Special Health Care Skills Flashcards
1
Q
What is odontology?
A
study of the anatomy, diseases, and growth of the teeth
2
Q
What are dentitions?
A
sets of teeth (a primary / deciduous and permanent/succedaneous)
3
Q
What are teeth buds? How do little teeth form?
A
44 teeth buds at birth, these buds erupt into teeth
when a child is 2-3 years old, all 20 primary teeth erupt, these erupt to form permanent teeth
4
Q
What are the four main sections of the tooth?
A
crown, root, cervix, apex
5
Q
Is the crown visible in the mouth? What is protecting it?
A
CROWN: tooth visible in the mouth, protected by enamel
6
Q
Where is the root located? Is it visible? What does it do?
A
ROOT: tooth below gingiva (gums), not visible, anchors the teeth in the jaw
7
Q
What is the cervix?
A
neck, area where enamel (crown) meets cementum (root)
8
Q
What is the apex?
A
tip of the root of the teeth, contains an opening called the apical foramen (nerves and blood vessels enter through tooth)
9
Q
What four tissues are each tooth made out of?
A
enamel, cementum, dentin, pulp
10
Q
What is enamel?
A
the hardest tissue in the body, covers the outside of the crown, calcium & phosphorus
11
Q
What is cementum?
A
hard, bonelike tissue that covers the outside of the root
12
Q
What is dentin?
A
makes up the main bulk of the tooth, under cementum and enamel, living tissue
13
Q
What is pulp?
A
soft tissue inside, made up of blood vessels and nerves
14
Q
What is periodontium?
A
structures that support and structure the teeth
15
Q
What is the alveolar process?
A
bone tissue of the maxilla and mandible, contains sockets for each tooth
16
Q
What is the periodontal ligament?
A
suspends the teeth in the sockets
17
Q
What is the gingiva?
A
made of epithelial covered with mucus, cover the alveolar process
18
Q
What are the four main types of teeth?
A
incisors, cuspids (canines to tear food), bicuspids (premolars), molars (largest and strongest teeth))
19
Q
How many maxillary (upper) and mandibular (down) primary/deciduous teeth are there?
A
10 of both
20
Q
Are there bicuspids in premolars?
A
NO.
21
Q
What is the Universal/National Numbering System?
A
abbreviated form for identifying the teeth
22
Q
How does the UNS work for primary teeth?
A
teeth identified by A to T (maxillary is A - J and mandibular is T - K)
AB________ IJ
TS _________ LK
23
Q
How does the UNS work for secondary teeth?
A
1________16
32_________17
1-8: maxillary right
9-16: maxillary left
17-24: mandibular left
25-32: mandibular right
24
Q
How does the Federation Dentaire International System work for secondary teeth?
A
maxillary right: 1
maxillary left: 2
mandibular left: 3
maxillary right: 4
(molars start at 8, incisors at 1 for every quadrant)
25
How does the Federation Dentaire International System work for primary teeth?
maxillary right: 5
maxillary left: 6
mandibular left: 7
maxillary right: 8
(molars start at 5, incisors at 1 for every quadrant)
5 4 3 2 1 -- 1 2 3 4 5
5 4 3 2 1 -- 1 2 3 4 5
26
What are the five sections/surfaces of the crown of the ANTERIOR TEETH (incisors and cuspids, front)
labial: near LIPS
lingual: language, near tongue
incisal: cutting edge of teeth
mesial: closest to the midline (which divides the jaw into right and left)
distal: far from the midline
27
What are the five sections/surfaces of the crown of the POSTERIOR TEETH (bicuspids and molars, back)
buccal: near cheek
lingual: language, near tongue
occlusal: grinding edge of teeth
mesial: closest to the midline (which divides the jaw into right and left)
distal: far from the midline
28
What are line angles?
where two crown surfaces meet
29
What are point angles?
where three crown surfaces meet
30
How many point and line angles does an anterior tooth have? What about a posterior tooth?
BOTH HAVE eight lines, 4 points
31
What does / signify?
tooth needs extraction
31
What does / signify?
tooth needs extraction
32
What does // signify?
tooth has already been extracted
33
What does a circled crown signify?
impacted tooth, tooth that isn't its proper position
34
What does I signify?
tooth with root canal treatment
35
What does a saw line (/\/\) signify?
fractured tooth
36
What does I signify?
tooth with completed root canal treatment
37
What is a circled crown with = in it signify?
gold crow
38
What does red on a dental chart signify? What about blue?
Red: carious lesions (decay) or treatment needed
Blue: treatment completed
39
What are two numbering systems?
Universal/National Numbering System (UN), Federation Dentaire International System (FDI)
40
What is four-handed dentistry?
dentist and dental assistant working together as a team while seated on either side of a patient
41
How much time should disinfectant solution at the dentist be left in place?
10 minutes
42
How close are dental lights positioned from the oral cavity?
30-50 inches
43
What is the air compressor? How many pounds of pressure?
provides air pressure to operate the handpieces and air syringes on the dental units (usually 100 pounds of pressure)
44
What is the oral-evacuation system? What does it use?
removes particles, debris and liquids from the oral cavity with water for suction purposes
45
What is the tri-flow/air water syringe?
three-way syringe, provides air and water
46
What is a saliva ejector?
constant, low-volume suction to remove saliva
47
What are rheostats?
foot controls used to operate handpieces and control speed (in dental CARTS)
48
What is the low-speed handpiece?
used for cavity removal and fine-finishing work, lower speed = MAXIMUM CONTROL
49
What is the contra angle?
cutting and polishing, burs are inserted (rotary instruments to cut)
50
What is the prophylaxis angle?
holds polishing cups, disks used to clean and polish
51
What is the silver thing placed in cavities?
Amalgam
52
How should items be placed on a dental tray?
in order of use, neatly
53
What are the main parts of a dental hand instrument?
blade/nib/point, shank (middle), shaft (handle, usually hexagonal)
54
What is a mouth mirror?
view areas of oral cavity, reflect light on dark surfaces
55
What is an explorer?
used to examine the teeth, detect cavities
56
What are cotton pliers?
used to carry cotton, rolls
57
What are scalers?
used to remove calculus (tartar) and debris from teeth
58
What is the periodontal probes?
used to measure the depth of the gingival sulcus, the expo has a periodontal probe at one end and an explorer at the end
59
What is an excavator?
used to remove caries (cavities), for cavity preparation
60
What is an excavator?
used to remove caries (cavities), for cavity preparation
1) spoon - for soft decay removal
2) hoe - remove caries, mostly on anterior teeth
3) hatchet - refine internal line angles
61
What are chisels for?
to cut enamel
1) enamel hatchet - big and heavy
2) gingival margin trimmer - curved, special
62
What is the cleoid-discoid carver?
double-ended, carver for amalgam (silver cavity filler)
63
What is a plastic-filling instrument?
shape and condense restorative material
64
What are 4 amalgam instruments?
amalgam carrier: carry
amalgam carver: carve
condenser-plugger: pack amalgam into area
matrix retainer and matrix band: form a wall around cavity so amalgam is in place
65
What are burnishers?
adapt the margins of gold restorations to a better fit
66
What are surgical forceps?
extracting forceps, used for extracting teeth (1 for each type of tooth)
67
What are periosteal elevators?
used for lifting the mucous membrane and tissue covering the bone
68
What is the root (extraction) elevator?
used to loosen the tooth out of its socket before being removed with forceps
69
What is the root-tip pick?
used to remove small tips from a socket such a root tip or piece of bone
70
What is a rongeur forceps?
trim or cut bone tissue
71
What is a lancet?
incise tissue, similar to a blade
72
What are four tray setup examples?
1) prophylactic or general examination tray - used for basic examination and cleaning of the teeth
2) amalgam restoration - for amalgam restoration procedure
3) composite or esthetic restoration tray - placement of a composite restoration
4) surgical extraction tray - for removal of teeth
73
Where should the patient's head rest on the dental chair?
upper, narrow headrest
74
What position should the chair be locked in before the patient gets in or leaves?
upright position
75
What are the purposes of proper brushing/flossing?
prevention of carious lesions (caries), removal of plaque, prevention of halitosis (bad breath)
76
What five surfaces on the tooth must be brushed?
chewing/biting, facial, lingual, side (2 sides)
77
Toothpastes with tartar control...
help prevent the hard deposits that accumulate on teeth
78
What is Alginate?
irreversible hydrocolloid impression material, simple to use, used for teeth and tissue impression
79
What is Polysulfide?
rubber-base, elastomeric impression material, really good for fine impressions/detail (SULFUR ODOR/TASTE BAD)
80
What are advantages of silicone? What are two disadvantage?
highly accurate impressions, shape and size retained, pleasant taste and odor free
LATEX GLOVES MAY INHIBIT SETTING, SO VINYL GLOVES MUST BE USED, expensive
81
What are the two gypsum materials used to form models?
plaster and stone
(plaster is weaker, less expensive and stone is opposite)
82
What is an extruder?
a mixing device for silicone (automix gun)
83
What are custom trays?
impression trays to fit a patient's particular mouth
84
What is the most popular material for a custom tray?
acrylic resin
85
How long should resins set before being used for impression?
24 hours
86
What does anesthesia mean?
absence of feeling
87
What is analgesia?
sedation - loss of pain but not loss of consciousness (nitrous oxide and oxygen gases)
88
What is local anesthesia?
loss of sensation in the area (local) with numbing, most frequent in dental offices
89
What is topical anesthesia?
frequently used to reduce the pain or discomfort caused by injection from the local anesthesia
90
What are the two main kinds of injections used to produce local anesthesia?
block (injected near a main nerve trunk) and infiltration/field (terminal nerve branches of the teeth)
91
What are anesthetic carpules (cartridges)?
glass cylinders with premeasured amounts of anesthetic solutions
92
What 6 steps should be undertaken when using carpules? Should carpules be autoclaved?
check the glass (no cracks), check expiration date, check solution (should be CLEAR), check the rubber plunger (should be level or slightly below cartridge top), check bubbles (small bubbles 1-2 mm normal), check aluminum cap, do NOT AUTOCLAVE CARPULES
93
What are aspirating syringes?
commonly used to inject local anesthetic
94
What are 7 parts of the aspirating syringe?
needle adaptor, barrel, guide bearing, spring, piston, finger grip, thumb ring
95
When should a syringe be dismantled?
5 tries
96
What are cements and bases used for?
to line teeth
97
What are liners?
materials used to cover, line or seal exposed tooth tissue
98
What is a base?
protective material placed over the pulpal area of a tooth
99
What is a cement?
material used to permanently seal inlays, crowns and bridges
100
What is a temporary?
material used for a restorative material for a short time
101
What is varnish used for?
liner to protect exposed surfaces of dentin from thermal shock
102
What is calcium hydroxide?
base in larger restorations and for pulp capping
103
What is zinc phosphate?
thermally protective base under metallic fillings and a cement for gold restorations
104
In light curing, how long is the light source held close to the population?
20 seconds for each 1-millimeter layer
105
What are the two most commonly used restorative material?
amalgam and composite
106
What teeth is amalgam used on?
posterior teeth
107
What four metals does amalgam alloy contain?
silver, tin, copper, zinc
108
What is amalgamation?
process that occurs when amalgam alloy is mixed with mercury
109
What is trituration?
mixing process used to combine mercury with the amalgama alloy
110
What is composite?
restorative material frequently for anterior teeth (but also posterior)
111
What are radiographs?
negatives taken of teeth, images either RADIOLUCENT (dark - pulps and caries), RADIOPAQUE (light - enamel and dentin, most tooth structures)
112
What are the types of radiographs?
bite-wings (crowns of maxillary and mandibular teeth), periapical films (tooth and surrounding area), pedodontic (child) films (small), occlusal films (used to view the chewing planes of the maxilla)
113
How many roots do maxillary molars have? How many roots do mandibular molars have?
3, 2
114
What is an epifluorescence microscope used for?
detecting antibodies and specific organisms using a fluorescent dye stain
115
What are the parts of a microscope?
base (solid stand), arm (long, back stem of the microscope), eyepiece (part through where the eye views the object)
116
What are the parts of a microscope?
base (solid stand), arm (long, back stem of the microscope), eyepiece (part through where the eye views the object), objectives (magnifies the object)
117
What are the 6 parts of a microscope?
base (solid stand), arm (long, back stem of the microscope), eyepiece (part through where the eye views the object), objectives (magnifies the object), revolving nosepiece (objectives attached), stage (flat platform for slide)
118
When is a culture specimen obtained?
when the doctor wants to determine the causative agent of a disease
119
What is a direct smear?
specimen placed immediately on slide
120
What is another name for an agar plate?
culture plate/petri dish
121
How does Gram staining work?
crystal violet stain applied, then iodine, if gram-positive = purple retained, if gram-negative = gentian red retained
122
How long does it take to grow and isolate an organism on a culture plate?
3-5 days
123
When is a venipuncture used?
for larger quantities of blood (as opposed to small amounts of blood = skin puncture)
124
Why is arterial blood taken?
amount of blood gases, acid-base balance
125
Before taking blood, skin should be cleaned with....
aseptic 70-percent isopropyl alcohol, lancet used to puncture must be sterile
126
What are common capillary puncture sites?
fingers (not thumbs, pinkies, index fingers), heels, ear lobes
127
Why is the first drop of blood obtained always removed?
it is contaminated with alcohol, perspiration, excess tissue fluid, etc
128
How deep should a skin puncture be to reach capillary beds?
2-4 mm
129
What is a hematocrit test?
blood test to measure volume of packed red blood cells in the blood
130
What is a popular method for a hematocrit test?
microhematocrit (special centrifuge)
131
The centrifuge force separates blood into.... three things. What is a buffy coat?
red blood cells, buffy coat (thin layer of white blood cells & platelets), plasma
--- 0.1 MM THICKNESS OF THE BUFFY COAT = 1000 WBC
132
What are the two ways to seal hematocrit tubes?
seal with special plastic sealing clay OR self-sealing (when blood touches plug, seals immediately)
133
What are Hct ranges for women and men?
36-46, 40-55
(36% of total volume of blood = RBC)
134
What is hemolysis?
destruction of RBCs
135
What is hemoglobin test?
determine oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
136
What must happen before hemoglobin concentration (test) can be performed?
blood must be hemolyzed (RBC destroyed), turning clear/transparent
137
What are some average Hgb test values?
males 13-18 grams of hemoglobin per 100 mL, females 12-16 grams, newborns 16-23
138
What is a blood smear?
small drop of blood on a slide, used for lots of blood tests
139
What is a differential count?
count of WBC, five different types of WBC kept in record
ex. 33 lymphocytes = 33% lymphocytes
140
What are two stains to allow blood cells to be viewed under a slide?
Wright's stain
Quick stain (three-step method, fast, less than 1 minute)
141
What is an antigen?
a substance that causes the body to produce a protein (antibody) that reacts AGAINST the antigen
142
What are the two antigens in the ABO system?
antigen A, antigen B
143
What are the two antigens in the ABO system?
antigen A, antigen B (on RBCs and other things)
144
What is an Rh type?
stands for Rheseus monkey, only one factor (D antigen) is involved, if present = positive
145
What is a typing and crossmatch test?
something performed before you can receive a transfusion, which receives ABO and Rh factors
146
What can be caused by a Rh incompatibility by mother and fetus?
hemolytic disease of the newborn
147
What is the erythrocyte sedimentation rate?
measures the distance that RBCs fall and settle in a special glass tube
148
What is the erythrocyte sedimentation rate?
measures the distance that RBCs fall and settle in a special glass tube, venous blood used
149
What are the two main methods used to perform ESR?
Wintrobe, Westergren
150
A faster-than-normal ESR indicates.....
inflammation or cell destruction - cancers, rheumatoid arthritis, acute viral hepatitis
151
How is the fasting blood sugar test performed?
patient fasts for 8-12 hours before the test
152
How is the glucose tolerance test?
evaluates how well a person metabolizes a calculated amount of glucose
153
What is the glycohemoglobin test (A1C)?
measures the amount of glucose that attaches to hemoglobin on RBCs
154
What is a urinalysis?
examination of urine using physical, chemical, and microscope tests
155
What is pyuria?
pus in the urine
156
What 10 characteristics can urinalysis detect?
volume, color, transparency, odor, pH, specific gravity, glucose, albumin, blood, ketones
157
What are reagent strips?
used for blood and urine tests, dipstick tests, firm plastic strips that react
158
What is hematuria?
blood in the urine
159
What is the normal specific gravity range?
1.005-1.030
160
How do you measure the specific gravity of urine?
With a urinometer or refractometer
161
What is the normal specific gravity range?
1.005-1.030
LOW = excessive fluid intake, kidney disease, diabetes insipidus
HIGH = kidney disease, diabetes mellitus, dehydration
162
What is urinary sediment?
materials suspended in urine, urine specimen should be early morning
163
What indicates hydroencephaly?
a head circumference that indicates above 95th percentile
164
What are the 9 most common examination positions?
horizontal recumbent (supine), prone (for back), sims' left lateral (rectal), knee-chest (rectal), fowler's (breathing, drainage), lithotomy (vaginal), dorsal recumbent (similar to the lithotomy), trendelenburg (circulation for brain), jackknife (proctologic, rectal)
165
What is a tonometer?
instrument to measure glaucoma
166
What is hyperopia?
farsightedness, defect in close vision
167
What charts are used for eye testing?
Snellen chartts
168
How is color blindness tested?
Ishihara method (books with dots in a circle)
169
What is a pap test used for?
to detect cancer of the cervix
170
What are the 4 techniques done during lay-done examinations?
observation (inspection), palpation (feeling the body parts), percussion (tapping for sounds), auscultation (sounds in the body, heart beat)
171
What is a cervical spatula?
wooden blade used to scrape cells from the cervix, Pap test
172
What is a sigmoidoscope?
a lighted instrument used to examine the sigmoid colon
173
What are bandage scissors used for?
used to remove dressings and bandages
174
Where does the electrical impulse in an electrocardiogram originate?
sinoatrial node / pacemaker
175
How are the designs in an electrocardiogram made?
a PQRST complex
176
How many leads, or spots is the ECG attached to?
12
177
What is the difference between an ointment and a cream and a paste?
ointment: medication in a fatty base
paste: ointment with an adhesive base
cream: water-soluble base
178
Where is a sublingual injection given?
given under the tongue
179
What are the six main points to watch every time a medication is given?
right medication, dose, patient, time, method, documentation
180
What is alignment? What are the benefits?
proper body posture
prevents fatigue, pressure ulcers (also called decubitus ulcers), contractures (tightening or shorting of muscle caused by lack of usgae)
181
What are the four stages of a pressure ulcer?
Stage I: red/gray/blue discoloration
Stage II: abrasions, bruises, open sores
Stage III: deep open crater
Stage IV: damage extends into muscles, bone
182
How are stage I and stage II pressure ulcers treated?
special form or hydrocolloid dressings
183
In addition to dressings, how are stage III and stage IV ulcers treated?
negative-pressure wound therapy
184
What is orthostatic hypotension?
drop in blood pressure due to position changes
185
How to prevent patient from developing wounds and ulcers from lack of movement?
turning them frequently at least every two hours(6 am: lie on right side, 8 am: back side, etc), dangling (sitting on edge of bed with legs hanging)
when moving a patient to dangling position, check RADIAL PULSE
186
How must a bed be made properly?
no wrinkles (can lead to pressure ulcers), miltered corners (folding technique to hold linen in place)
187
What are the four types of beds that one may have to make?
closed bed - made after discharge of patient
open bed - closed bed converted to open by fan-folding to welcome patients
occupied bed - bed made while the patient is in the bed
bed cradle - made to prevent parts of the linen from touching the patient
188
What is another term for a draw sheet?
lift sheet/transfer sheet
189
What are the four types of baths?
complete bed bath (given to patients in bed)
partial bed bath (bathes some parts of the body)
tub bath/shower
waterless bath (cleaning cloths)
190
What should never do when cutting nails?
never cut toenails, never cut below tips of fingers
191
What should nurses watch out for when administering personal hygiene?
sores/cuts/injuries, rashes, color, swelling/edema
192
What is intake & output (I&O)?
a record which is a means of recording all fluid intakes and eliminations during a period
193
What intakes are recorded?
oral intake, tube/enteral feedings, intravenous, drains
194
What outputs are recorded?
bowel movement, emesis (vomiting), urine, drains
195
What does urinate/micturate/void?
emptying the bladder
196
What is defecate?
bowel movement
197
What is a catheter?
a hollow tube inserted into the bladder to drain urine
198
What is a Foley catheter?
used to drain the bladder over an extended period of time, a small balloon with sterile water to hold it in place, attached to a urinary-drainage unit
199
What is an ostomy? What is a stoma?
a surgical procedure in which an opening (STOMA) in the abdominal wall
STOMA SHOULD LOOK BRIGHT TO DARK RED AND WET
200
What is an ureterostomy?
opening from one of the two ureters that drain urine from the kidney to the bladder
201
What is an ileostomy?
opening into the ileum
202
What is a colostomy?
opening into the large intestine
203
What is clean-catch (midstream) specimen?
urine specimen that is free away contamination
204
What is occult blood?
blood from areas of the intestinal tract
205
What is a 24-hour urine specimen used for?
used to check kidney function and components such as protein/creatinine
206
What are some reasons for using restraints?
severe behavioral/cognitive issues, irrational/confused patients, danger to self, skin conditions, paralysis
207
What are some common complications of restraints?
physical & mental frustration, impaired circulation, pressure ulcers, loss of muscle tone
208
What is a geriatric chair used for?
patients who can sit up in a chair, but are at risk for falling because they are unsteady and confused
209
What is NPO?
patient allowed nothing by mouth for at least 8-12 hours before surgery
210
What is sometimes a after-symptom of spinal anesthesia?
headaches
211
What are binders?
special devices made of cotton that provide support & relief from pain following surgery and hold dressings in place
212
What is surgical (elastic) hose?
support the veins of the legs and increase circulation
213
What is sequential compression devices?
stimulate circulation in the legs by mimicking the action of the leg muscles
214
What are montgomery straps?
special adhesive straps that are applied when dressings must be changed frequently at the surgical site
215
What are Montgomery straps?
special adhesive straps that are applied when dressings must be changed frequently at the surgical site
216
What are wound VACs?
provide negative-pressure wound therapy
217
What are the three phases of surgical care?
preoperative, operative, postoperative
218
How frequent should vital signs be ch
219
How frequent should vital signs be checked during surgery?
every 15 minutes
220
How quickly can a lack of oxygen cause brain damage?
4-6 minutes
221
What are the three methods to administer oxygen?
mask - should cover mouth and nose
nasal cannula - should breathe through nose
tent - infants and small children
222
Should oxygen be given pure and not moisturized?
No, as it is very dry and can damage/irritate the mucous membrane
223
What should not be used when oxygen is in use?
smoking, flammable liquids, wool/nylon,
224
How should a dead body be prepared for viewing?
limbs straight, head elevated 30* to prevent discoloration
225
What do range-of-motion exercises prevent?
contracture (tightening and shortening of muscles - most common foot drop), circulatory impairment, loss of muscle function, mineral loss
226
What are the four main range-of-motion exercises?
active ROM, active assistive ROM, passive ROM, resistive ROM
227
What are the main movements done during ROM exercise?
abduction (moving a part away from the midline), adduction (moving toward), flexion (bending), extension (straightening), pronation (turning downward - ex. palms), supination (turning upward), dorsiflexion (bending backward, foot toward knee)
228
What is a transfer (gait) belt?
band of fabric or leather positioned around the patient's waist
229
What are the three main types of crutches?
axillary crutches, (short), forearm/Lofstrand crutches (permanent or long), platform crutches
230
What are some common crutch-walking gaits?
four-point gait (slow), two-point gait (fast), three-point gait (only one foot bears weight), swing-to gait (fast), swing-through gait (fastest)
231
What part of the body is a cane used on?
unaffected side (good)
232
What are hyperthermia blankets?
contain coils with cool fluid to reduce high body temp
233
What are Sitz baths?
provide warm moist heat to the perineal and rectal area (105*C or 41*F)
234
What are hydrocollator packs?
gel-filled packs that are warmed in a water bath, used prior to ROM exercises
235
What are paraffin wax treatments used for?
used for chronic joint disease (arthritis), or before ROM exercises
236
What are dry heat applications?
heating pads, warm-water bags, heat lamps
237
What do heat applications cause?
vasodilation (blood vessels become larger)
238
What do cold applications cause?
vasoconstriction (blood vessels become constricted)
239
What is filing?
systematic/orderly arrangement of papers
240
What are the four main filing systems?
alphabetical, numerical, geographic, subject
241
What are cross-indexes or references?
essential in a filing system to avoid misplacing or losing records
242
What is the difference between an active and an inactive record?
2-3 years
243
How far should you put the mouthpiece from your lips?
2-3 inches
244
What is triage?
process of evaluating the situation and prioritizing treatment
245
What should telephone messages always include?
name, telephone number, message, date/time, action, initials of person taking message
246
What is a fax machine?
Also called a facsimile machine, used to transmit data or information electronically over the phone line
247
What is a buffer period?
15 min - 30 min in the middle of each morning and afternoon for catch-up appts
248
What does a medical history record contain?
general statistical data, family history, medical history, social history, illness/ailment
249
What are the 5 types of business letters?
collection letter (pay), appointment letter, recall letter (time to return), consultation letter (to another professional), inquiry letter (seeks more information)
250
What are the parts of a letter?
letterhead/heading, date line, inside address, salutation, subject line, body, complimentary close, signature, reference initials, enclosure notation
251
What are 2 common styles for letters?
block style, modified-block style
252
How many lines down from a letterhead should one write the date line?
15 lines
253
What punctuation should follow a salutation?
colon
254
What organization developed a coding system for diagnoses?
WHO (world health)
255
How to properly complete an insurance claim?
make sure you are using the correct form, read the form thoroughly,
256
What is a pegboard system?
track cash flow, write-it-once system, records noted simultaneously
257
What records are encompassed in the pegboard system?
day sheet/daily journal - record of all patients seen
statement-receipt record - charges, past balance
charge slip
ledger card - total record of care provided to a patient + financial record
258
What is a communication form/superbill?
serves as a statement for the insurance company
259
What is a check? Who is a payee? Who is the originator? What is an endorsement?
written order for payment of money through a bank
person receiving the payment
signature/support of the payee
260
How should you indicate number of cents on a check?
fractions, NOT DECIMALS
261
What are deposit slips?
maintain accurate financial records, currency + coins + checks indicated
