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cd > Basic Health Care Concepts and Skills > Flashcards

Basic Health Care Concepts and Skills Flashcards

1
Q

What did humans think (in primitive times) disease was caused by?

A

evil spirits and demons

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2
Q

Who were the first people to keep medical records? Who made them?

A

Ancient Egyptians. Priests (who acted like physicians).

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3
Q

Who was the “Father of Medicine”? What did he uncover?

A

Hippocrates (ancient Greek). He established that disease was caused by natural causes, NOT demons.

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4
Q

What symbol is the Greek symbol associated with healing? What more well-known symbol is NOT the healing symbol, and what is its true meaning?

A

Rod of Asclepius, medicine.
Caduceus, commerce.

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5
Q

What did the Romans realize from the ancient Greeks? What did they first create?

A

some diseases connected to filth, water contamination, sanitation

SANITATION SYSTEMS, HOSPITALS

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6
Q

What was the “medical belief status” during the Dark Ages and Middle Ages?

A

Dark Ages: bad hygiene, medicine

Middle Ages: renewed interest in Greek and Roman medical practice

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7
Q

What four epidemics were rampant in the Dark Ages?

A

smallpox, dysentery, typhus, plague

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8
Q

What knowledge became more widespread as a result of the Renaissance?

A

the structure of the human body (human dissection)

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9
Q

When did physicians gain extensive knowledge of the human body ?

A

16th, 17th and 18th centuries
(blood circulation by William Harvey, ear structure by Gabriel Fallopius)

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10
Q

What scientist caused a MAJOR DEVELOPMENT after the 16th/17th/18th centuries?

A

Anton van Leeuwenhoek, built a microscope that increased magnification ability

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11
Q

What century was the stethoscope invented?

A

19th century

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12
Q

What major development was 19th century?

A

infection control (louis pasteur, lister)

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13
Q

Who was the person that started using disinfectants and antiseptics during surgery

A

Joseph Lister

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14
Q

Who was the first female physician in the US?

A

Elizabeth Blackwell

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15
Q

Who invented the vaccine to prevent smallpox?

A

Edward Jenner

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16
Q

Who invented the stethoscope?

A

Rene Laennec

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17
Q

Who was the individual that that encouraged washing hands in lime before delivering babies

A

Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis

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18
Q

Who is the founder of modern nursing?

A

Florence Nightingale

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19
Q

What are two major developments in the 20th century?

A

watson and crick DNA discovery, open heart surgery

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20
Q

When was the Human Genome Project completed?

A

21st century

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21
Q

What is cost containment?

A

trying to control the rising cost of health care and achieve benefit for every dollar spent

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22
Q

Why is healthcare price rising (2 reasons)?

A

technological advances – which cost A LOT

aging population – more pharmaceutics necessary

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23
Q

How does the Diagnosed-Related Groups (DRG) plan help cut costs?

A

patients with specific diagnoses are put into one payment group, and that payment is given a limit cost: so the agency will cut costs so the limit can work

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24
Q

Replacing fee-for-service compensation with what can help cut costs?

A

bundled payments or value-based compensation: instead of paying an equal amount for each service, make health providers pay different amounts BASED UPON on the service — therefore, for simpler treatments, the fee is less

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25
Q

Why is combination of services good for cutting costs?

A

Because then duplication of services are prevented, and more services can be given to people at a lower cost $$$

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26
Q

What is outpatient services?

A

Giving services to patients without making them stay in the hospital as hospital services are EXPENSIVE! Reducing hospital stay time or transferring them to another facility is beneficial.

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27
Q

Why is home health care a rapidly growing field?

A

shorter hospital stays and diagnostic-related groups have created a bigger need

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28
Q

Why is geriatric care expanding?

A

More people are experiencing a need for elderly care due to longer life span.

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29
Q

What is the OBRA Act of 1987?

A

Omnibus Budget of Reconciliation. Development of regulations regarding long-term care and home health care (for geriatric care, etc).

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30
Q

What are assistants required to do under the OBRA Act?

A

Complete a state-approved training program and pass a written and competency examination for certification

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31
Q

What is the largest nurse aide certification program in the US?

A

National Nurse Aide Assessment Program (NNAAP)

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32
Q

What is telemedicine?

A

The use of video/audio computer to provide health & medical services (transmitting medical records, electronic medical records)

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33
Q

What are the five types of wellness?

A

Physical, emotional, social, mental & intellectual, spiritual

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34
Q

What is the most common health care system in the US?

A

biomedical/Western system - evaluate physical signs/symptoms, determine cause, treat cause

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35
Q

What is the difference between complementary therapies and alternative therapies?

A

Complementary: used in conjunction with conventional medical therapies
Alternative: used in place of biomedical therapies

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36
Q

NVM

A

NVM

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37
Q

What is integrative health care?

A

Both mainstream medical treatment + CAM (complementary and alternative)

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38
Q

What are three CAM practitioner examples?

A

AYURVEDIC - determine a person’s predominant dosha (body type) and use herbs and exercise/yoga
CHINESE - belief chi (life force) flows through a person, uses acupuncture, herbal remedies
CHIROPRACTORS

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39
Q

What is homeopathy?

A

believe in the body’s ability to heal itself through the actions of the immune system
use minute diluted doses of drugs from plant/animals/mineral to cause symptoms similar to the disease and activate the immune system

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40
Q

What influenza pandemic killed more than 40 million people in 1918?

A

Spanish Flu (HFN1 bird flu virus)

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41
Q

What are four examples of “superbugs”?

A

MRSA, VRE, CRA, MRAB (___ resistant ____)

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42
Q

What are three approved genetic tests (to check for presence of inherited genes)?

A

cancers (breast, ovarian, colorectal, gastric, lung), osteoporosis, AIDS

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43
Q

What are three diseases in which prenatal screening can be performed for?

A

cystic fibrosis, sickle-cell anemia, Tay Sachs

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44
Q

What is pharmacogenomics?

A

using a person’s genetic makeup to determine what drugs will work best

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45
Q

What are proteins? Where are they found and what are 4 things they do?

A

structures in the PROTOPLASM of cells that cause biochemical reactions, act as messengers, influence tissue growth & development, regulate cell
production

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46
Q

;What is the PSA test used for?

A

Prostate Specific Antigen test - for prostate cancer

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47
Q

What is the PSA test used for?

A

Prostate Specific Antigen test - for prostate cancer

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48
Q

What two animals are used for treating burns and microsurgery?

A

Maggots and leeches

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49
Q

What are the four different types of hospitals?

A

general hospitals: wide range of conditions + age groups

specialty hospitals: specific (burn hospitals, oncology hospitals, pediatric hospitals)

government hospitals: state/federal, care for government service personnel/military

university/college medical centers: PROVIDE HOSPITAL SERVICES as well as RESEARCH

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50
Q

What are the three different types of long-term care facilities?

A

usually care for elderly patients*

residential care facilities (nursing homes, geriatric homes)

extended care facilities (rehabilitative)

independent living (assisted) more free-reign than residential care

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51
Q

What is concierge medicine (retainer medicine)?

A

a type of personalized health care

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52
Q

What are four examples of home health care agencies?

A

nursing care, personal care, therapy, homemaking (for people w/ disabilities)

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53
Q

What are hospice agencies?

A

care for terminally people (6 months or less)

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54
Q

What are genetic counseling centers?

A

work with couples to perform prenatal screening tests, genetic abnormalities, and birth defects, genetic disorders

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55
Q

What are Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs)?

A

both health care delivery systems and a type of health insurance

toward preventive health healthcare for a fixed fee

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56
Q

What are twelve types of private hospital services?

A

Hospitals, Long-term care facilities, Medical offices, Concierge medicine, Dental offices, Clinics, Optical Centers, Emergency Care Services, Home Health Care, Hospice, Rehabilitation Facilities, HMOs

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57
Q

What does the World Health Organization do?

A

UN sponsor, statistics and info on disease, “attainment by all people of the highest possible level of health care”

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58
Q

What does the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services do?

A

health problems of U.S.
provides the most grant money of all federal agencies

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59
Q

Food and Drug Administration

A

regulates foods, drugs, medical devices, cosmetics, cell phones in the US

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60
Q

What is the Joint Commission?

A

nonprofit, US organization to ensure patients receive safety, highest-quality care (voluntary agencies)

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61
Q

What are two examples of nonprofit agencies?

A

American Cancer Society, American Heart Association

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62
Q

What percent of the gross national product is healthcare?

A

> 17%

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63
Q

What is a deductible in health insurance?

A

amounts that must be paid by the patient before the policy pays

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64
Q

What is the disadvantage of a HMO?

A

insured is required to use only HMO-affiliated health care providers (doctors, hospitals, etc)

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65
Q

What is a preferred provider organization ?

A

a type of managed health care health insurance organization (large companies)

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66
Q

What are the two health insurance plans that the government provides?

A

Medicare and Medicaid

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67
Q

What is Medicare?

A

federal government plan for people >65 , person with a disability, person with end-stage renal disease

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68
Q

What are the three types of coverage for Medicare?

A

type A - hospital insurance, type B - medical insurance,
type D - medication insurance

(80%)

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69
Q

What is Medigap policy?

A

a health insurance plan that helps pay medical expenses not covered by Medicare

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70
Q

What is Medicaid?

A

a medical assistance program, federal & state, low incomes/public assistance/physically disabled or blind

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71
Q

What is worker’s compensation?

A

treatment for workers injured on the job

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72
Q

What is TRICARE?

A

military personnel insurance plan (active members, survivors, retired of Armed Forces, families of active)

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73
Q

What is managed care?

A

MAIN PRINCIPLE: all health care provided to a patient must have a purpose (preventive care, pre-diagnosis)

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74
Q

What is value-based compensation?

A

Doctors are paid for the VALUE of their performance (quality, satisfaction, cost)

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75
Q

What is the Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act?

A

five main components, protects people from having health insurance companies share medical information to EMPLOYERS

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76
Q

When was compliance with HIPAA required?

A

April 2004

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77
Q

When was the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) established? What is it?

A

March 2010, young adult covered under parent’s policy <26

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78
Q

What is an associate’s degree?

A

career/technical school or community college after 2 years of study

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79
Q

What is certification?
What is registration?
What is licensure?

A

fulfilled education requirements (certified assistant, certified laboratory technicians)

regulatory board in THAT AREA (registered dietician, registered respiratory therapist)

government agency authors people to work in an occupation (physician, dentist, physical therapist)

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80
Q

What is a multicompetent or multiskilled health care provider?

A

People that can do a variety of health care tasks (both an EKG and an EEG technician)

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81
Q

How much school should assistants and technicians go through?

A

1-2 years in program or 2-year associate degree

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82
Q

What is a HSE program?

A

health education science program

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83
Q

What is endodontics?

A

diseases of pulp, nerves, blood vessels, roots

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84
Q

NVM

A

NVM

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85
Q

What is orthodontics?

A

alignment or straightening of teeth

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86
Q

What is pedodontics?

A

treatment for children & adolescents

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87
Q

What is periodontics?

A

diseases of gums, bones, structures of teeth

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88
Q

What is an emergency medical responder?

A

first person to arrive at scene (police officer, fire department, security counsel)

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89
Q

What is the difference between an EMT and a paramedic?

A

EMT: medical emergencies, bleeding, fractures, airway obstruction, life support
PARAMEDIC: all EMT duties + advanced cardiac life support, deeper assessments

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90
Q

What is a DO?

A

Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine (emphasis on nervous, muscular, skeletal systems)

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91
Q

What is a DPM?

A

doctor of podiatric medicine, treats diseases of feet or leg below the knee

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92
Q

What is an otolaryngologist?

A

ENT doctor

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93
Q

What is the difference between a psychiatrist and a psychologist?

A

Psychiatrist: mental illness
Psychologist: human behavior, problems of everyday living (abuse, etc)

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94
Q

What do embalmers do?

A

prepare the body for embalming by washing the body with germicidal soap, applying cosmetics

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95
Q

What do licensed practical/vocational nurses do (LPN/LVNs)?

A

working under the supervision of physicians or RNs but a lower level of knowledge

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96
Q

What is another name for a dietetic assistant?

A

A food service worker, under supervision of dietitians, food preparation & service, clean work areas

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97
Q

What is an occupational therapist?

A

under the direction of physiatrist, helps people who have physical/developmental/emotional/mental disabilities

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98
Q

What are perfusionists?

A

extracorporeal circulation technologists, open-heart surgical teams and operate the heart-lung machines used in coronary bypass surgery

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99
Q

What is hematology and histology?

A

Hematology: study of blood cells
Histology: study of human body tissue

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100
Q

What are phlebotomists?

A

collect blood and prepare it for testing

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101
Q

What are ophthalmologists?

A

diseases/injuries of the eyes

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102
Q

What are opticians?

A

make and fit the eyeglasses

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103
Q

What do medical coders do?

A

identify diagnoses/procedures shown in a patient’s health care record and assign codes to each

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104
Q

What do medical transcriptionists do?

A

use a computer or word-processing software to enter data dictated on a recorder by physicians

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105
Q

What do clinical account managers?

A

promote, sell, and educate clients/sales associates about health care products, make appointments with customers and sales staff

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106
Q

What do clinical account technicians do?

A

assist patients have questions about their bills or need help to make payments, send bills (etc)

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107
Q

How do admitting officers/clerks do?

A

work in the admissions department of a health care facility, assign rooms, etc

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108
Q

What do biomedical equipment technicians do?

A

install, test, service patient monitors/kidney hemodialysis units/incubators/pacemaker

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109
Q

What do biomedical/clinical technicians do?

A

assist in medical research on AIDS and cancer, perform experiments

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110
Q

Within the first ___ seconds, people form an impression with another person based mainly on appearance

A

7

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111
Q

What should health personnel wear?

A

Scrubs (can be white), neat, well-fitting, clean and wrinkle free and USUALLY, WHITE (NONABSORBENT) SHOES

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112
Q

What do the identification tags that personnel wear say?

A

name, title, photo, department of the health care team member

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113
Q

What is important to know about personal hygiene for the medical professional (good scents??)

A

deodorant, antiperspirant, good oral hygiene, scents that aren’t too strong/cause allergic reactions

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114
Q

What body jewelry/makeup/tattoos?

A

no body jewelry, tattoos shouldn’t be seen by other people, no excessive/natural makeup

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115
Q

What six factors contribute to good health?

A

diet, rest, exercise, good posture, avoid use of tobacco/alcohol/drugs, preventative screenings

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116
Q

What are some 9 characteristics of professionalism?

A

empathy, honesty, dependability, willingness to learn, patience, enthusiasm, self-motivation, tact, competence

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117
Q

What is aphasia?

A

Loss or impairment of the power to use or comprehend words

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118
Q

What are the two different types of writing?

A

Technical Writing: formal
Creative Writing: loose, feelings, thoughts

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119
Q

What are some benefits of interpersonal relationships (3)?

A

belonging/self-growth
personal growth
life is enjoyable

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120
Q

What are the three main types of leaders and their roles?

A

Democratic: listens to opinions, equal participation
Laissez-Faire Leader: informal, hands-off policy
Autocratic Leader: dictator

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121
Q

What is parliamentary procedure?

A

a set of rules that determine conduct and order followed during a meeting (MAJORITY TO RULE, MINORITY HEARD, INDIVIDUAL REPRESENTED)

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122
Q

What is a standard agenda?

A

Call to order, roll taken by the secretary, minutes of previous meeting, treasurer report, officer report, committee reports, unfinished reports, program, adjournment

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123
Q

What is a motion?

A

Something that a member makes to present an idea or proposal

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124
Q

What are the four types of motions?

A

main: introduces topic
subsidiary: changes motion (disposes, accepts)
privileged: urgent items/motions
incidental: question procedure

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125
Q

What are the five types of votes?

A

Voice vote: all in favor say “aye” or “no”, rough count
Roll call: accurate count
General consent: no objects…
Division: similar to voice but raise hands
Ballot: write vote or in CP

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126
Q

What are five motion examples?

A

refer to committee, postpone indefinitely, lay on the table, take from the table, take a recess (break)

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127
Q

What is a tort and some examples?

A

wrongful act which does not include a contract (civil wrong instead of a crime)

examples: malpractice, negligence, assault and battery (thread/attempt to injure and unlawful touching without consent)

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128
Q

What is defamation?

A

false statements ruin reputation (if information is SPOKEN - slander, info is WRITTEN - libel)

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129
Q

What is privileged communication?

A

all information given by health care personnel to a patient

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130
Q

What does the Consumer and Bill of Rights and Responsibilities in 1998 say?

A

patient’s rights (accurate health information, health care providers, considerate/respectful care)

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131
Q

What does the Omnibus Budget of Reconciliation Act of 1987 say?

A

every long-term resident has certain rights, must be informed in Resident’s Bill of Rights

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132
Q

What are advance directives?

A

Legal documents that allow individuals to state what medical treatment they do and do not want (in case they are incapacitated) in ADVANCE.

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133
Q

What are living wills?

A

documents that allow individuals to state what conditions should or should not be taken to prolong life when condition is terminal (DNR)

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134
Q

What is a Designation of Health Care Surrogate/POA?

A

document that permits an individual to allow another individual to make health care decisions

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135
Q

What is the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)?

A

all health care facilities… inform all patients of medical decisions, provide assistance

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136
Q

What are eponyms?

A

terms named after people, places, things

(Achilles tendon, Coombs test, Colles’ fracture, Heimlich maneuver)

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137
Q

What is tachycardia? What is bradycardia?

A

fast/rapid heart, slow heart

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138
Q

What is vomiting blood?

A

hematemesis

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139
Q

What does “EMIA” mean?

A

in the blood

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140
Q

What does “PENIA” mean?

A

lack of (blood vessels, muscles)

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141
Q

What are some “do not use” abbreviations?

A

IU, u, qd, MS

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142
Q

What is DX? What is ABD? What is ABX?

A

diagnosis, abdominal, antibiotics

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143
Q

What is “ITIS”? What is “SCLEROSIS”? What is “OSTOMY”? What is “OTOMY”? What is “ALGIA”? What is “DYS”?

A

inflammation, abnormal hardening, surgical hole, surgical incision, pain, bad/difficult

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144
Q

What is pathophysiology?

A

study of how disease occurs

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145
Q

What are the four types of diseases?

A

Congenital: club foot, spina bifida, development in uterus
Inherited: color blindness, hemophilia
Infectious: pathogenic
Degenerative: ASHD, COPD

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146
Q

What is prognosis?

A

prediction of the probable course/expected outcome of the disease

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147
Q

How many genes does each chromosome carry?

A

30, 000 - 45,000

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148
Q

How many centrioles does a centrosome have?

A

2

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149
Q

What is osseous tissue?

A

calcium salts, nerves, blood vessels

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150
Q

What is bilateral and unilateral?

A

Bilateral: both sides of body
Unilateral: only side

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151
Q

What is the transverse plane?

A

horizontal plane that divides the body into a top half (superior) and a bottom half (inferior)

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152
Q

What is caudal?

A

body parts near the spinal column (sacral, tail)

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153
Q

What is the sagittal plane?

A

left and right sections

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154
Q

What plane divides the body front and back?

A

frontal/coronal plane

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155
Q

What does ventral/posterior/dorsal/anterior?

A

Versal/anterior: front of the body
Dorsal/posterior: back of the body

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156
Q

What does proximal and distal mean?

A

Proximal: closer
Distal: distant

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157
Q

What are the two main body cavities?

A

Dorsal/posterior, ventral/anterior

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158
Q

Which of the two main abdominal cavities is larger than the other?

A

The ventral (thoracic, abdominal cavity, lower abdominal cavity/pelvic)

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159
Q

What are the three small cavities?

A

orbital cavity, nasal cavity, buccal cavity (mouth, teeth and tongue)

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160
Q

What is the epidermis?

A

outermost layer of skin, five smaller layers BUT NO BLOOD VESSEL OR NERVE CELLS

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161
Q

What is dermis?

A

corium (true skin), blood vessels, lymph vessels, nerves

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162
Q

What is the hypodermis?

A

elastic and fibrous connective tissue

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163
Q

What are sudoriferous glands?

A

sweat glands (extend through the dermis)

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164
Q

What are sebaceous glands?

A

oil glands

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165
Q

What are the 4 functions of the integumentary system?

A

protection, sensory protection, body temperature regulation

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166
Q

What is erythema?

A

reddish color of skin caused by burns or congestion of blood

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167
Q

What is jaundice?

A

yellow discoloration of skin, can indicate bile in the blood (liver or gallbladder disease)

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168
Q

What are macular rashes* (skin eruptions)?

A

flat spots on the skin – freckles

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169
Q

What are papular rashes?

A

firm, raised areas – pimples
seen in chickenpox and syphilis

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170
Q

What is a wheal?

A

smooth, slightly elevated, smooth area (usually followed by itching)

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171
Q

What is acne vulgaris?

A

inflammation of the sebaceous glands (hormonal changes and increased secretion of sebum), pimples, blackheads

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172
Q

What is impetigo?

A

highly contagious skin infection, affects infants and children, red lesions on the face and skin

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173
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

chronic skin disease characterized by periods of remission, thick white and red scales

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174
Q

What is ringworm (tineas)?

A

highly contagious fungal infection on skin or scalp, flat raised area with healthy inner area surrounded by a ring

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175
Q

How many bones are in an adult human?

A

206

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176
Q

What are long bones?

A

bones of the extremities (arms and legs)

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177
Q

What is the long part of the bone called? What about the two knobby parts on either end?

A

diaphysis
epiphysis

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178
Q

What is filled with yellow bone marrow (fat and white blood cells)?

A

The medullary cavity (in the diaphysis)

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179
Q

Where is red marrow found?

A

vertebrae, ribs, sternum, cranium

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180
Q

What is the outside of the bone covered in?

A

periosteum
(blood vessels, lymph vessels, osteoblasts)

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181
Q

What are two sections of the skeletal system?

A

axial skeleton (skull, spinal column, ribs)
appendicular skeleton (shoulder girdle, arms, legs)

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182
Q

What are fontanels?

A

spaces in the cranium (at birth) for the brain to grow

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183
Q

How many facial bones are there?

A

14

1 mandible, 2 maxilla, 2 zygomatic (cheek), 2 lacrimal, 5 nasal, 2 palatine

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184
Q

What are sutures? What are sinuses?

A

areas where the cranial bones have joined together, air spaces in the bones of the skull

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185
Q

What is the pelvic girdle made of?

A

two os coxae (hip bones)

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186
Q

What are the three main type of joints?

A

diarthrosis (synovial) - freely movable
amphiarthrosis - slightly movable
synarthrosis - immovable

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187
Q

What are the two main types of arthritis?

A

osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis

188
Q

How much more common is rheumatoid arthritis for women than men?

A

3 times

189
Q

What are the types of fractures?

A

greenstick: crack
simple/closed: complete break of bone without damage to skin
compound/open: bone breaks through the skin
comminuted: splinters into multiple pieces (bone dust)

190
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

bone inflammation by pathogen, pus accumulation in the medullary cavity

191
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

hormone deficiency (estrogen, etc), lack of calcium in the diet, sedentary lifestyle

192
Q

What is a ruptured/herniated disk?

A

intervertebral disk (cartilage) jots out and puts pressure on the spinal column

193
Q

What are the three types of abnormal spinal curvatures?

A

kyphosis, scoliosis, lordosis
KYPHOSIS: HUNCHBACK
SCOLIOSIS: SIDE TO SIDE CURVATURE OF THE SPINE
LORDOSIS: INWARD CURVE OF THE LUMBAR

194
Q

How many muscles make up the muscular system?

A

600 muscles

195
Q

What is visceral muscle?

A

Smooth muscle

196
Q

What are the two involuntary muscles?

A

visceral and cardiac

197
Q

What is fascia?

A

a tough, sheetlike membrane that covers and protects the tissue

198
Q

When a muscle attaches to bone…
the end that doesn’t move:
the end that moves when the muscle contracts:

A

ORIGIN
INSERTION

199
Q

What is abduction?

A

moving a body part from the neckline __o __ <—
/ \

200
Q

What is adduction?

A

moving a body part toward the neckline _o __ <—
/ \

201
Q

What is fibromyalgia?

A

chronic, widespread, musculoskeletal pain

202
Q

What is muscular dystrophy?

A

inherited diseases that lead to chronic, progressive muscle atrophy

203
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

chronic, nerve impulses are not properly transmitted to the muscles

204
Q

What is the difference between afferent and efferent nerves?

A

Afferent: ALL PARTS OF BODY TO THE BRAIN
Efferent: BRAIN AND SPINAL COLUMN TO THE BODY

205
Q

What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A

somatic, autonomic

206
Q

What is the cerebrum?

A

largest and highest section of the brain, outer part arranged in folds (convolutions) and separated into lobes

207
Q

What is the cerebrum responsible for?

A

reasoning, thought, memory, speech, senses, VOLUNTARY BODY MOVEMENT

208
Q

What is the cerebellum?

A

section below the back of cerebrum, muscle coordination and balance

209
Q

What does the diencephalon?

A

between cerebrum and midbrain, thalamus (pain, temperature, sensory impulses to the cerebrum) and hypothalamus (temperature, appetite, water balance)

210
Q

What is the midbrain?

A

below cerebrum at the top of the brainstem (eye and auditory reflexes)

211
Q

What is the pons?

A

section below hindbrain and in the brainstem (messages to other parts of the brain)

212
Q

What is the medulla oblongata?

A

lowest part of the brainstem (regulating heartbeat, respiration, swallowing)

213
Q

What are the meninges?

A

three membranes that cover and protect the brain & spinal cord

214
Q

How many ventricles does the brain?

A

four ventricles filled with cerebrospinal fluid

215
Q

What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system (involuntary)?

A

sympathetic (TO ACT) and parasympathetic (SLOWS)

216
Q

What is ALS?

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease), muscle weakness, inability to communicate/eat

217
Q

What nerve is associated with carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

the medial nerve

218
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A

non-progressive, non-contagious disturbance in voluntary muscle action — brain damage (lack of oxygen prenatal injuries, etc)

219
Q

What is a cerebrovascular accident?

A

stroke, blood flow to the brain is impaired

TWO MAIN TYPES: hemorrhagic stroke = blood vessel bursts or bleeds (hypertension, aneurysm)
ischemic stroke = blockage causes lack of blood flow (atherosclerosis or thrombus)

220
Q

What 5 factors increase CVA risk?

A

smoking, high-fat diet, obesity, hypertension, sedentary lifestyle

221
Q

What is a concussion?

A

traumatic brain injury, affects brain function

222
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

inflammation of the brain

223
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

brain disorder associated with abnormal urges in electrical impulses in the neurons of the brain

224
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

water on the brain, excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles/subarachnoid space

225
Q

What is neuralgia?

A

nerve pain caused by nerve damage, affects more women than men, is chronic

226
Q

What are the types of paralysis?

A

hemiplegia: one side of he body (tumor or CVA)
quadriplegia: paralysis of arms, legs, and body below spinal injury
paraplegia: lower body (spinal cord injury)

227
Q

How is shingles spread?

A

herpes zoster, inflammation of nerve cells, caused by varicella-zoster virus (which also causes chicken pox), cannot be spread from infected -> someone who has never had chicken pox (open sore contact)

228
Q

What glands in the eyes produce tears?

A

lacrimal glands

229
Q

What membrane provides protection for the eye?

A

conjunctiva

230
Q

What are the three main layers of the eye?

A

outermost: sclera (white)
middle: choroid coat (blood vessels)
innermost: retina (nerve cells, cones, rods)

231
Q

What and where is the cornea?

A

front of sclera, allows light rays to enter

232
Q

What is the iris?

A

Colored portion of the eye, contains two muscles

233
Q

What does the lens do?

A

circular structure behind pupil, refracts light so the rays focus on the retina

234
Q

Where is the aqueous humor located?

A

watery liquid, between cornea and iris

235
Q

Where is the vitreous humor located?

A

fills the area between the lens

236
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

Lazy eye

237
Q

What is astigmatism?

A

warping or curvature of the cornea that causes blurred distance-vision

238
Q

What is cataracts?

A

cloudy, opaque lens – blurred vision, halos around lights, gradual vision loss

239
Q

What is conjunctivitis?

A

highly contagious inflammation of the conjunctiva, redness

240
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

increased intraocular pressure caused by too much aqueous humor

241
Q

What is macular degeneration?

A

disease of the macula (central & most sensitive part of the retina)

242
Q

What are the two types of macular degeneration?

A

dry: fatty deposits decrease blood supply to the retina
wet: abnormal growth of blood vessels that leak blood and fluids that damage the retina

243
Q

What is myopia?

A

nearsightedness

244
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

farsightedness caused by a loss of lens elasticity

245
Q

What is strabismus?

A

a disorder in which the eyes do not move or focus together

246
Q

What is the visible part of the ear called?

A

the pinna/auricle

247
Q

What is cerumen and where is it produced?

A

the auditory canal (glands), wax that protects the ear

248
Q

What is the eardrum called?

A

tympanic membrane

249
Q

How many small bones does the middle ear contain?

A

3 ossicles - malleus, incus, stapes

250
Q

How is the middle ear connected to the throat?

A

eustachian tube (allows air to come in and equalize air pressure)

251
Q

What are the three different parts of the inner ear?

A

vestibule: entrance
cochlea: snail’s shell, organ of Corti
semicircular canals: contain a liquid and help with equilibrium

252
Q

What is Meniere’s disease?

A

collection of fluid in the inner ear, vertigo/tinnitus/nausea and vomiting

253
Q

What is otitis externa?

A

inflammation of the outer ear canal, swimmer’s ear = one form

254
Q

What is otitis media?

A

inflammation of the middle ear, frequently follows a sore throat in infants and children

255
Q

What is otosclerosis?

A

inherited disease, overgrowth of footplate of stapes – hearing loss, tinnitus

256
Q

How many gallons of blood a day does the heart pump?

A

2,000 gallons

257
Q

What are the layers of the heart?

A

endocardium: line inside of the heart
myocardium: thickest layer
pericardium: sac outside the heart

258
Q

What is the septum?

A

wall that SEPARATES the right and left side of the heart

259
Q

The right atria….

A

receives blood as it returns from the body

260
Q

The right ventricle….

A

receives blood from the right atrium and pumps the blood into the pulmonary artery

261
Q

The left atria….

A

receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

262
Q

The left ventricle….

A

receives blood from the left atrium, pumps the blood into the aorta

263
Q

What are four valves in the heart that prevent blood from moving back a direction?

A

tricuspid, pulmonary, mitral, aortic

264
Q

What is a diastole and systole?

A

period of rest, period of contraction

265
Q

What is another name for the pacemaker?

A

sinoatrial node

266
Q

What is the bundle of His?

A

nerve fibers in the septum

267
Q

How do defibrillators help heart patients?

A

device that shocks the heart with an electrical current to stop uncoordinated contraction, the SA node

268
Q

What is the largest artery in the body? How are arteries different from other blood vessels?

A

aorta, more elastic and musclar

269
Q

What percent of plasma is water?

A

90%

270
Q

What are the three main types of blood cells?

A

erythrocytes (RED BLOOD CELLS) leukocytes (WHITE BLOOD CELLS), thrombocytes (PLATELETS)

271
Q

What does angiotensin do?

A

causes the blood vessel to spasm and narrow, decreasing blood flow

272
Q

What is thrombin?

A

a substance that acts on blood protein fibrinogen to form fibrin (clotting fiber-net)

273
Q

What is aplastic anemia?

A

injury or destruction of bone marrow, leading to loss of blood cells

274
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

formation of erythrocytes that are abnormally big in size, B12/folic acid deficiency

275
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

ballooning out of/saclike formation on a blood vessel (CEREBRAL, AORTAL, ABDOMINAL)

276
Q

What is an embolus?

A

a foreign substance circulating in the bloodstream (air, blood clot, fat globule)

277
Q

What are 4 symptoms of CHF?

A

edema, dyspnea (shortness of breath), pallor/cyanosis, cough accompanied by pink/frothy sputum

278
Q

When are most cases of hemophilia diagnosed?

A

age 2, during circumcision (people bleed out????) almost exclusively in male individuals

279
Q

What is leukemia?

A

cancer of the bone marrow, lymph tissue (high number of immature or abnormal white blood cells)

280
Q

What is phlebitis?

A

inflammation of a vein, vein near = thrombophlebitis, vein far = deep vein thrombosis

281
Q

What are varicose veins?

A

gnarled, dilated (legs)

282
Q

What is lymph?

A

thin, watery fluid composed of intercellular, interstitial fluid

283
Q

What are lacteals?

A

specialized lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine that pick up digested fat/lipids

284
Q

What do lymph nodes do?

A

“glands”, filter the lymph and remove carbon, cancer cells, pathogens

285
Q

What are the two lymph ducts?

A

right lymphatic duct: short tube that receives purified lymph from the right side of the body
thoracic duct: much larger tube, drains lymph from the rest of the body

286
Q

What is cisterna chyli?

A

start of thoracic duct, storage area for purified lymph

287
Q

What are the three pairs of lymph tonsils?

A

palatine tonsils: each side of the soft palate
pharyngeal tonsils: nasopharynx (throat)
lingual tonsils: back of tongue

288
Q

What are four functions of the spleen?

A

produces leukocytes and antibodies, destroys old red blood cells, stores red blood cells, filters wastes

289
Q

What is the thymus?

A

a mass of lymph tissue, produces antibodies, creates lymphocytes to stave off infection

290
Q

What are the two types of immunity?

A

Active: protection by EXPOSURE (vaccine)
Passive: protection by literally being given antibodies (MOTHER)

291
Q

What is adenitis?

A

inflammation of lymph nodes, large quantities of harmful substances enter the lymph nodes

292
Q

What is Class B?

A

early symptomatic HIV infection

293
Q

What is Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

chronic, malignant cancer (tumor of lymph nodes), fever, weight loss, fatigue

294
Q

What is lupus?

A

chronic and autoimmune, 15-40 for women, symptoms: fatigue, fever, cold sensitivity, butterfly rash

90% women

295
Q

What is mononucleosis?

A

virus (frequently Epstein-Barr virus), kissing disease because it spreads through saliva, fever/sore throat/fatigue

296
Q

What is splenomegaly?

A

enlargement of the spleen, infection mononucleosis, cirrhosis, lymphoma can all enlarge spleen

297
Q

What are the seven parts of the respiratory system?

A

nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli, lungs

298
Q

How is the nose structured?

A

two openings called nostrils/nares, separated by the nasal septum into nasal cavities

299
Q

What are the three sections of the pharynx?

A

nasopharynx - upper portion
oropharynx - middle portion
laryngopharynx - bottom portion

300
Q

How is the larynx structured?

A

nine layers of cartilage, voice box, between pharynx and trachea, largest cartilage layer = Adam’s apple, contains two folds called vocal cords, contains the epiglottis (prevent food from getting into respiratory tract)

301
Q

What is a pleura?

A

sac that a lung is enclosed in

302
Q

What is ventilation?

A

process of breathing

303
Q

What is emphysema?

A

noninfectious, chronic respiratory condition - walls of alveoli deteriorate and lose their elasticity

304
Q

What is epistaxis?

A

nosebleed, capillaries become congested and bleed

305
Q

What is lung cancer?

A

leading cause of cancer death in men and women, main cause is exposure to carcinogens in tobacco, smoking

306
Q

What is pleurisy?

A

inflammation of pleura

307
Q

What is rhinitis?

A

inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane, resulting in a runny nose/watery eyes/sneezing

308
Q

What is sleep apnea?

A

individual stops breathing while they sleep (obstructive SA = blockage, central SA = respiratory disorder)

309
Q

What is the alimentary canal?

A

long, muscular tube that begins at the mouth, ingestion - absorption - absorption - excretion is carried out (four basic digestive processes)

310
Q

What is the buccal cavity? How many pairs of salivary glands are there?

A

the mouth, 3 (parotid and sublingual and submandibular)

311
Q

The vermiform appendix is attached to what part of the large intestine?

A

cecum

312
Q

What is an impaction?

A

large, hard mass of fecal material lodged in the intestine or rectum

313
Q

What is a hilum?

A

an indented region on a kidney where the ureter, nerves, and blood vessels enter and leave

314
Q

What is the external opening to the ureter?

A

urinary meatus

315
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

A

a type of UTI, inflammation of kidney tissue and renal pelvis, usually caused by pyogenic (pus-forming) bacteria

316
Q

What is renal calculus?

A

a kidney stone

317
Q

What is uremia?

A

urea in the blood (usually means kidney failure)

318
Q

What are the two types of glands?

A

exocrine (secretes substances into ducts) and endocrine (secrete substances directly into the bloodstream)

319
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located?

A

“master gland”, located at the base of the brain in the sella turcica

320
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

over-secretion of somatotropin in an adult, usually caused by a benign tumor of the pituitary

ENLARGEMENT OF FOREHEAD, HANDS, FEET

321
Q

What is gigantism?

A

over-secretion of somatotropin, tall, mental retardation

322
Q

What is diabetes insipidus?

A

caused by decreased secretion of somatotropin or ADH, polyuria, excessive thirst (polydipsia)

323
Q

What are the 7 life stages?

A

infant - birth to 1 year
early childhood: 1 - 6 yrs
late childhood: 6-12 yrs
adolescence: 12-18 yrs
early adulthood: 19-40 yrs
middle adulthood: 40-65 yrs

324
Q

When do the most dramatic life changes in development occur?

A

first year of life

325
Q

How many words does a 6 year old know?

A

1500-2500 (very verbal, want to know how to read and write)

326
Q

What are some signs of autism?

A

avoiding eye contact, persistent repetition of words/movements

327
Q

What is the male climacteric?

A

when men experience a slowing hormone production over time

328
Q

What is Maslow’s Hierarchy?

A

the lower needs should be met before higher needs (physiological, safety, love, self esteem, self-actualization – obtaining full potential)

329
Q

What are 10 defense mechanisms (unconscious acts that help people deal with unpleasant events)?

A

rationalization, projection (placing blame on someone else), displacement (transferring feelings), compensation (substituting one thing for another), daydreaming, repression (unconscious transfer into back of mind), suppression (aware transfer into back of mind), regression, denial, withdrawal

330
Q

What is gerontology?

A

scientific study of aging

331
Q

What are some effects of aging on

  1. integumentary
  2. muscular/skeletal
  3. respiratory
  4. ocular
  5. digestive
  6. excretory
A
  1. sebaceous and sudoriferous (oil and sweat) glands decrease, hair loses color
  2. osteoporosis and arthritis
  3. emphysema and bronchitis
  4. cataracts and glaucoma
  5. dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
  6. nocturia (urine at night), incontinence (inability to control urination)
332
Q

What is delirium?

A

confusion or disorientation is a TERMPORARY/NORMAL CONDITION caused by a treatable condition

333
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

a form of dementia, lack of neurotransmitters (maybe a genetic, missing enzyme, toxic effects of aluminum???)

334
Q

What is ethnicity?

A

classification of people according to national origin/culture

335
Q

Some ethnic groups…
ASIAN AMERICAN
AFRICAN AMERICAN
HISPANIC
EUROPEAN

A

Australian, Cambodian, Indian, Guam, Indonesia

Dominican Republic, Haiti, Jamaica

Cuba, Mexico, Spain

Austria, Czech Republic, Denmark, England, France

336
Q

What is a nuclear family? What is an extended family?

A

one or two parents and children

+ grandparents, aunts, uncles

337
Q

What are 4 religious beliefs?

A

Amish: God the Father, Jesus Christ, the Holy Spirit, Bible, body buried in coffin

Baptism: God the Father, Jesus Christ, the Holy Spirit, Bible, agree with medical intervention

Buddhism: reincarnation, suffering inevitable

Islam: body turned to mecca after death, Allah is supreme

338
Q

What is an atheist and agnostic?

A

person who does not believe in any deity

person who believes that existence of God cannot be proved or disproved

339
Q

How many glasses of water a day should a person drink?

A

6-8 glasses

340
Q

What are some MyPlate guidelines for meat, veggies, fruit, cheese, fat?

A

palm of hand of meat
fist of veggies
thumb of cheese
half-thumb of fat

341
Q

What is a guideline to maintain weight?

A

15 calories/pound per day

342
Q

What is a liquid diet?

A

clear and full liquids (carbs and water, apple/grape juices, tea)

343
Q

What are low-cholesterol diets used for?

A

for people with atherosclerosis and heart disease

344
Q

What are bland diets?

A

easily digested foods that don’t irritate the digestive tract, gastric disorders, colitis

345
Q

What is ergonomics?

A

an applied science used to promote an individual’s safety and well-being

346
Q

What is the relationship between records and files?

A

multiple records in a file

347
Q

What is HIE?

A

a national health information exchange to allow healthcare agencies to transfer patient electronic health records (EHR)

348
Q

What are some examples of cardiac tests?

A

electrocardiogram, exercise stress test (exercising heart rate), nuclear stress test (thallium given intravenously to track heart condition), dobutamine/adenosine stress test (exercise test but without actual exercise)

349
Q

What are 3 examples of imaging devices?

A

Computerized Tomography (CT): X-ray to see cross sections of bone and body tissues and to find tumors

MRI: more easy to see tumors, blood moving through veins, reactions, metal reactions w/ magnets

PET: cancer, metastasis, tumor size

Ultrasonography: ultrasounds for tumors, aneurysms, babies!!!

Computer-aided detection (CADe): uses AI to detect disease (breast tissue cancers, calcification, abnormal tumors)

350
Q

What are the two major types of radiation therapy?

A

external-beam (photon beams to kill cancer cells by destroying DNA) and brachytherapy (radioactive isotopes in pellets)

351
Q

How are pulse oximeters used?

A

placed on a finger or heel for an infant

352
Q

What is telemedicine?

A

use of video, audio, and computer systems to provide medical or health care services

353
Q

What are firewalls?

A

protective programs that limit the ability of other computers to access a computer

354
Q

When is ___ used?
addition
subtraction
multiplication
division
fractions

A

supplies, oral intake, adding IV intake

determining weight loss/gain, pulse deficit

payroll hours, lab tests, magnification power of a microscope

diets, cost per item, statistics, lab tests

height and weight, solutions, dosages, infant head circumference

355
Q

What are some roman symbols?

A

I - 1
II - 2
III -3
IV - 4
V - 5

X - 10
L - 50
C - 100
D - 500
M - 1000,

if small placed before large, subtraction (IX, IL)

same numeral cannot be repeated three times in a row

XXX = 30
XXXX not 40, XL = 40

356
Q

What angles should 4 specific injections be given?

A

intramuscular: 90*
subcutaneous: 45*
intravenous: 25*
intradermal: 10-15*

357
Q

How is drop labeled in nomenclature?

A

gtt

358
Q

What are some common equivalents?

GTT TO t
t to T
T to oz
oz to C
C to pt
pt to qt
qt to gal

A

60 gtt = 1 t (teaspoon), 3 t = 1 T (tablespoon), 2 T = 1 oz, 8 oz = 1 C, 2 C = 1 pt, 2 pt = 1 qt, 4 qt = 1 gal

359
Q

What is the apothecary system?

A

oldest and least used of the three systems of measurement, 1 minim = 1 drop, 60 minim = 1 fl dr (fluid-dram), 8 fl dr = 1 fl oz (fluid ounce), 16 fl oz = 1 pt

360
Q

How many mL in a tsp? How many mL in an oz? How many mL in a pt?

A

5, 30, 500 (473 exactly)

361
Q

How many ounces in a kilogram? How many pounds in a kilogram?

A

35.2 oz, 2.2 lb

362
Q

How to convert F to C?

A

(F-32)* 5/9 = C

363
Q

What is the 12th hour and 24th hour on Military Time?

A

12:00 AM - 24th 2400
12:00 PM - 12th 1200

last two digits are minute (5:31 AM ) = (0531)
(5:31 PM) = (1731)

364
Q

80% of cancerous brain tumors are…

A

gliomas

365
Q

Why is using good body mechanics important (4 reasons)?

A

muscles work best when used correctly, makes lifting/pushing easier, saves energy and prevents fatigue, prevents injury

366
Q

What are eight basic body mechanics rules?

A

maintain a good base of support, bend from hips/knees (not at waist), use strongest muscles (shoulders, upper arms, hips and thighs), weight of your body = useful, heavy objects close to body, don’t twist, don’t bend for long periods, get help with mechanical lifts

367
Q

The Occupation Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals Standard requires…

A

employers inform employees of all chemicals and hazards in the workplace

368
Q

What are Safety Data Sheets? How many sections are there?

A

16 sections to locate and understand info about handling hazardous chemicals

369
Q

What is the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard?

A

protecting health care providers from diseases caused by exposure to body fluids (CDC guidelines)

EXAMPLES: urine, blood, semen, stool, cerebrospinal fluid, saliva, mucus

370
Q

What three diseases can be contracted by body fluid exposure?

A

hepatitis B, hepatitis C, AIDS

371
Q

Where is mercury used?

How should mercury NOT be disposed?

A

Mercury is used in dental offices, older sphygmomanometers, Bible, , glass thermometers.

Children, under six are very susceptible.

Vacuum cleaners or brooms should NEVER BE USED. Mercury should NEVER BE POURED DOWN A TOILET.

372
Q

National Fire Protection Association’s 704M label….

A

DIAMOND SHAPE

FLAMMABILITY HAZARD – TOP
4 - very flammable
0 - will not burn

REACTIVITY HAZARD – MIDDLE RIGHT
4 - may detonate
0 - stable

HEALTH HAZARD - MIDDLE EFT
4 - deadly
0 - normal materials

SPECIFIC HAZARD – BOTTOM
oxy - oxidizer
cor - corrosive

373
Q

What three things do fires need to start?

A

oxygen, fuel, heat

374
Q

What is the major cause of fires?

A

unattended cooking fires

375
Q

What are the four classes of fire extinguishers?

A

A: used on fires involving combustibles - paper, cloth, plastic and wood
B: used on fires involving flammable, gasoline, oil, paint
C: electrical fires such as fuse boxes
D: specific for types of metals
K: burning cooking materials and fats and greases

376
Q

What are the 5 different types of fire extinguishers?

A

Water - Class A
CO2 - Class B or Class C
Dry chemical - Class A, B, C
Class K = (dry and wet chemical)
Halon - Class C

377
Q

What is RACE?

A

Fire Emergency Plan (Rescue, Activate alarm, Contain fire, Extinguish)

378
Q

Diplococci bacteria cause…

A

gonorrhea, meningitis, pneumonia

379
Q

Streptococci bacteria cause…

A

severe sore throat, rheumatic fever, Strep A (flesh-eating strep)

380
Q

Diseases caused by bacilli…

A

cause tuberculosis, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough), botulism, diptheria

381
Q

Diseases caused by spirilla are…

A

syphilis and cholera

382
Q

What diseases do yeasts cause?

A

ringworm, athlete’s foot, yeast vaginitis, thrush (mouth white)

383
Q

What are rickettsiae?

A

parasitic microorganisms (cannot live outside the cells of another organism), cause typhus fever

384
Q

What diseases do viruses cause?

A

common cold, measles, mumps, chicken pox, herpes, warts, influenza, polio

385
Q

What is the West Nile virus?

A

mosquito-born flavivirus that first infected birds but now infects humans

386
Q

What is monkeypox?

A

a hantavirus that affects monkeys, other primates, rodents – flu-like symptoms

387
Q

What is H5N1? What is H1N1?

A

bird flu, swine flu

388
Q

What is another name for hepatitis B?

A

serum hepatitis

389
Q

What are helminths?

A

multicellular parasites commonly called worms or flukes (hookworms in heart muscle), trichinella spiralis

390
Q

What is endogenous vs exogenous?

A

infection originates within the body
infection originates outside the body

391
Q

What are opportunistic infections?

A

candidasis (yeast), Kaposi’s sarcoma (cancer)

392
Q

What are fomites?

A

objects contaminated with infectious material that contains the pathogen

393
Q

What does sterile mean?

A

free from all organisms, both pathogenic and nonpathogenic

394
Q

What are 2 common antiseptics?

A

alcohol, benadine

395
Q

What are some high-priority agents?

A

smallpox (variola virus), anthrax (bacterial), plague (Yersinia pestis), botulism, tularemia (no vaccine yet), hemorrhagic fever (filovirus)

396
Q

How should one wash their hands?

A

fingertips downward, soup and warm water, friction, dry paper towels to turn off faucet

397
Q

What is the Needlestick Safety Act?

A

identify and use safer medical devices that retract or have sliding sheaths, maintain an injury log

398
Q

What are standard precautions?

A

rules developed by the CDC to prevent infection

handwashing, gloves (rings removed), gowns, masks and eye protection, sharps (container to discard sharp objects), spills/splashes (10% bleach), resuscitation device (to avoid mouth-to-mouth), waste and linen-disposal, injuries

399
Q

What is an autoclave?

A

piece of equipment that uses steam under pressure and gas to sterilize equipment

400
Q

What is an autoclave? Facts, temperature…

A

piece of equipment that uses steam under pressure and gas to sterilize equipment

autoclave indicators will be used to ensure articles have been sterilized and articles will be wrapped before autoclaved

320-350*F

401
Q

Why is chemical sterilization an inaccurate term?

A

chemicals do not cause complete sterilization but rather cold disinfection

402
Q

What is cavitation?

A

bubbles striking an item and the item exploding

403
Q

The __ inch border around the sterile fields is considered contaminated.

A

2

404
Q

What are three common techniques to remove items from sterile wraps?

A

drop technique (gauzes, dressings)
mitten technique (bowls)
transfer forceps (really small items)

405
Q

What is a communicable disease?

A

disease caused by a pathogenic organism that can easily be transmitted to others

406
Q

What does “clean” mean?

A

The object does not contain disease-producing organisms.

407
Q

What patient should droplet precautions be followed by?

A

patient coughing, sneezing, talking

408
Q

What is protective or reverse isolation?

A

mainly for immunocompromised patients, patient protects themselves

409
Q

What are the five main vital signs?

A

temperature, pulse, respirations, blood pressure, pain

410
Q

How can temperature be measured by?

A

mouth (oral), rectum (rectal), armpit (axillary), ear (aural), temporal (across forehead)

axillary and groin temps are external and not very accurate

rectal temps are accurate

411
Q

What is pulse? What is rate?

A

pressure of the blood against the wall of an artery, rate = number of beats / minute, rhythm = regularity

apical pulse = apex of the heart

412
Q

What do respirations reflect?

A

breathing rate of the patient

413
Q

What is pyrexia? What is hyperthermia?

A

fever, temp exceeds 104*F

febrile – fever present
afebrile – fever not present

414
Q

What are the different types of thermometers?

A

Clinical: mercury
Electronic: most commonly used
Tympanic: to record aural temperature

415
Q

How do you record temperature?

A

temperature recorded to nearest two-tenths of degree, 98.6 recorded to 98^6, 100.2 recorded to 100^2

R for rectum, Ax for axillary, A for aural, TA for temporal

416
Q

What are some major arterial sites to get pulse?

A

temporal (forehead), carotid (neck), radial (wrist), popliteal (behind the knee)

PULSE IS USUALLY TAKEN OVER RADIAL ARTERY

417
Q

What is bradycardia? What is tachycardia?

A

<60 beats per minute, >100 beats per minute

418
Q

What three facts are noted when respiration is taken?

A

rate, character, rhythm

419
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

severe dyspnea, breathing is difficult in any position other than sitting or standing

420
Q

What is Cheyne-Stokes?

A

abnormal breathing pattern (dyspnea, apnea), noted in dying patients

421
Q

What are rales?

A

bubbling/cracking noisy sounds by fluid in chest

422
Q

What is wheezing?

A

difficult breathing with a high-pitched whistling, narrowing of bronchioles

423
Q

What is a pulse deficit?

A

a condition that occurs when the heart is too weak to pump enough blood for a pulse

APICAL - RADIAL = PULSE DIFICIT

424
Q

What are the two types of blood pressure measurements?

A

systolic = left ventricle contracting
diastolic = left ventricle at rest

PULSE PRESSURE = systolic - diastolic

425
Q

What is elevated blood pressure?

A

systolic: 120-129 AND diastolic < 80

426
Q

When may hypertension occur (4 reasons)?

A

heart failure, dehydration, depression, burns

427
Q

What are the three main types of sphygmomanometers?

A

mercury, aneroid, electronic

brachial artery used

428
Q

What is the first step to first aid?

A

recognize when an emergency exists

429
Q

When to call EMS when alone…

A

unconscious adult, child after puberty, infant with high risk of heart problems, victim with cardiac arrest

430
Q

When to start CPR?

A

infant or child before puberty, victim of submersion or drowning, victim with cardiac arrest caused by drug overdose or trauma

FIVE CYCLES – 2 MIN

431
Q

What is cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

A

breath for person and circulate blood

432
Q

What are the two types of deaths?

A

clinical death: heart stops beating and victim stops breathing
biological death: 4-6 min after clinical death and brain damage

433
Q

What is the CPR sequence?

A

C: circulation
A: airway
B: breathing
D: defibrillation

434
Q

How to help choking?

A

if conscious and able to talk/breathe, encourage them to cough hard

if conscious but not able to talk/breathe, abdominal thrust

435
Q

What are the 6 types of open wounds?

what is abrasion, incision, laceration, puncture, avulsion, amputation

A

abrasion: scrape
incision: knife, scissors
laceration: tearing of tissue
puncture: little hole
avulsion: tissue is separated
amputation: limb torn away

436
Q

What is the difference between arterial and venous blood during bleeding?

A

spurts from a wound, heavy blood loss, bright red
MORE THREATENING

dark reed, slow, steady

437
Q

What are four steps taken to help bleeding victims?

A

direct pressure, elevation, pressure bandage, tourniquet

438
Q

What is shock known as?

A

Hypoperfusion

439
Q

What is diaphoresis?

A

excessive perspiration

440
Q

What to do if poisoning occurs?

A

call a poison control center, save the substance taken, save a sample of vomitus, estimate how much time was taken for poisoning to occur

441
Q

What is a commonly inhaled poison?

A

carbon monoxide

442
Q

How to treat contact poisoning?

A

wash with soap and water, apply corticosteroid cream

443
Q

What NOT to do for snake bite and spider bite?

A

do not cut the wound or apply a tourniquet

444
Q

What are the three types of burns?

A

1st degree - top layer (epidermis) only, reddened/discolored
2nd degree - epidermis AND dermis, blister or vesicle forms, 3-4 weeks to heal
3rd degree - all layers of skin, extremely painful/painless if nerve endings are destroyed, white/charred

445
Q

What is the rule of nines?

A

To calculate what percent of body surface burned (one leg = 9%, chest = 18%)

446
Q

How to treat burns?

A

APPLY WATER, NOT ICE.
APPLY DRY DRESSING.
no cotton or tissues.

447
Q

How to treat frostbite?

A

immerse in warm water

448
Q

What are some signs of fractures?

A

deformity, limited motion, pain and tenderness, swelling

449
Q

What is a dislocation?

A

end of the bone is displaced from a joint or moved

450
Q

What is a sprain?

A

injury to TISSUES surrounding a joint

451
Q

How to make a good splint?

A

long, padded, applied so no pressure

452
Q

How to get things out of eyes?

A

draw upper lid over lower lid to stimulate tears, use water to flush eye

453
Q

How to treat brain injury (3 reasons)?

A

DON’T STOP FLUID FROM NOSE/EARS.

VICTIM FLAT.

NO LIQUIDS.

454
Q

What are three chest injuries?

A

sucking chest wound: deep, chest, allows for breathing
penetrating items: DON’T REMOVE
crushing chest: elevate to aid breathing, don’t move too much

455
Q

How to check for a stroke?

A

FAST.
face, arms, speech, time
F: ask to smile
A: ask to raise both arms
S: ask to speak
T: call 911 immediately

456
Q

What is a convulsion?

A

strong, involuntary contraction of muscles – type of seizure

457
Q

What is a dressing?

A

sterile covering placed over a wound or injured part

458
Q

What are bandages?

A

materials used to hold dressings in place

TYPES – ROLLER GAUZE, TRIANGULAR, ELASTIC

circulation should be there, no blue color

459
Q

What is an externship?

A

unpaid, required as part of a health science education program, set up by an instructor

460
Q

What are 6 job-seeking skills?

A

use good grammar, report on time, be prepared to work, practice teamwork, accept responsibility, be willing to learn

461
Q

How to write a cover letter?

A
  1. purpose for writing
  2. why you are qualified
  3. resume is included
  4. request for an interview

3-4 paragraphs

462
Q

When filling out an application form on paper, what color should one use? How many references?

A

BLACK PEN

at least 3

463
Q

How to be prepared for job interview?

A

dress conservatively (slacks, business suit, ties), hair clean, antiperspirant, 5-10 min early, maintain eye contact

464
Q

What are two documents to provide certification that you can work?

A

Employment Eligibility Verification + birth certificate/passport/immigration card

465
Q

What is the difference between gross income and net income?

A

gross - total
net - “take home” after all payroll deductions, taxes

466
Q

Budgeting?

A

House - 20-35%
Food - 15-30%
Utilities- 4-7%
Clothing - 3-10%

cd (2 decks)

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