Spec Flashcards
What is RAPID R? (MASP)
R - Manage System Resources
A - Produces Acoustics Data Display
P - Acoustic Signal Processing
I - Manages Operator Machine Interface OMI
D - Manages Diagnostics
R - Recorder (EADR)
What is DRAAMS? (MASR)
D - Demodulation of signal
R - Radio Frequency Interference Mitigation - RFI
A - Analog to digital conversion
A - Acoustic Test Signal Generation - ATSG
M - Measures Signal Strength
S - Sonobuoy Positioning System - SPS
What is Pre-Whitening?
A form of normalisation. Progressive attenuation of low frequencies.
What is the QEP?
Quad External Pre-Amplifier.
Amplifies sonobuoy signal as soon as it enters the A/C.
What are the factors affecting detection?
Resolution
Normalisation
Integration
What is the cell layout for Narrowband Boxcar?
64, 3, 64
What is the cell layout for Broadband Boxcar?
64, 55, 64
What is the MAS?
Mission Acoustic Subsystem
What are the MAS components in order?
Blade antenna set
QEP (Amplifier)
MASR (Receiver)
MASP (Processor)
EADR (Recorder)
What is QEP?
Quad External Pre-Amplifier
What is MASR?
Mission Acoustics Subsystem Receiver
What is MASP?
Mission Acoustics Subsystem Processor
What is EADR and what is its function?
Embedded Acoustics Data Recorder
1) 2 Chanel ICS recording
2) record/replay 64 channels of acoustic data
By how much does the QEP amplify by? (dBs)
36dB +/- 2dB
What are the types of built in test?
Initiated
Power On
Continuous
What are the display types?
Active
Passive
Environmental
Multi-static
What is the acronym for the MASP?
RAPIDR
What is the acronym for the MASR
DRAAMS
What are the two types of RFI mitigation? (Radio Frequency Interference)
Spacial & spectral
What is ATSG?
Acoustic Test Signal Generation
What are the modes of DIFAR
CSO - Constant shallow OMNI (45ft)
CO - Calibrated OMNI
XCO - Extended calibrated OMNI
DIFAR
What is range gate blanking?
DICASS can’t receive echoes during transmit, so if the SM is inside the half pulse length @ 1 sec I.E 833yds this won’t be seen
What is the generally accepted figure for acoustic velocity? (Speed of sound in ft or yrd’s not M)
5000ft/sec or 1667 yds/sec
What distance does a 1 second continuous wave (CW) cover?
1667 yards
What are the Dicass ping Modes?
CW - Continous wave
FM - Frequency modulated
What are the continuous wave lengths in terms of time?
0.1/0.5/1 second
What does EFS stand for?
Electronic function select
What does CFS stand for?
Command function select
What DIFAR channels are not available and why?
57 & 58 are harmonics of the comms/ICS freq 291.4
What are the properties of the DIFAR Bouy?
SSQ-53G
Size A
9.5kg
0.5/1/2/4/8 hours
90/200/400/1000ft depth
1W RF power output
Channels 1-99 excluding 57&58
0-370kts
40-30,000ft
AGC (off/slow/fast)
What is significant about a longer CW?
The longer the pulse the greater the range but the worse the resolution and reverberation
What type of target is FM better for tracking?
Slow moving masked by reverberation
What RF channels may cause interference with GPS receiver?
49-52 & 88-90
What are the properties of a DICASS buoy?
SSQ-62 F
A Size
15.9kg
1 hour/50 ping seconds
D1: 50/150/300ft
D2: 90/400/1500ft
1W RF Power output
Channels 1-99 except 57/58
0-370kts and 40-30,000 ft
What is the definition of integration?
The addition of signal power in a spectrum of frequency cells over a period of time
What are the sonic frequencies?
A - 6.5khz - 199dB
B - 7.5khz - 200dB
C - 8.5khz - 201dB
D - 9.5khz - 201dB
What does DICASS give the operator? IN CORRECT ORDER
Bearing
Range
Doppler Velocity
What are the 4 types of display?
Environmental
Active
Passive
Multi-static (not used)
What are the 5 DIFAR channels?
Pilot
Phase reference
OMNI
North/South
East/West
What is Normalisation?
The process of enhancing weak spectral lines above uniform background data.
Or
The kits ability to enhance a frequency line above background noise
What are the properties of a bathybuoy
SSQ-36B
A size
7.3kg
5ft sec sink rate
2625ft/800m depth
Chn 1-99
12 min life/9 to depth
0.25W RF output
0-370kts IAS
40-30,000ft
Temp range -2.2 - +35 deg C
What is the official name for the MAS?
AQ2
or AN/AQQ-2(V)1
What frequency allows comms with a sonobouy?
291.4mhz
What do the different colours chicklets mean?
White - Parametric (software transition)
Black - No power
Grey - No response
Cyan - IBIT
Green - Serviceable
Yellow - Degraded
Red - Error/failed
What are the Kilo codes
A - Fully mission capable
B - Minor system degradation
C - Major system degradation
D. Not mission capable
What does a magenta line around the grams mean?
It has been frozen by the operator
What are the 3 factors affecting SOS in water and what are the associated figures
T - Temperature = 6ft/s per °C
S - Salinity = 4.6ft/s per PPT
P - Pressure = 1.6ft/s per 100ft
What is the definition of the sonic layer depth?
The depth of the first maximum sound speed nearest the surface.
What is the drift rate for a sonobuoy with long cable? (1000ft)
5% of wind speed
What is the drift rate for a sonobuoy with a short cable? (90-400ft)
10% of wind speed
What is the fixed rate of salinity in AQ2v
35ppt @39° @sea level 4800ft/sec
What are the 3 types of prop loss
Cylindrical -3dB
Spherical -6dB
Dipolar -12dB
How many data points in Wilson’s algorithm?
640
How many data points are in CML Algorithm?
(Chen/mellor/Li)
30
What is the depth/frequency spectrum of CSO and what is it used for?
45ft
30-5000hz
To exploit Aco data above SLD. DIFAR/Co are inhibited
What is the frequency spectrum of CO/XCO?
CO - 5-20k hz
XCO - 5-40k hz
CSO/DIFAR inhibited during use. Used primarily for ACINT Data collection
What is the frequency spectrum of DIFAR?
5-2560hz
5 hydrophones (NS/EW/OMNI) + pilot 7.5khz and phase ref 15khz
What is the figure for RD (recognition differential)
Minus 6.5db
(becomes a plus in FOM calc)
What are the door operating limitations?
Damage/injury may occur if the door is
A) operated in winds >40kts
B) left open in winds >65kts
How many fire extinguishers are there?
6
How many portable oxygen masks are there?
5 (9 point check)
What is the nominal oxygen system pressure?
1850psi
Where is the flight deck oxgen bottle system?
Electrical Equipment compartment (EEC)
What is the Max POB?
21 (RAF certified)
What is the figure in dB’s for DI? (Directivity index)
5.5dB
How do you reset a Lloyds mirror CPA?
Orange dot/circle top left
What derives the position of the aircraft
MASP
What is the FOM EQUATION
FOM = SL-AN-RD = MDR
What is left after the carrier wave is stripped in the the receiver?
Multiplexed data
What is a SUS and how many codes are there/DB level/life?
Signal underwater sound
Mk84
160db
70 seconds
5 codes
How many safety pins are there?
8 +1 inside doors
3 x landing gear
2 x reverse thrust
1 x nose wheel
1 x weapons bay
1 x counter measure
How many external safety lights are there?
6
What are the standoff distances for RADAR?
HERP - 169ft
HERF - 95ft
HERO - 302/348ft
(Hazard of electromagnetic radiation to Pers/fuel/ordnance)
What 3 racks have equipment still active after the rack cut off switch has been appplied?
E810 - V/UHF1
E860 - ESM chiller
E870 - radar fan
How do you secure power (turn off) to V/UHF1 if SPDS is in fail safe mode
Pull COMMUNICATIONS V/UHF RT1 BAT CB (P18-2:D12)
What is the ECS and what is is for
Environmental conditioning system - provides cooling to mission equipment
If SPDS is in fail safe mode what will not work?
Rack cut off switches
What is AFACS
Avionics forced air cooling system
What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for RADAR?
HERP 169ft
HERF 95ft
HERO 302ft
What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for HF?
HERP 17ft
HERF 98ft
HERO 285ft
What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for IFFI?
HERP 4.5ft
HERF 1.2ft
HERO 20ft
What temperature must the cabin not exceed with mission power applied?
97 degrees F
If the cabin temp exceeds 100 degrees F what must be done?
Turn off power to mission systems to allow temperature to drop below 97 degree F
The AFACS alarm sounds, what is the probable cause?
1) Low airflow in ECS draw-thru
2) ESM chiller failure
With regard to the AFACS alarm, what temperature should the aft cabin not exceed before beginning decreasing mission systems load to avoid damage?
80 degrees F
What does an E2E test do?
Sends signal from MASP to MASRS to simulate a passive contact transmitting 10 freqs. Compares 5/10 against list of expected signals
What are the EO/IR operating limits?
29,000ft
300kts
-53degrees C — +55 degrees C
Prohibited in icing conditions
What are the three frequencies broadcast in the EPLB?
121.5mhz
243mhz
406mhz
What 3 ways can you secure power to the QEP?
1) SSPC’s via SPDS
2) cut off switch for E840 - this method also secured power to MASRS in E860
3) cut off switch for E860 - this method secures power to the whole MAS (QEP/MASRS/MASP)
What are the SFMT colour states? (Line quality indicator under vernier)
Red - tracking
Purple - pending
Yellow - non contributing
Orange - dead reckon
On fr85 what colour are system verniers and user verniers respectively?
Green = system verniers
Gold = user verniers
On fr85 what colour are system verniers and user verniers respectively?
Green = system verniers
Gold = user verniers
What does LTI processing provide data for?
ALI and BFI
What is the timeframe in which pers are not to consume alcohol before flying?
10 hours & minimised in the 24 hours beforehand
What is the max crew duty time for 1 day?
16 hours (0500-1459)
14 hours (1500-0459)
Can be extended by 1hr by aircraft commander via DDH
What is the CRP? (Crew rest period)
Time between two periods of CDT in which 8 hours is allowed for uninterrupted sleep
Crew duty periods can be extended by how much?
Sqn Cdr - up to 2 hours
DDH - up to 3 hours
AOC - over 3 hours
When are PME’s valid until?
No later than the last day of the month in which the next PME is due
How long before you can fly after a general/local anaesthetic?
7 days general
12 hours local
How long before you can fly after donating blood?
36 hours
(or as directed by a MAME (Mil aeromed examiner)
How long before you can fly after exposure to CS?
12 hours
When are dental and CR cx valid until?
Until the day of expiration
What are the three LEDS/switches on the front of the processor
LEDS -
Over temp - sensors at back are high temp
Fan fail -
BIST - indicates processor has passed self check
Power switch (serves as CB)
Guarded ‘FLASH ERASE’
What does ALI provide?
Frequency vs signal amplitude
(Skyscrapers)
What does BFI provide?
Frequency vs bearing
What does BTH provide?
Bearing vs time
What are the memeroy items for APU fire?
Inside - pull, rotate to the left or right until BOTTLE DISCHARGE illuminates, APU switch to off
Outside - starboard wheels well. Pull handle down, flick switch to left and leave
Automatically goes off after 11 seconds
What are the memory items for Smoke, fire or fumes?
1) Alert crew, execute firefighting duties
2) Don oxygen, regulators 100% as required
What will selection of the buoy proximity sort (BUOY PROX SORT) achieve?
Sorts ADD sonobuoy objects according to their proximity to a designated geographic point on the TSD
How many Acoustic Operators can the MAS accommodate?
3
If a venting sonobuoy is located in an SRL or SSL, what should the crew do?
Launch all buoys in the affected SRL or SSL. (Follow yellow cards)
Forward fire-fighting duties for ACO1 include moving to the vicinity or the forward cabin control panel, turn on the emergency exit lights (as required) and set the entry and ceiling forward cabin lighting to what?
Bright
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A FUNCTION OF THE MAS?
A. VHF signal reception
B. Signal splitting
C. RF signal conditioning
ANS B Signal splitting
What is the role of the QEP?
Provides incoming RF conditioning and amplification (+36db +-2)
Where is the ATSG embedded?
MASRS
Can Recording and Replay of the EADR be performed concurrently?
No
How many blade antenna are in the MASRS antenna array?
4 - underside of aircraft
List 2 functions of the EADR
Two channel ICS Recording
Recording and Replay of up to 64 channels 8hrs
Zeroise capability from rack E810 or via the guarded switch on the MASP
AOFP for Acoustics
How many SSQ-62 buoys can the MAS process?
64
How many minutes of passive data does one EADR Hard drive store for recall on the ADDs?
60 mins
List 3 ways of securing power to the QEP.
MASRS SSPC LSK (SPDS CDU)
Cut off switch at E840 or E860
Which antenna is the preferred path for downlink commands?
VUHF1 (Lower)
If you notice a venting sonobuoy, what actions would you take?
Alert crew, avoid area
Data from how many sonobuoys may be used to feed the SFMT algorithm?
And what is the minimum
8 max
Min 2 with 3 bits of info
What inputs does the AOB require for calculation?
F0 and speed
How many beams of DIFAR PROCESSING are performed concurrently?
5
How many BT SVP display can be displayed at once?
3
Where are DOWNLINK command created before being sent to the CFS TD?
MASP
What is the indication that DIFAR has lost lock or lock not achieved?
RED line on the RHS of the gram
Which button on the Common Area PEP resets the data the most current time?
SCROLL RESET
How many concurrent processed resolutions are available on the mainband?
3
What does ANR perform for DIFAR and DICASS?
Allows suppression of unwanted noise and focuses on target related sounds.
What is the frequency response of the CSO Hydrophone?
30hz - 5khz
What does the colour status of RED on the SMT indicate?
Tracking (in use)
What does the colour status of ORANGE on the SMT indicate?
DR
What does a BLUE line tracker marker indicate?
Contact Criteria Frequency
What does tuning a sonobuoy mean?
Selecting data from that sonobuoy for processing
What is the Buoy colour code for a local, tuned buoy?
White
What is the Buoy colour code for a local, non-tuned buoy?
Green
What is the Buoy colour code for a local, degraded or life expired buoy?
Yellow
What is the buoy letter identifier for DIFAR, DICASS and Bathy?
D, S and BT respectively
How many data points are required to generate an SFMT target tracker?
3
What is the minimum number of passive buoys required to generate an SMT target tracker if nearing information is available from at least one buoy?
2
How many buoys can be to sent to the MAS for processing?
64
What integration time does the colour bearing LTI use?
The same as selected in the LTI menu
What are the advantages of using NULL STEER beam in the direction of a non target course?
To increase the target processing SNR
Where is the BTH display created from?
BFI
What %of lost comms will result in SPDS fail safe
40%
What are symptoms/precursors of SDPS fail safe?
Loss of radar heartbeat
Slow TOMS
AUX FUEL transfer caption on FD
When will emergency lights come on?
DC 1 BUS failure
How many people are required for destruction duties?
6
How noisy does it get on board generally?
85db
What does active anti collision lights indicate?
Engines are running
What is the accuracy of COSPASARAAT without GPS?
1.1nm
What are the cx carried out at cond3?
ICS (done while reporting equipment stat)
EQUIPMENT STAT
ALERTS
CLEAR ALERTS
How long does it take MCDS to boot?
18 mins
What are the types of SSPC failures/trips?
Unacknowledged (at top)
Acknowledge
What overrides all ICS channels?
All call
How many SSPCS’s can be shown on SPDS?
24
4 x 6 pages
What is the capacity of the portable O2 bottles?
22 cubic ft
Where is the best place for PAX to be seated and why?
6 pack - as far forward as possible with harness and facing backwards
Who is responsible for sending a mayday message
COTAC/Pilot monitoring but anyone can
In what positions can UNIPAC be loaded
6&8
What is the oxygen setting for crew suffering from hypoxia
100%
What indications are there on the flight deck of a rack alarm?
Non
How many passes are carried out during fire fighting before a decision is made?
Up to 3 passes when carrying out firefighting duties.
When do don oxygen lights illuminate and what audible que do you get?
When the cabin alt is 10k+
Or as initiated by flight deck
signs activate with 3 hi/lo chimes + bitchin betty
How do you change the MAP layout?
In the comms pep
How many fixed oxygen systems are there on board?
2
Define a SPDS fail safe
Reset prompt on SPDS CDU.
How many times can SSPC’s be reset before lock out?
2
How many life vests are on board for PAX?
12
What are definitions of warning, caution and notes?
Warning - Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc, that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.
Caution - Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc, that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.
Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc, that must be emphasised.
How many fixed oxygen systems have comms
13
When do you don a life preserver?
Under 1000ft, Condition 1, when directed
Who’s responsible for aft first aid kit?
Jez 2 (workspace 7)
Where are P103 and P104 located ?
Inside E101 (Port) and E102 (Starboard) respectively
On what 6 occasions sill the APU shut down
Overspeed, high oil temp, low oil pressure, fire, no fuel, EGT exceeded
How many hydrophones are there on DIFAR
5
Average TPK for medium merchant vessels
12
Frequency predominance of
B&S
2s/c
4s/c
0-70hz
70-150hz
150hz +
What is the channel bandwidth of SSQ53G
135-173.5mhz with 375hz spacing
How long should you wait before securing power to ECS draw thru after mission power down?
10 mins
What is the formula used to calculate range?
Range = speed x time (cpa time in mins) x 17i.e
10knots x 6min cpa (in and out) x 17 = 1020yds
Define SCA
Sound channel Access - Occurs at the depth of the minimum sound velocity
What does a red line indicate at the bottom/right side of the gram (active/passive)
And what does the height indicate
Lost lock/no lock on the pilot frequency
And indicates to what portion of the gram lock is lost
My t
What is APP-07?
Brevity code words