Spec Flashcards

1
Q

What is RAPID R? (MASP)

A

R - Manage System Resources
A - Produces Acoustics Data Display
P - Acoustic Signal Processing
I - Manages Operator Machine Interface OMI
D - Manages Diagnostics
R - Recorder (EADR)

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2
Q

What is DRAAMS? (MASR)

A

D - Demodulation of signal
R - Radio Frequency Interference Mitigation - RFI
A - Analog to digital conversion
A - Acoustic Test Signal Generation - ATSG
M - Measures Signal Strength
S - Sonobuoy Positioning System - SPS

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3
Q

What is Pre-Whitening?

A

A form of normalisation. Progressive attenuation of low frequencies.

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4
Q

What is the QEP?

A

Quad External Pre-Amplifier.

Amplifies sonobuoy signal as soon as it enters the A/C.

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5
Q

What are the factors affecting detection?

A

Resolution
Normalisation
Integration

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6
Q

What is the cell layout for Narrowband Boxcar?

A

64, 3, 64

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7
Q

What is the cell layout for Broadband Boxcar?

A

64, 55, 64

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8
Q

What is the MAS?

A

Mission Acoustic Subsystem

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9
Q

What are the MAS components in order?

A

Blade antenna set
QEP (Amplifier)
MASR (Receiver)
MASP (Processor)
EADR (Recorder)

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10
Q

What is QEP?

A

Quad External Pre-Amplifier

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11
Q

What is MASR?

A

Mission Acoustics Subsystem Receiver

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12
Q

What is MASP?

A

Mission Acoustics Subsystem Processor

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13
Q

What is EADR and what is its function?

A

Embedded Acoustics Data Recorder
1) 2 Chanel ICS recording
2) record/replay 64 channels of acoustic data

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14
Q

By how much does the QEP amplify by? (dBs)

A

36dB +/- 2dB

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15
Q

What are the types of built in test?

A

Initiated
Power On
Continuous

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16
Q

What are the display types?

A

Active
Passive
Environmental
Multi-static

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17
Q

What is the acronym for the MASP?

A

RAPIDR

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18
Q

What is the acronym for the MASR

A

DRAAMS

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19
Q

What are the two types of RFI mitigation? (Radio Frequency Interference)

A

Spacial & spectral

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20
Q

What is ATSG?

A

Acoustic Test Signal Generation

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21
Q

What are the modes of DIFAR

A

CSO - Constant shallow OMNI (45ft)
CO - Calibrated OMNI
XCO - Extended calibrated OMNI
DIFAR

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22
Q

What is range gate blanking?

A

Even when the beam hits a submarine/target, The return is not seen until it completes its full cycle

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23
Q

What is the generally accepted figure for acoustic velocity? (Speed of sound in ft or yrd’s not M)

A

5000ft/sec or 1667 yds/sec

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24
Q

What distance does a 1 second continuous wave (CW) cover?

A

1667 yards

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25
Q

What are the Dicass ping Modes?

A

CW - Continous wave
FM - Frequency modulated

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26
Q

What are the continuous wave lengths in terms of time?

A

0.1/0.5/1 second

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27
Q

What does EFS stand for?

A

Electronic function select

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28
Q

What does CFS stand for?

A

Command function select

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29
Q

What DIFAR channels are not available and why?

A

57 & 58 are harmonics of the comms/ICS freq 291.4

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30
Q

What are the properties of the DIFAR Bouy?

A

SSQ-53G
Size A
9.5kg
0.5/1/2/4/8 hours
90/200/400/1000ft depth
1W RF power output
Channels 1-99 excluding 57&58

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31
Q

What is significant about a longer CW?

A

The longer the pulse the greater the range but the worse the resolution and reverberation

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32
Q

What type of target is FM better for tracking?

A

Slow moving masked by reverberation

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33
Q

What channels may cause GPS interference?

A

49/52/88/90

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34
Q

What are the properties of a DICASS buoy?

A

SSQ-62 F
A Size
15.9kg
1 hour/50 ping seconds
D1: 50/150/300ft
D2: 90/400/1500ft
1W RF Power output
Channels 1-99 except 57/58
0-370kts and 40-30,000 ft

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35
Q

What is the definition of integration?

A

The addition of signal power in a spectrum of frequency cells over a period of time

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36
Q

What are the sonic frequencies?

A

A - 6.5khz - 199dB
B - 7.5khz - 200dB
C - 8.5khz - 201dB
D - 9.5khz - 201dB

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37
Q

What does DICASS give the operator? IN CORRECT ORDER

A

Bearing
Range
Doppler Velocity

38
Q

What are the 4 types of display?

A

Environmental
Active
Passive
Multi-static (not used)

39
Q

What are the 5 DIFAR channels?

A

Pilot
Phase reference
OMNI
North/South
East/West

40
Q

What is Normalisation?

A

The process of enhancing weak spectral lines above uniform background data.

Or

The kits ability to enhance a frequency line above background noise

41
Q

What are the properties of a bathybuoy

A

SSQ-36B
A size
7.3kg
5ft sec sink rate
2625ft/800m depth
Chn 1-99
12 min life
0.25W RF output
0-370kts IAS
40-30,000ft

42
Q

What is the official name for the MAS?

A

AQ2

or AN/AQQ-2(V)1

43
Q

What frequency allows comms with a sonobouy?

A

291.4mhz

44
Q

What do the different colours chicklets mean?

A

White - advisory/parometric
Black - No power
Grey - No response
Cyan - IBIT
Green - Serviceable
Yellow - Degraded
Red - Error/failed

45
Q

What are the Kilo codes

A

A - Fully mission capable
B - Minor system degradation
C - Major system degradation
D. Not mission capable

46
Q

What does a magenta line around the grams mean?

A

It has been frozen by the operator

47
Q

What are the 3 factors affecting SOS in water and what are the associated figures

A

T - Temperature = 6ft/s per °C
S - Salinity = 4.6ft/s per PPT
P - Pressure = 1.6ft/s per 100ft

48
Q

What is the definition of the sonic layer depth?

A

The depth of the first maximum sound speed nearest the surface.

49
Q

What is the drift rate for a sonobuoy with long cable? (1000ft)

A

5% of wind speed

50
Q

What is the drift rate for a sonobuoy with a short cable? (90-400ft)

A

10% of wind speed

51
Q

What is the fixed rate of salinity in AQ2v

A

35ppt @39° @sea level 4800ft/sec

52
Q

What are the 3 types of prop loss

A

Cylindrical -3dB
Spherical -6dB
Dipolar -12dB

53
Q

How many data points in Wilson’s algorithm?

A

640

54
Q

How many data points are in CML Algorithm?

(Chen/mellor/Li)

A

30

55
Q

What is the depth/frequency spectrum of CSO and what is it used for?

A

45ft
30-5000hz
To exploit Aco data above SLD. DIFAR/Co are inhibited

56
Q

What is the frequency spectrum of CO/XCO?

A

CO - 5-20k hz
XCO - 5-40k hz

CSO/DIFAR inhibited during use. Used primarily for ACINT Data collection

57
Q

What is the frequency spectrum of DIFAR?

A

5-2400hz
3 hydrophones (NS/EW/OMNI) + pilot 7.5khz and phase ref 15khz

58
Q

What is the figure for RD (recognition differential)

A

Minus 6.5db

(becomes a plus in FOM calc)

59
Q

What are the door operating limitations?

A

Damage/injury may occur if the door is
A) operated in winds >40kts
B) left open in winds >65kts

60
Q

How many fire extinguishers are there?

A

6

61
Q

How many portable oxygen masks are there?

A

5 (9 point check)

62
Q

What is the nominal oxygen system pressure?

A

1850psi

63
Q

Where is the flight deck oxgen bottle system?

A

Electrical Equipment compartment (EEC)

64
Q

What is the Max POB?

A

21 (RAF certified)
22 total

65
Q

What is the figure in dB’s for DI? (Directivity index)

A

5.5dB

66
Q

How do you reset a Lloyds mirror CPA?

A

Orange dot/circle top left

67
Q

What derives the position of the aircraft

A

MASP

68
Q

What is the FOM EQUATION

A

FOM = SL-AN-RD = MDR

69
Q

What is left after the carrier wave is stripped in the the receiver?

A

Multiplexed data

70
Q

What is a SUS and how many codes are there?

A

Signal underwater sound
Mk84
5 codes

71
Q

How many safety pins are there?

A

8 +1 inside

72
Q

How many external safety lights are there?

A

6

73
Q

What are the standoff distances for RADAR?

A

HERP - 169ft
HERF - 95ft
HERO - 302/348ft

(Hazard of electromagnetic radiation to Pers/fuel/ordnance)

74
Q

What 3 racks have equipment still active after the rack cut off switch has been appplied?

A

E810 - V/UHF1
E860 - ESM chiller
E870 - radar fan

75
Q

How do you secure power (turn off) to V/UHF1 if SPDS is in fail safe mode

A

Pull COMMUNICATIONS V/UHF RT1 BAT CB (P18-2:D12)

76
Q

What is the ECS and what is is for

A

Environmental conditioning system - provides cooling to mission equipment

77
Q

If SPDS is in fail safe mode what will not work?

A

Rack cut off switches

78
Q

What is AFACS

A

Avionics forced air cooling system

79
Q

What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for RADAR?

A

HERP 169ft
HERF 95ft
HERO 302ft

80
Q

What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for HF?

A

HERP 17ft
HERF 98ft
HERO 285ft

81
Q

What are the HERP/HERF/HERO ranges for IFFI?

A

HERP 4.5ft
HERF 1.2ft
HERO 20ft

82
Q

What temperature must the cabin not exceed with mission power applied?

A

97 degrees F

83
Q

If the cabin temp exceeds 100 degrees F what must be done?

A

Turn off power to mission systems to allow temperature to drop below 97 degree F

84
Q

The AFACS alarm sounds, what is the probable cause?

A

1) Low airflow in ECS draw-thru
2) ESM chiller failure

85
Q

With regard to the AFACS alarm, what temperature should the aft cabin not exceed before beginning decreasing mission systems load to avoid damage?

A

80 degrees F

86
Q

What does an E2E test do?

A
87
Q

What are the EO/IR operating limits?

A

29,000ft
300kts
-53degrees C — +55 degrees C
Prohibited in icing conditions

88
Q

What are the three frequencies broadcast in the EPLB?

A

121.5mhz
243mhz
406mhz

89
Q

What 3 ways can you secure power to the QEP?

A

1) SSPC’s via SPDS
2) cut off switch for E840 - this method also secured power to MASRS in E860
3) cut off switch for E860 - this method secures power to the whole MAS (QEP/MASRS/MASP)

90
Q

What are the SFMT colour states? (Line quality indicator under vernier)

A

Red - tracking
Purple - pending
Yellow - non contributing
Orange - dead reckon