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Spec Flashcards

1
Q

What is RAPID R? (MASP)

A

R - Manage System Resources
A - Produces Acoustics Data Display
P - Acoustic Signal Processing
I - Manages Operator Machine Interface OMI
D - Manages Diagnostics
R - Recorder (EADR)

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2
Q

What is DRAAMS? (MASR)

A

D - Demodulation of signal
R - Radio Frequency Interference Mitigation - RFI
A - Analog to digital conversion
A - Acoustic Test Signal Generation - ATSG
M - Measures Signal Strength
S - Sonobuoy Positioning System - SPS

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3
Q

What is Pre-Whitening?

A

A form of normalisation. Progressive attenuation of low frequencies.

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4
Q

What is the QEP?

A

Quad External Pre-Amplifier.

Amplifies sonobuoy signal as soon as it enters the A/C.

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5
Q

What are the factors affecting detection?

A

Resolution
Normalisation
Integration

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6
Q

What is the cell layout for Narrowband Boxcar?

A

64, 3, 64

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7
Q

What is the cell layout for Broadband Boxcar?

A

64, 55, 64

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8
Q

What is the MAS?

A

Mission Acoustic Subsystem

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9
Q

What are the MAS components in order?

A

Blade antenna set
QEP (Amplifier)
MASR (Receiver)
MASP (Processor)
EADR (Recorder)

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10
Q

What is QEP?

A

Quad External Pre-Amplifier

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11
Q

What is MASR?

A

Mission Acoustics Subsystem Receiver

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12
Q

What is MASP?

A

Mission Acoustics Subsystem Processor

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13
Q

What is EADR and what is its function?

A

Embedded Acoustics Data Recorder
1) 2 Chanel ICS recording
2) record/replay 64 channels of acoustic data

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14
Q

By how much does the QEP amplify by? (dBs)

A

36dB +/- 2dB

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15
Q

What are the types of built in test?

A

Initiated
Power On
Continuous

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16
Q

What are the display types?

A

Active
Passive
Environmental
Multi-static

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17
Q

What is the acronym for the MASP?

A

RAPIDR

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18
Q

What is the acronym for the MASR

A

DRAAMS

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19
Q

What are the two types of RFI mitigation? (Radio Frequency Interference)

A

Spacial & spectral

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20
Q

What is ATSG?

A

Acoustic Test Signal Generation

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21
Q

What are the modes of DIFAR

A

CSO - Constant shallow OMNI (45ft)
CO - Calibrated OMNI
XCO - Extended calibrated OMNI
DIFAR

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22
Q

What is range gate blanking?

A

DICASS can’t receive echoes during transmit, so if the SM is inside the pulse length I.E 1667yds @ 1 sec this won’t be seen

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23
Q

What is the generally accepted figure for acoustic velocity? (Speed of sound in ft or yrd’s not M)

A

5000ft/sec or 1667 yds/sec

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24
Q

What distance does a 1 second continuous wave (CW) cover?

A

1667 yards

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25
Q

What are the Dicass ping Modes?

A

CW - Continous wave
FM - Frequency modulated

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26
Q

What are the continuous wave lengths in terms of time?

A

0.1/0.5/1 second

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27
Q

What does EFS stand for?

A

Electronic function select

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28
Q

What does CFS stand for?

A

Command function select

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29
Q

What DIFAR channels are not available and why?

A

57 & 58 are harmonics of the comms/ICS freq 291.4

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30
Q

What are the properties of the DIFAR Bouy?

A

SSQ-53G
Size A
9.5kg
0.5/1/2/4/8 hours
90/200/400/1000ft depth
1W RF power output
Channels 1-99 excluding 57&58

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31
Q

What is significant about a longer CW?

A

The longer the pulse the greater the range but the worse the resolution and reverberation

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32
Q

What type of target is FM better for tracking?

A

Slow moving masked by reverberation

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33
Q

What channels may cause GPS interference?

A

49/52/88/90

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34
Q

What are the properties of a DICASS buoy?

A

SSQ-62 F
A Size
15.9kg
1 hour/50 ping seconds
D1: 50/150/300ft
D2: 90/400/1500ft
1W RF Power output
Channels 1-99 except 57/58
0-370kts and 40-30,000 ft

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35
Q

What is the definition of integration?

A

The addition of signal power in a spectrum of frequency cells over a period of time

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36
Q

What are the sonic frequencies?

A

A - 6.5khz - 199dB
B - 7.5khz - 200dB
C - 8.5khz - 201dB
D - 9.5khz - 201dB

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37
Q

What does DICASS give the operator? IN CORRECT ORDER

A

Bearing
Range
Doppler Velocity

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38
Q

What are the 4 types of display?

A

Environmental
Active
Passive
Multi-static (not used)

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39
Q

What are the 5 DIFAR channels?

A

Pilot
Phase reference
OMNI
North/South
East/West

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40
Q

What is Normalisation?

A

The process of enhancing weak spectral lines above uniform background data.

Or

The kits ability to enhance a frequency line above background noise

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41
Q

What are the properties of a bathybuoy

A

SSQ-36B
A size
7.3kg
5ft sec sink rate
2625ft/800m depth
Chn 1-99
12 min life
0.25W RF output
0-370kts IAS
40-30,000ft

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42
Q

What is the official name for the MAS?

A

AQ2

or AN/AQQ-2(V)1

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43
Q

What frequency allows comms with a sonobouy?

A

291.4mhz

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44
Q

What do the different colours chicklets mean?

A

White - advisory/parometric
Black - No power
Grey - No response
Cyan - IBIT
Green - Serviceable
Yellow - Degraded
Red - Error/failed

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45
Q

What are the Kilo codes

A

A - Fully mission capable
B - Minor system degradation
C - Major system degradation
D. Not mission capable

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46
Q

What does a magenta line around the grams mean?

A

It has been frozen by the operator

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47
Q

What are the 3 factors affecting SOS in water and what are the associated figures

A

T - Temperature = 6ft/s per °C
S - Salinity = 4.6ft/s per PPT
P - Pressure = 1.6ft/s per 100ft

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48
Q

What is the definition of the sonic layer depth?

A

The depth of the first maximum sound speed nearest the surface.

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49
Q

What is the drift rate for a sonobuoy with long cable? (1000ft)

A

5% of wind speed

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50
Q

What is the drift rate for a sonobuoy with a short cable? (90-400ft)

A

10% of wind speed

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51
Q

What is the fixed rate of salinity in AQ2v

A

35ppt @39° @sea level 4800ft/sec

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52
Q

What are the 3 types of prop loss

A

Cylindrical -3dB
Spherical -6dB
Dipolar -12dB

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53
Q

How many data points in Wilson’s algorithm?

A

640

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54
Q

How many data points are in CML Algorithm?

(Chen/mellor/Li)

A

30

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55
Q

What is the depth/frequency spectrum of CSO and what is it used for?

A

45ft
30-5000hz
To exploit Aco data above SLD. DIFAR/Co are inhibited

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56
Q

What is the frequency spectrum of CO/XCO?

A

CO - 5-20k hz
XCO - 5-40k hz

CSO/DIFAR inhibited during use. Used primarily for ACINT Data collection

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57
Q

What is the frequency spectrum of DIFAR?

A

5-2560hz
5 hydrophones (NS/EW/OMNI) + pilot 7.5khz and phase ref 15khz

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58
Q

What is the figure for RD (recognition differential)

A

Minus 6.5db

(becomes a plus in FOM calc)

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59
Q

What are the door operating limitations?

A

Damage/injury may occur if the door is
A) operated in winds >40kts
B) left open in winds >65kts

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60
Q

How many fire extinguishers are there?

A

6

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61
Q

How many portable oxygen masks are there?

A

5 (9 point check)

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62
Q

What is the nominal oxygen system pressure?

A

1850psi

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63
Q

Where is the flight deck oxgen bottle system?

A

Electrical Equipment compartment (EEC)

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64
Q

What is the Max POB?

A

21 (RAF certified)

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65
Q

What is the figure in dB’s for DI? (Directivity index)

A

5.5dB

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66
Q

How do you reset a Lloyds mirror CPA?

A

Orange dot/circle top left

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67
Q

What derives the position of the aircraft

A

MASP

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68
Q

What is the FOM EQUATION

A

FOM = SL-AN-RD = MDR

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69
Q

What is left after the carrier wave is stripped in the the receiver?

A

Multiplexed data

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70
Q

What is a SUS and how many codes are there/DB level/life?

A

Signal underwater sound
Mk84
160db
70 seconds
5 codes

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71
Q

How many safety pins are there?

A

8 +1 inside doors

3 x landing gear
2 x reverse thrust
1 x nose wheel
1 x weapons bay
1 x counter measure

72
Q

How many external safety lights are there?

A

6

73
Q

What are the standoff distances for RADAR?

A

HERP - 169ft
HERF - 95ft
HERO - 302/348ft

(Hazard of electromagnetic radiation to Pers/fuel/ordnance)

74
Q

What 3 racks have equipment still active after the rack cut off switch has been appplied?

A

E810 - V/UHF1
E860 - ESM chiller
E870 - radar fan

75
Q

How do you secure power (turn off) to V/UHF1 if SPDS is in fail safe mode

A

Pull COMMUNICATIONS V/UHF RT1 BAT CB (P18-2:D12)

76
Q

What is the ECS and what is is for

A

Environmental conditioning system - provides cooling to mission equipment

77
Q

If SPDS is in fail safe mode what will not work?

A

Rack cut off switches

78
Q

What is AFACS

A

Avionics forced air cooling system

79
Q

What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for RADAR?

A

HERP 169ft
HERF 95ft
HERO 302ft

80
Q

What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for HF?

A

HERP 17ft
HERF 98ft
HERO 285ft

81
Q

What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for IFFI?

A

HERP 4.5ft
HERF 1.2ft
HERO 20ft

82
Q

What temperature must the cabin not exceed with mission power applied?

A

97 degrees F

83
Q

If the cabin temp exceeds 100 degrees F what must be done?

A

Turn off power to mission systems to allow temperature to drop below 97 degree F

84
Q

The AFACS alarm sounds, what is the probable cause?

A

1) Low airflow in ECS draw-thru
2) ESM chiller failure

85
Q

With regard to the AFACS alarm, what temperature should the aft cabin not exceed before beginning decreasing mission systems load to avoid damage?

A

80 degrees F

86
Q

What does an E2E test do?

A

Sends signal from MASP to MASRS to simulate a passive contact transmitting 10 freqs. Compares 5/10 against list of expected signals

87
Q

What are the EO/IR operating limits?

A

29,000ft
300kts
-53degrees C — +55 degrees C
Prohibited in icing conditions

88
Q

What are the three frequencies broadcast in the EPLB?

A

121.5mhz
243mhz
406mhz

89
Q

What 3 ways can you secure power to the QEP?

A

1) SSPC’s via SPDS
2) cut off switch for E840 - this method also secured power to MASRS in E860
3) cut off switch for E860 - this method secures power to the whole MAS (QEP/MASRS/MASP)

90
Q

What are the SFMT colour states? (Line quality indicator under vernier)

A

Red - tracking
Purple - pending
Yellow - non contributing
Orange - dead reckon

91
Q

On fr85 what colour are system verniers and user verniers respectively?

A

Green = system verniers
Gold = user verniers

92
Q

On fr85 what colour are system verniers and user verniers respectively?

A

Green = system verniers
Gold = user verniers

93
Q

What does LTI processing provide data for?

A

ALI and BFI

94
Q

What is the timeframe in which pers are not to consume alcohol before flying?

A

10 hours & minimised in the 24 hours beforehand

95
Q

What is the max crew duty time for 1 day?

A

16 hours (0500-1459)
14 hours (1500-0459)

Can be extended by 1hr by aircraft commander via DDH

96
Q

What is the CRP? (Crew rest period)

A

Time between two periods of CDT in which 8 hours is allowed for uninterrupted sleep

97
Q

Crew duty periods can be extended by how much?

A

Sqn Cdr - up to 2 hours
DDH - up to 3 hours
AOC - over 3 hours

98
Q

When are PME’s valid until?

A

No later than the last day of the month in which the next PME is due

99
Q

How long before you can fly after a general/local anaesthetic?

A

7 days general
12 hours local

100
Q

How long before you can fly after donating blood?

A

36 hours
(or as directed by a MAME (Mil aeromed examiner)

101
Q

How long before you can fly after exposure to CS?

A

12 hours

102
Q

When are dental and CR cx valid until?

A

Until the day of expiration

103
Q

What are the three LEDS/switches on the front of the processor

A

LEDS -

Over temp - sensors at back are high temp
Fan fail -
BIST - indicates processor has passed self check

Power switch (serves as CB)
Guarded ‘FLASH ERASE’

104
Q

What does ALI provide?

A

Frequency vs signal amplitude
(Skyscrapers)

105
Q

What does BFI provide?

A

Frequency vs bearing

106
Q

What does BTH provide?

A

Bearing vs time

107
Q

What are the memeroy items for APU fire?

A

Inside - pull, rotate to the left or right until BOTTLE DISCHARGE illuminates, APU switch to off

Outside - starboard wheels well. Pull handle down, flick switch to left and leave

Automatically goes off after 11 seconds

108
Q

What are the memory items for Smoke, fire or fumes?

A

1) Alert crew, execute firefighting duties
2) Don oxygen, regulators 100% as required

109
Q

What will selection of the buoy proximity sort (BUOY PROX SORT) achieve?

A

Sorts ADD sonobuoy objects according to their proximity to a designated geographic point on the TSD

110
Q

How many Acoustic Operators can the MAS accommodate?

A

3

111
Q

If a venting sonobuoy is located in an SRL or SSL, what should the crew do?

A

Launch all buoys in the affected SRL or SSL. (Follow yellow cards)

112
Q

Forward fire-fighting duties for ACO1 include moving to the vicinity or the forward cabin control panel, turn on the emergency exit lights (as required) and set the entry and ceiling forward cabin lighting to what?

A

Bright

113
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A FUNCTION OF THE MAS?

A. VHF signal reception
B. Signal splitting
C. RF signal conditioning

A

ANS B Signal splitting

114
Q

What is the role of the QEP?

A

Provides incoming RF conditioning and amplification (+36db +-2)

115
Q

Where is the ATSG embedded?

A

MASRS

116
Q

Can Recording and Replay of the EADR be performed concurrently?

A

No

117
Q

How many blade antenna are in the MASRS antenna array?

A

4 - underside of aircraft

118
Q

List 2 functions of the EADR

A

Two channel ICS Recording

Recording and Replay of up to 64 channels 8hrs

Zeroise capability from rack E810 or via the guarded switch on the MASP

AOFP for Acoustics

119
Q

How many SSQ-62 buoys can the MAS process?

A

64

120
Q

How many minutes of passive data does one EADR Hard drive store for recall on the ADDs?

A

60 mins

121
Q

List 3 ways of securing power to the QEP.

A

MASRS SSPC LSK (SPDS CDU)
Cut off switch at E840 or E860

122
Q

Which antenna is the preferred path for downlink commands?

A

VUHF1 (Lower)

123
Q

If you notice a venting sonobuoy, what actions would you take?

A

Alert crew, avoid area

124
Q

Data from how many sonobuoys may be used to feed the SFMT algorithm?

And what is the minimum

A

8 max

Min 2 with 3 bits of info

125
Q

What inputs does the AOB require for calculation?

A

F0 and speed

126
Q

How many beams of DIFAR PROCESSING are performed concurrently?

A

5

127
Q

How many BT SVP display can be displayed at once?

A

3

128
Q

Where are DOWNLINK command created before being sent to the CFS TD?

A

MASP

129
Q

What is the indication that DIFAR has lost lock or lock not achieved?

A

RED line on the RHS of the gram

130
Q

Which button on the Common Area PEP resets the data the most current time?

A

SCROLL RESET

131
Q

How many concurrent processed resolutions are available on the mainband?

A

3

132
Q

What does ANR perform for DIFAR and DICASS?

A

Allows suppression of unwanted noise and focuses on target related sounds.

133
Q

What is the frequency response of the CSO Hydrophone?

A

30hz - 5khz

134
Q

What does the colour status of RED on the SMT indicate?

A

Tracking (in use)

135
Q

What does the colour status of ORANGE on the SMT indicate?

A

DR

136
Q

What does a BLUE line tracker marker indicate?

A

Contact Criteria Frequency

137
Q

What does tuning a sonobuoy mean?

A

Selecting data from that sonobuoy for processing

138
Q

What is the Buoy colour code for a local, tuned buoy?

A

White

139
Q

What is the Buoy colour code for a local, non-tuned buoy?

A

Green

140
Q

What is the Buoy colour code for a local, degraded or life expired buoy?

A

Yellow

141
Q

What is the buoy letter identifier for DIFAR, DICASS and Bathy?

A

D, S and BT respectively

142
Q

How many data points are required to generate an SFMT target tracker?

A

3

143
Q

What is the minimum number of passive buoys required to generate an SMT target tracker if nearing information is available from at least one buoy?

A

2

144
Q

How many buoys can be to sent to the MAS for processing?

A

64

145
Q

What integration time does the colour bearing LTI use?

A

The same as selected in the LTI menu

146
Q

What are the advantages of using NULL STEER beam in the direction of a non target course?

A

To increase the target processing SNR

147
Q

Where is the BTH display created from?

A

BFI

148
Q

What %of lost comms will result in SPDS fail safe

A

40%

149
Q

What are symptoms/precursors of SDPS fail safe?

A

Loss of radar heartbeat
Slow TOMS
AUX FUEL transfer caption on FD

150
Q

When will emergency lights come on?

A

DC 1 BUS failure

151
Q

How many people are required for destruction duties?

A

6

152
Q

How noisy does it get on board generally?

A

85db

153
Q

What does active anti collision lights indicate?

A

Engines are running

154
Q

What is the accuracy of COSPASARAAT without GPS?

A

1.1nm

155
Q

What are the cx carried out at cond3?

A

ICS (done while reporting equipment stat)
EQUIPMENT STAT
ALERTS
CLEAR ALERTS

156
Q

How long does it take MCDS to boot?

A

18 mins

157
Q

What are the types of SSPC failures/trips?

A

Unacknowledged (at top)
Acknowledge

158
Q

What overrides all ICS channels?

A

All call

159
Q

How many SSPCS’s can be shown on SPDS?

A

24
4 x 6 pages

160
Q

What is the capacity of the portable O2 bottles?

A

22 cubic ft

161
Q

Where is the best place for PAX to be seated and why?

A

6 pack - as far forward as possible with harness and facing backwards

162
Q

Who is responsible for sending a mayday message

A

COTAC/Pilot monitoring but anyone can

163
Q

In what positions can UNIPAC be loaded

A

6&8

164
Q

What is the oxygen setting for crew suffering from hypoxia

A

100%

165
Q

What indications are there on the flight deck of a rack alarm?

A

Non

166
Q

How many passes are carried out during fire fighting before a decision is made?

A

Up to 3 passes when carrying out firefighting duties.

167
Q

When do don oxygen lights illuminate and what audible que do you get?

A

When the cabin alt is 10k+
Or as initiated by flight deck

signs activate with 3 hi/lo chimes.

168
Q

How do you change the MAP layout?

A

In the comms pep

169
Q

How many fixed oxygen systems are there on board?

A

2

170
Q

What is an Indication of SPDS fail safe?

A

Reset prompt on SPDS CDU.

171
Q

How many times can SSPC’s be reset before lock out?

A

2

172
Q

How many life vests are on board for PAX?

A

12

173
Q

What are definitions of warning, caution and notes?

A

Warning - Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc, that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.

Caution - Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc, that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc, that must be emphasised.

174
Q

How many fixed oxygen systems have comms

A

13

175
Q

When do you don a life preserver?

A

Under 1000ft, Condition 1, when directed

176
Q

Who’s responsible for aft first aid kit?

A

Jez 2 (workspace 7)

177
Q

Where are P103 and P104 located ?

A

Inside E101 (Port) and E102 (Starboard) respectively

£&£81 (9 decks)

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