light source held close to the population?

A

20 seconds for each 1-millimeter layer

105
Q

What are the two most commonly used restorative material?

A

amalgam and composite

106
Q

What teeth is amalgam used on?

A

posterior teeth

107
Q

What four metals does amalgam alloy contain?

A

silver, tin, copper, zinc

108
Q

What is amalgamation?

A

process that occurs when amalgam alloy is mixed with mercury

109
Q

What is trituration?

A

mixing process used to combine mercury with the amalgama alloy

110
Q

What is composite?

A

restorative material frequently for anterior teeth (but also posterior)

111
Q

What are radiographs?

A

negatives taken of teeth, images either RADIOLUCENT (dark - pulps and caries), RADIOPAQUE (light - enamel and dentin, most tooth structures)

112
Q

What are the types of radiographs?

A

bite-wings (crowns of maxillary and mandibular teeth), periapical films (tooth and surrounding area), pedodontic (child) films (small), occlusal films (used to view the chewing planes of the maxilla)

113
Q

How many roots do maxillary molars have? How many roots do mandibular molars have?

A

3, 2

114
Q

What is an epifluorescence microscope used for?

A

detecting antibodies and specific organisms using a fluorescent dye stain

115
Q

What are the parts of a microscope?

A

base (solid stand), arm (long, back stem of the microscope), eyepiece (part through where the eye views the object)

116
Q

What are the parts of a microscope?

A

base (solid stand), arm (long, back stem of the microscope), eyepiece (part through where the eye views the object), objectives (magnifies the object)

117
Q

What are the 6 parts of a microscope?

A

base (solid stand), arm (long, back stem of the microscope), eyepiece (part through where the eye views the object), objectives (magnifies the object), revolving nosepiece (objectives attached), stage (flat platform for slide)

118
Q

When is a culture specimen obtained?

A

when the doctor wants to determine the causative agent of a disease

119
Q

What is a direct smear?

A

specimen placed immediately on slide

120
Q

What is another name for an agar plate?

A

culture plate/petri dish

121
Q

How does Gram staining work?

A

crystal violet stain applied, then iodine, if gram-positive = purple retained, if gram-negative = gentian red retained

122
Q

How long does it take to grow and isolate an organism on a culture plate?

A

3-5 days

123
Q

When is a venipuncture used?

A

for larger quantities of blood (as opposed to small amounts of blood = skin puncture)

124
Q

Why is arterial blood taken?

A

amount of blood gases, acid-base balance

125
Q

Before taking blood, skin should be cleaned with….

A

aseptic 70-percent isopropyl alcohol, lancet used to puncture must be sterile

126
Q

What are common capillary puncture sites?

A

fingers (not thumbs, pinkies, index fingers), heels, ear lobes

127
Q

Why is the first drop of blood obtained always removed?

A

it is contaminated with alcohol, perspiration, excess tissue fluid, etc

128
Q

How deep should a skin puncture be to reach capillary beds?

A

2-4 mm

129
Q

What is a hematocrit test?

A

blood test to measure volume of packed red blood cells in the blood

130
Q

What is a popular method for a hematocrit test?

A

microhematocrit (special centrifuge)

131
Q

The centrifuge force separates blood into…. three things. What is a buffy coat?

A

red blood cells, buffy coat (thin layer of white blood cells & platelets), plasma

— 0.1 MM THICKNESS OF THE BUFFY COAT = 1000 WBC

132
Q

What are the two ways to seal hematocrit tubes?

A

seal with special plastic sealing clay OR self-sealing (when blood touches plug, seals immediately)

133
Q

What are Hct ranges for women and men?

A

36-46, 40-55

(36% of total volume of blood = RBC)

134
Q

What is hemolysis?

A

destruction of RBCs

135
Q

What is hemoglobin test?

A

determine oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

136
Q

What must happen before hemoglobin concentration (test) can be performed?

A

blood must be hemolyzed (RBC destroyed), turning clear/transparent

137
Q

What are some average Hgb test values?

A

males 13-18 grams of hemoglobin per 100 mL, females 12-16 grams, newborns 16-23

138
Q

What is a blood smear?

A

small drop of blood on a slide, used for lots of blood tests

139
Q

What is a differential count?

A

count of WBC, five different types of WBC kept in record

ex. 33 lymphocytes = 33% lymphocytes

140
Q

What are two stains to allow blood cells to be viewed under a slide?

A

Wright’s stain
Quick stain (three-step method, fast, less than 1 minute)

141
Q

What is an antigen?

A

a substance that causes the body to produce a protein (antibody) that reacts AGAINST the antigen

142
Q

What are the two antigens in the ABO system?

A

antigen A, antigen B

143
Q

What are the two antigens in the ABO system?

A

antigen A, antigen B (on RBCs and other things)

144
Q

What is an Rh type?

A

stands for Rheseus monkey, only one factor (D antigen) is involved, if present = positive

145
Q

What is a typing and crossmatch test?

A

something performed before you can receive a transfusion, which receives ABO and Rh factors

146
Q

What can be caused by a Rh incompatibility by mother and fetus?

A

hemolytic disease of the newborn

147
Q

What is the erythrocyte sedimentation rate?

A

measures the distance that RBCs fall and settle in a special glass tube

148
Q

What is the erythrocyte sedimentation rate?

A

measures the distance that RBCs fall and settle in a special glass tube, venous blood used

149
Q

What are the two main methods used to perform ESR?

A

Wintrobe, Westergren

150
Q

A faster-than-normal ESR indicates…..

A

inflammation or cell destruction - cancers, rheumatoid arthritis, acute viral hepatitis

151
Q

How is the fasting blood sugar test performed?

A

patient fasts for 8-12 hours before the test

152
Q

How is the glucose tolerance test?

A

evaluates how well a person metabolizes a calculated amount of glucose

153
Q

What is the glycohemoglobin test (A1C)?

A

measures the amount of glucose that attaches to hemoglobin on RBCs

154
Q

What is a urinalysis?

A

examination of urine using physical, chemical, and microscope tests

155
Q

What is pyuria?

A

pus in the urine

156
Q

What 10 characteristics can urinalysis detect?

A

volume, color, transparency, odor, pH, specific gravity, glucose, albumin, blood, ketones

157
Q

What are reagent strips?

A

used for blood and urine tests, dipstick tests, firm plastic strips that react

158
Q

What is hematuria?

A

blood in the urine

159
Q

What is the normal specific gravity range?

A

1.005-1.030

160
Q

How do you measure the specific gravity of urine?

A

With a urinometer or refractometer

161
Q

What is the normal specific gravity range?

A

1.005-1.030
LOW = excessive fluid intake, kidney disease, diabetes insipidus
HIGH = kidney disease, diabetes mellitus, dehydration

162
Q

What is urinary sediment?

A

materials suspended in urine, urine specimen should be early morning

163
Q

What indicates hydroencephaly?

A

a head circumference that indicates above 95th percentile

164
Q

What are the 9 most common examination positions?

A

horizontal recumbent (supine), prone (for back), sims’ left lateral (rectal), knee-chest (rectal), fowler’s (breathing, drainage), lithotomy (vaginal), dorsal recumbent (similar to the lithotomy), trendelenburg (circulation for brain), jackknife (proctologic, rectal)

165
Q

What is a tonometer?

A

instrument to measure glaucoma

166
Q

What is hyperopia?

A

farsightedness, defect in close vision

167
Q

What charts are used for eye testing?

A

Snellen chartts

168
Q

How is color blindness tested?

A

Ishihara method (books with dots in a circle)

169
Q

What is a pap test used for?

A

to detect cancer of the cervix

170
Q

What are the 4 techniques done during lay-done examinations?

A

observation (inspection), palpation (feeling the body parts), percussion (tapping for sounds), auscultation (sounds in the body, heart beat)

171
Q

What is a cervical spatula?

A

wooden blade used to scrape cells from the cervix, Pap test

172
Q

What is a sigmoidoscope?

A

a lighted instrument used to examine the sigmoid colon

173
Q

What are bandage scissors used for?

A

used to remove dressings and bandages

174
Q

Where does the electrical impulse in an electrocardiogram originate?

A

sinoatrial node / pacemaker

175
Q

How are the designs in an electrocardiogram made?

A

a PQRST complex

176
Q

How many leads, or spots is the ECG attached to?

A

12

177
Q

What is the difference between an ointment and a cream and a paste?

A

ointment: medication in a fatty base
paste: ointment with an adhesive base
cream: water-soluble base

178
Q

Where is a sublingual injection given?

A

given under the tongue

179
Q

What are the six main points to watch every time a medication is given?

A

right medication, dose, patient, time, method, documentation

180
Q

What is alignment? What are the benefits?

A

proper body posture

prevents fatigue, pressure ulcers (also called decubitus ulcers), contractures (tightening or shorting of muscle caused by lack of usgae)

181
Q

What are the four stages of a pressure ulcer?

A

Stage I: red/gray/blue discoloration
Stage II: abrasions, bruises, open sores
Stage III: deep open crater
Stage IV: damage extends into muscles, bone

182
Q

How are stage I and stage II pressure ulcers treated?

A

special form or hydrocolloid dressings

183
Q

In addition to dressings, how are stage III and stage IV ulcers treated?

A

negative-pressure wound therapy

184
Q

What is orthostatic hypotension?

A

drop in blood pressure due to position changes

185
Q

How to prevent patient from developing wounds and ulcers from lack of movement?

A

turning them frequently at least every two hours(6 am: lie on right side, 8 am: back side, etc), dangling (sitting on edge of bed with legs hanging)

when moving a patient to dangling position, check RADIAL PULSE

186
Q

How must a bed be made properly?

A

no wrinkles (can lead to pressure ulcers), miltered corners (folding technique to hold linen in place)

187
Q

What are the four types of beds that one may have to make?

A

closed bed - made after discharge of patient
open bed - closed bed converted to open by fan-folding to welcome patients
occupied bed - bed made while the patient is in the bed
bed cradle - made to prevent parts of the linen from touching the patient

188
Q

What is another term for a draw sheet?

A

lift sheet/transfer sheet

189
Q

What are the four types of baths?

A

complete bed bath (given to patients in bed)
partial bed bath (bathes some parts of the body)
tub bath/shower
waterless bath (cleaning cloths)

190
Q

What should never do when cutting nails?

A

never cut toenails, never cut below tips of fingers

191
Q

What should nurses watch out for when administering personal hygiene?

A

sores/cuts/injuries, rashes, color, swelling/edema

192
Q

What is intake & output (I&O)?

A

a record which is a means of recording all fluid intakes and eliminations during a period

193
Q

What intakes are recorded?

A

oral intake, tube/enteral feedings, intravenous, drains

194
Q

What outputs are recorded?

A

bowel movement, emesis (vomiting), urine, drains

195
Q

What does urinate/micturate/void?

A

emptying the bladder

196
Q

What is defecate?

A

bowel movement

197
Q

What is a catheter?

A

a hollow tube inserted into the bladder to drain urine

198
Q

What is a Foley catheter?

A

used to drain the bladder over an extended period of time, a small balloon with sterile water to hold it in place, attached to a urinary-drainage unit

199
Q

What is an ostomy? What is a stoma?

A

a surgical procedure in which an opening (STOMA) in the abdominal wall

STOMA SHOULD LOOK BRIGHT TO DARK RED AND WET

200
Q

What is an ureterostomy?

A

opening from one of the two ureters that drain urine from the kidney to the bladder

201
Q

What is an ileostomy?

A

opening into the ileum

202
Q

What is a colostomy?

A

opening into the large intestine

203
Q

What is clean-catch (midstream) specimen?

A

urine specimen that is free away contamination

204
Q

What is occult blood?

A

blood from areas of the intestinal tract

205
Q

What is a 24-hour urine specimen used for?

A

used to check kidney function and components such as protein/creatinine

206
Q

What are some reasons for using restraints?

A

severe behavioral/cognitive issues, irrational/confused patients, danger to self, skin conditions, paralysis

207
Q

What are some common complications of restraints?

A

physical & mental frustration, impaired circulation, pressure ulcers, loss of muscle tone

208
Q

What is a geriatric chair used for?

A

patients who can sit up in a chair, but are at risk for falling because they are unsteady and confused

209
Q

What is NPO?

A

patient allowed nothing by mouth for at least 8-12 hours before surgery

210
Q

What is sometimes a after-symptom of spinal anesthesia?

A

headaches

211
Q

What are binders?

A

special devices made of cotton that provide support & relief from pain following surgery and hold dressings in place

212
Q

What is surgical (elastic) hose?

A

support the veins of the legs and increase circulation

213
Q

What is sequential compression devices?

A

stimulate circulation in the legs by mimicking the action of the leg muscles

214
Q

What are montgomery straps?

A

special adhesive straps that are applied when dressings must be changed frequently at the surgical site

215
Q

What are Montgomery straps?

A

special adhesive straps that are applied when dressings must be changed frequently at the surgical site

216
Q

What are wound VACs?

A

provide negative-pressure wound therapy

217
Q

What are the three phases of surgical care?

A

preoperative, operative, postoperative

218
Q

How frequent should vital signs be ch

A
219
Q

How frequent should vital signs be checked during surgery?

A

every 15 minutes

220
Q

How quickly can a lack of oxygen cause brain damage?

A

4-6 minutes

221
Q

What are the three methods to administer oxygen?

A

mask - should cover mouth and nose
nasal cannula - should breathe through nose
tent - infants and small children

222
Q

Should oxygen be given pure and not moisturized?

A

No, as it is very dry and can damage/irritate the mucous membrane

223
Q

What should not be used when oxygen is in use?

A

smoking, flammable liquids, wool/nylon,

224
Q

How should a dead body be prepared for viewing?

A

limbs straight, head elevated 30* to prevent discoloration

225
Q

What do range-of-motion exercises prevent?

A

contracture (tightening and shortening of muscles - most common foot drop), circulatory impairment, loss of muscle function, mineral loss

226
Q

What are the four main range-of-motion exercises?

A

active ROM, active assistive ROM, passive ROM, resistive ROM

227
Q

What are the main movements done during ROM exercise?

A

abduction (moving a part away from the midline), adduction (moving toward), flexion (bending), extension (straightening), pronation (turning downward - ex. palms), supination (turning upward), dorsiflexion (bending backward, foot toward knee)

228
Q

What is a transfer (gait) belt?

A

band of fabric or leather positioned around the patient’s waist

229
Q

What are the three main types of crutches?

A

axillary crutches, (short), forearm/Lofstrand crutches (permanent or long), platform crutches

230
Q

What are some common crutch-walking gaits?

A

four-point gait (slow), two-point gait (fast), three-point gait (only one foot bears weight), swing-to gait (fast), swing-through gait (fastest)

231
Q

What part of the body is a cane used on?

A

unaffected side (good)

232
Q

What are hyperthermia blankets?

A

contain coils with cool fluid to reduce high body temp

233
Q

What are Sitz baths?

A

provide warm moist heat to the perineal and rectal area (105C or 41F)

234
Q

What are hydrocollator packs?

A

gel-filled packs that are warmed in a water bath, used prior to ROM exercises

235
Q

What are paraffin wax treatments used for?

A

used for chronic joint disease (arthritis), or before ROM exercises

236
Q

What are dry heat applications?

A

heating pads, warm-water bags, heat lamps

237
Q

What do heat applications cause?

A

vasodilation (blood vessels become larger)

238
Q

What do cold applications cause?

A

vasoconstriction (blood vessels become constricted)

239
Q

What is filing?

A

systematic/orderly arrangement of papers

240
Q

What are the four main filing systems?

A

alphabetical, numerical, geographic, subject

241
Q

What are cross-indexes or references?

A

essential in a filing system to avoid misplacing or losing records

242
Q

What is the difference between an active and an inactive record?

A

2-3 years

243
Q

How far should you put the mouthpiece from your lips?

A

2-3 inches

244
Q

What is triage?

A

process of evaluating the situation and prioritizing treatment

245
Q

What should telephone messages always include?

A

name, telephone number, message, date/time, action, initials of person taking message

246
Q

What is a fax machine?

A

Also called a facsimile machine, used to transmit data or information electronically over the phone line

247
Q

What is a buffer period?

A

15 min - 30 min in the middle of each morning and afternoon for catch-up appts

248
Q

What does a medical history record contain?

A

general statistical data, family history, medical history, social history, illness/ailment

249
Q

What are the 5 types of business letters?

A

collection letter (pay), appointment letter, recall letter (time to return), consultation letter (to another professional), inquiry letter (seeks more information)

250
Q

What are the parts of a letter?

A

letterhead/heading, date line, inside address, salutation, subject line, body, complimentary close, signature, reference initials, enclosure notation

251
Q

What are 2 common styles for letters?

A

block style, modified-block style

252
Q

How many lines down from a letterhead should one write the date line?

A

15 lines

253
Q

What punctuation should follow a salutation?

A

colon

254
Q

What organization developed a coding system for diagnoses?

A

WHO (world health)

255
Q

How to properly complete an insurance claim?

A

make sure you are using the correct form, read the form thoroughly,

256
Q

What is a pegboard system?

A

track cash flow, write-it-once system, records noted simultaneously

257
Q

What records are encompassed in the pegboard system?

A

day sheet/daily journal - record of all patients seen

statement-receipt record - charges, past balance

charge slip

ledger card - total record of care provided to a patient + financial record

258
Q

What is a communication form/superbill?

A

serves as a statement for the insurance company

259
Q

What is a check? Who is a payee? Who is the originator? What is an endorsement?

A

written order for payment of money through a bank

person receiving the payment

signature/support of the payee

260
Q

How should you indicate number of cents on a check?

A

fractions, NOT DECIMALS

261
Q

What are deposit slips?

A

maintain accurate financial records, currency + coins + checks indicated

cd (2 decks)

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