Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hematology > Special compre recalls > Flashcards

Special compre recalls Flashcards

1
Q

A clinical finding to differentiate Vit. B12 Deficiency from Folic Acid Deficiency:
a. Macrocytic anemia
b. Neuropathy
c. FIGLU Test
d. Macropolycyte

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A hereditary hemolytic anemia wherein there is an increased MCV, OFT, decreased MCHC and in which RBC morphoplogy must be examine in both wet and dry slides:
a. H. Hydrocytosis
b. H. Pyropoikilocytosis
c. H. Ovalocytosis
d. H. Spherocytosis

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A coagulation test that uses Hick’s Pitney (Koalin Modification):
a. aPTT
b. PT
c. TGT (Thromboplastin Generation Time)
d. TT

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A red cell parameter that determine the packed cell volume:
a. ESR
b. HCT
c. OFT
d. Reticulocyte Count

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An aerobic enzyme that sees to it that Hb must always be in its functional state:
A. Isomerase
B. Methemoglobin reductase
C. Diaphorase
D. G6PD

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following abnormalities is thought to be a primary cause of the severe fragmentation and microspherocytosis characteristics of hereditary pyropoikilocytosis?
a. Unstable membrane lipids
b. Membrane spectrin deficiency
c. Defective membrane spectrin tetramer assembly
d. Susceptibility of spectrin to thermal denaturation

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Plasma protein necessary for the adhesion of platelets to subendothelial fibers
a. Factor X
b. pF3
c. vW factor
d. Glycoprotein 1b

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Gumprecht shadow or ghost cell is also known as:
a. Macropolycyte
b. Basket cell
c. Tart Cell
d. Hairy Cell

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Zimmer and Hargrave method for L.E Cell Prep uses:
a. Capillary Blood
b. Clotted Blood
c. Heparinized Blood
d. Defibrinated Blood

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment for inflammatory anemia:

A. H-recombinant IL-1
B. Iron Therapy
C. Blood transfusion
D. Treatment of the inflammation

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fibrinogen determination is performed on:
a. Any body fluid
b. Plasma only
c. Serum only
d. Either serum or plasma

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In acute promyelocytic leukemia, the patient has a bleeding tendency similar to:
a. ITP
b. Hemophilia
c. DIC
d. RA

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being:
a. Markedly bluish in color
b. Variable in shape
c. Packed with hemoglobin
d. Markedly pale in central color

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Considered as a true monocytic leukemia:
a. Schilling
b. Naegeli
c. Hairy Cell
d. Erythroleukemia

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Chemical mediator of cellular immunity which affects lymphocytes and monocytes:
a. Cytokine
b. Antigen
c. Hapten
d. Mitogen

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hemorrhage in polycythemia vera is the result of:
a. Persitent thrombocytosis
b. Increase plasma viscosity
c. Abnormal platelet function
d. Splenic sequestration of platelet

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An abnormal aPTT is not corrected into the normal range when the patient plasma is mixed in equal parts with normal plasma. This indicates:
a. A factor deficiency
b. Dysfibrinogenemia
c. Von Willebrand’s disease
d. A circulating inhibitor

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What reagent is added to conventional aggregometry to test platelet release of dense granules as well as aggregation:
a. ADP
b. Firefly lucipherase
c. ATP
d. Ristocetin

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A cell with a bilobed or double nucleoli having an owl-eye appearance:
a. Reed-Sternberg
b. Tart Cell
c. LE Cell
d. Mast Cell

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A blood sample taken at 6:30 am and received in the laboratory at 1:30 pm could not be tested for:
a. Hct
b. WBC ct
c. RBC ct
d. ESR

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mitochondrial enzyme that catalyzes the incorporation of iron and protoporphyrin:
a. Ferrochelatase
b. Heparinase
c. Isomerase
d. Hexokinase

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A combination of calcium ion, pF3 and active forms of Factor V and X:
a. Thrombinase complex
b. Streptokinase complex
c. Cytokinase complex
d. Prothrombinase complex

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A primary aggregation defects of platelets wherein clot retraction is normal:
a. Thrombopathia
b. Essential athrombia
c. Thrombasthenia
d. Bernard-Soulier

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A primary aggregation defects of platelets wherein clot retraction is normal:
a. Thrombopathia
b. Essential athrombia
c. Thrombasthenia
d. Bernard-Soulier

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dutcher bodies are intranuclear inclusion containing accumulated immunoglobulins. They can be seen in:
a. Lymphocyte
b. Monocyte
c. Plasma Cell
d. Neutrophil

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Elevation of the granulocyte percentage above 80% is termed as:
a. Absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis
b. Leukocytosis
c. Absolute leukocytosis
d. Relative neutrophilic leukocytosis

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Sperical nuclear fragments are pitted from the RBC during passage through the spleen:
a. Siderotic granules
b. Cabot’s Ring
c. Heinz Bodies
d. Basophilic Stippling

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Strongly indicates a serious bacterial infection (over whelming infection):
a. Toxic granulation
b. Dohle bodies
c. Toxic vacuolation
d. Basophilic stippling

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cell that demonstrate immediate alteration in EDTA:
a. Monocyte
b. Lymphocyte
c. Neutrophil
d. Eosinophil

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cell that appear with a smooth, rounded purple “blobs” in the cell:
a. Phagocytic cell
b. Endothelial cell
c. Necrotic cell
d. Megakaryocytic fragments

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Method of hemoglobin determination that measures all forms of hemoglobin except S-Hb
a. Cyanmethemoglobin
b. Electrophoresis
c. Acid hematin
d. Specific gravity

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Di Duglielmo’s syndrome is in what type of leukemia in FAB classification:
a. M3
b. M5
c. M1
d. M6

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Test that uses flow cytometry and monoclonal antibodies for detection
a. PCH
b. PNH
c. HEMPAS
d. IDA

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A fixed tissue cell with a red bead-like aggregates or granules arragned in chain:
a. Heparinocyte
b. Tissue eosinophil
c. Ferrata cell
d. Mast cell

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Major monomer recognized in fibrinogen-fibrin degradation products:
a. Y monomer
b. X monomer
c. D monomer
d. E monomer

A

C

36
Q

Drug used as a thrombolytic therapy:
a. Heparin
b. Indomethacin
c. Coumarin
d. APSAC

A

D

37
Q

A sphingomyelinase deficiency in storage disease:
a. Tay-Sach’s disease
b. Niemann-Pick disease
c. Gaucher’s disease
d. Fabry’s disease

A

B

38
Q

The first site of blood cell formation:
a. Yolk sac
b. Spleen
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver

A

A

39
Q

A disease wherein there is rouleaux formation, presence of BJP and show an M-spike electrohporesis:
a. Heavy chain disease
b. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
c. Smouldering myeloma
d. Multiple myeloma

A

D

40
Q

A method used to monitor the course of anticoagulant therapy in patients receiving coumarin drugs:
a. aPTT
b. PT
c. TT
d. TGT

A

B

41
Q

Bronze elliptocytosis occurs in patients with abnormal hemoglobin as in:
a. HbC
b. HbM
c. HbH
d. HbS

A

D

42
Q

Most common glycolytic enzyme deficiency associated with pentose phosphate pathway:
a. G6PD
b. PK Deficiency
c. GPI Deficiency
d. Hexokinase Deficiency

A

A

43
Q

The viral etiology of SLE can be considered by the presence of: a. Ds DNA
b. DNA RNA Hybrids
c. Ds RNA
d. ENA

A

A

44
Q

An enzyme deficiency that occurs in neutrophil and monocyte which is severe in Candida albican infection:
a. Acid hydrolases
b. Myeloperoxidase
c. Muramidase
d. Phospholipase

A

B

45
Q

The P’s of neurologic manifestation in PA:
1. Pyramidal tract sign
2. Psychosis
3. Peripheral neuropathy
4. Posterior iliac degeneration

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 1,2,3,4

A

A

P’s of neurologic manifestation of PA:
 Psychotic (“Megaloblastic Madness”) – hallucinations,
maniacal outburst, paranoia, schizophrenia
 Peripheral neuropathy
 Posterior spinal column degeneration – demyelination of the
dorsal and lateral column of the spinal cord
 Pyramidal tract sign

46
Q

Which of the following affects erythrocyte sedimentation rate:
1. Composition of plasma
2. Concentration of red cells
3. Size of red cells
4. Shape of red cells

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

Factors affecting ESR:
 Plasma factors
 RBC factors
- Severe anemia
- Number of RBC
- Size of RBC
- Shape of RBC

47
Q

Factors that affects the result of osmotic fragility test include
erythrocyte:
1. Surface volume
2. Membrane function
3. Shape
4. Volume

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

Factors that affect OFT:
 Chemical purity of sodium chloride
 Accuracy of the NaCl sol’n
 Tonicity of the sol’n
pHmustbe7.4
 a temperature rise increases fragility
 Erythrocyte (shape, volume, surface area, membrane function)

48
Q

Condition showing anisochromasia
1. PNH
2. IDA after blood transfusion
3. Megaloblastic anemia
4. Sideroblastic anemia

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

Juanillo page 70 ara bi ang 3 so waay man bi choice nga 2,3,4

49
Q

MAPSS (Multi-angle Polarized Scatter Separation) technology perform the leukocyte differential count basing on:
1. Cellularity
2. Lobularity
3. Cell size
4. Granularity

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

4 simultaneous light scattering measurement:
 Zero-degree forward angle scatter primarily determined cell
size
 Ten-degree light scatter indicated cell structure or complexity
 Ninety-degree light scatter separate granulated cells and is
called lobularity
 Depolarized ninety-degree light scattering – resolve eosinophil
because of their large crystalline granularity

50
Q

The following lead to an erroneous results in the determination of total white cell count:
1. Incorrect filling of the counting chamber
2. Edema at the puncture site
3. Inadequate mixing of the sample
4. Hemolyzed sample

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

51
Q

Cells usually affected when heparin is used an anticoagulant:
1. White blood cells
2. Red blood cells
3. Platelets
4. Endothelial cells

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

C

Heparin is not satisfactory to be used in WBC and platelet count because of cell clumping and morphologic distribution especially in automated cell counting

52
Q

Cell adhesion molecule in hematopoiesis:
1. Interleukin
2. Integrin
3. Kit ligand
4. Selectin

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

C

Cell adhesion molecule (CAM) includes selectins and integrins  Selectin
a. LEC-CAM / L selectin (leukocyte-endothelial cell adhesion molecule)
b. ELAM I / E selectin (endothelial leukocyte adhesion molecule)
c. GPI40/CD62
d. PADGEM / P selectin (platelet activation-dependent
granule external membrane)

53
Q

orrection factors in determining a correct cell count:
1. Depth
2. Area
3. Volume
4. Color

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

Formula
𝑐𝑡 𝑛𝑜. 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑠 𝑐𝑡𝑑 𝑥 𝐷𝐹
𝑅𝐵𝐶 𝑢𝐿 = 𝑛𝑜. 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑠 𝑐𝑡𝑑 (5) 𝑥 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 1 𝑠𝑞𝑎𝑢𝑟𝑒 (0.04𝑚𝑚2)𝑥 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡h(0.1𝑚𝑚)

54
Q

Eosinophilia occurs in:
1. Loeffler’s
2. Virus infection
3. Allergy
4. Appendicitis

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

B

55
Q

Vital stains used in reticulocyte count:
1. NMB
2. Nile blue sulfate
3. BCB
4. Janus green

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 1,2,3,4

A

E

56
Q

Tests for detection of microcytic hypochromic anemia:
1. Serum iron level
2. Serum ferritin level
3. Serum iron binding capacity
4. Serum bilirubin

A.1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 1,2,3,4

A

A

57
Q

Stages for the occurrences of acanthocytosis:
1. Cholesterol loading
2. Membrane spectrin deficiency
3. Splenic remodeling
4. Splenic pitting

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 1,2,3,4

A

B

58
Q

Bar of gold and Washington monument are associated with what hemoglobin abnormality:
1. HbS
2. HbM
3. HbD
4. HbC

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

D

59
Q

Test for chemotaxis:
1. Boyden chamber technique
2. Radioassay for granulocyte chemotaxis
3. Skin window by Rebuck
4. Plastic skin chamber technique

A.1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

60
Q

Occurrences of thrombocytopenia may be due to the following mechanism:
1. Increased platelet consumption
2. Decreased platelet production
3. Increased platelet sequestration
4. Increased platelet destruction

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

61
Q

DIC markers that activated coagulation in vivo:
1. DD dimer
2. DDE trimer
3. Bb 15 – 42 related peptides
4. Helmet cells

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

62
Q

The finding of these cells are strongly suggestive of MicroAngiopathic Hemolytic Anemia or traumatic hemolytic:
1. Biscuit cells
2. Fragmented cells
3. Spherocytes
4. Helmet cells

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

D

Biscuit cell – seen in Hb C, Hb thalassemia, liver dse
Fragmented cells – hallmark of hemolytic anemia
Spherocyte – associated in HS, AIHA, HDN, and march hemoglobinuria

63
Q

High MCV and hematocrit may be due to:
1. Hypernatremia
2. Hyperkalemia
3. High glucose
4. Hyperuricemia

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

64
Q

Laboratory findings in an iron overload patients:
1. Increase serum iron
2. Increase ferritin level
3. Presence of hemosiderin in biopsy of liver and BM
4. Normal erythropoiesis

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

65
Q

A platelet aggregation methods employs the following:
1. Platelet nephelometer
2. SPAT test
3. Lumiaggregation
4. Platelet aggregometer

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 1,2,3,4

A

E

66
Q

Prothrombin group of coagulation factor:
1. Factor X
2. Factor IX
3. Factor VII
4. Factor XI

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

67
Q

Considered as cytotoxic lymphocytes:
1. Natural killer
2. Killer cells
3. Cytotoxic T-lymph
4. LAK

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

68
Q

Laboratory procedures used in the differentiation of acute leukemia:
1. Cytochemical evaluation
2. Cytogenic studies
3. Examination of blastic morphology
4. Liquid chromatography

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

69
Q

High platelet count in automated instrument may be due to:
1. Pappenheimer bodies
2. Microspherocytosis
3. Fragments of leukemic cells
4. Basophilic stippling

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

70
Q

The action of thrombin are inhibited by natural blood substances:
1. Heparin
2. Anti-thrombin
3. Heparin-like substance
4. Plasmin

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

71
Q

Fecal leukocytes in diarrhea are associated with the infection of the following:
1. Shigella
2. Salmonella
3. Yersinia
4. E. coli (invasive strain)

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

B

72
Q

An absolute monocytosis may be seen in:
1. Typhoid
2. Collagen disease
3. Hodgkin’s disease
4. Tuberculosis

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

73
Q

Which of the following are commonly associated with the Epstein- Barr Virus:
1. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
2. Burkitt’s lymphoma
3. AIDS
4. IM

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

D

74
Q

Which of these condition would cause an inaccurate “falsely increased” Westergren sedimentation rate:
1. Increase amount of anticoagulant was used in the test
2. The specimen was refrigerated for 2 hrs
3. The specimen was allowed to sediment for 15 minutes less than the procedure required
4. The sedimentation rack was placed on a counter top with a microhematocrit which was in used

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

75
Q

If when evaluating red cell morphology on Wright’s stain, you notice pappenheimer bodies, which of the following would you recommended be done:
1. Heinz body stain
2. Reticulocyte count
3. Platelet count
4. Iron stain of peripheral smear

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

C

76
Q

Basic mechanism for the occurrence of anemia:
1. Increased destruction
2. Decreased production
3. Due to blood loss
4. Maturation disorders

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

77
Q

Test for detecting Heparin-Induced-Thrombocytopenia:
1. PAT
2. PCM
3. ELISA
4. Immunofluorescent

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

78
Q

A pure T-cell deficiency:
1. Nezelof’s syndrome
2. Orotic aciduria
3. Di George syndrome
4. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

B

79
Q

Factors that interact to produce the resting biconcave shape of the red blood cells:
1. Osmotic or hydrostatic pressure
2. Electrical forces on the membrane
3. Surface tension
4. Elastic forces within the membrane

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

80
Q

A blood picture of giant platelets and thrombocytopenia:
1. Alport syndrome
2. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
3. May-Hegglin anomaly
4. Essential Athrombia

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

81
Q

Basopenia may be due to:
1. Acute infection
2. Stress
3. Treatment with adrenal glucocorticoid
4. Hyperthyroidism

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

82
Q

Pathologic increase in ESR may be due to:
1. Necroblotic cell state
2. Degenerative
3. Inflammatory
4. Pregnancy

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

83
Q

Polycythemia vera patients treated with chemotherapeutic drugs show:
1. HJ bodies
2. Oval macrocytes
3. Macropolycytes
4. Large agranular platelets

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

E

84
Q

RBC diluting fluid
1. Pilot’s fluid
2. Gower’s fluid
3. Turk’s fluid
4. Toisson’s fluid

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 1,2,3,4

A

C

85
Q

Considered as transport protein:
1. Haptoglobin
2. Transferrin
3. Hemopexin
4. Hemosiderin

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 4
E. 1,2,3,4

A

A

86
Q

Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is decreased in:
1. CGL
2. PCH
3. PNH
4. Polycythemia vera

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3
C. 2,4
D. 1,2,3,4

A

B

Hematology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions