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CE-680 > SOV+ Limitations > Flashcards

SOV+ Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

CERTIFICATION STATUS

The Citation Sovereign+ is certified in accordance with 14 CFR Part ___.

A

14 CFR Part 25

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2
Q

MAX RAMP WEIGHT

A

31,025 LBS

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3
Q

MAX TAKEOFF WEIGHT

A

30,775 LBS

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4
Q

MAX LANDING WEIGHT

A

27,575 LBS

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5
Q

MAX ZERO FUEL WEIGHT

A

21,000 LBS

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6
Q

MAX TAILCONE BAGGAGE WEIGHT

A

1000 LBS

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7
Q

MAX CERTIFIED TAKEOFF WEIGHT

(FLAPS 1 or 2)

A

30,775 LBS

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8
Q

MAX CERTIFIED LANDING WEIGHT

A

27,575 LBS

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9
Q

The corresponding electric fuel boost pump must be turned ____ when the amber FUEL LEVEL LOW L and/or R message is dispayed or at ____ pounds or less of indicated fuel in either tank.

A

The corresponding electric fuel boost pump must be turned ON when the amber FUEL LEVEL LOW L and/or R message is dispayed or at 600 pounds or less of indicated fuel in either tank.

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10
Q

Maximum asymmetric fuel differential for normal ops?

A

400 LBS

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11
Q

Single-point refueling operations must be accomplished per the procedures contained on the placard installed on the single-point refueling access door. Minimum refueling pressure is __ PSI and maximum is ___ PSI.

The maximum defueling pressure is ___ PSI.

A

Single-point refueling operations must be accomplished per the procedures contained on the placard installed on the single-point refueling access door. Minimum refueling pressure is 10 PSI and maximum is 55 PSI.

The maximum defueling pressure is -10 PSI.

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12
Q

MAX ALTITUDE FOR

TAKEOFF AND LANDING

A

14,000 FT

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13
Q

MAX TAILWIND

A

10 KTS

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14
Q

MAX DEMONSTRATED CROSSWIND COMPONENT

(Not Limiting; with or without thrust reversers)

A

25 KTS

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15
Q

The autopilot and yaw damper must be disengaged for _________.

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING

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16
Q

The lavatory doors must be latched ____ for takeoff and landing.

A

OPEN

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17
Q

Takeoff and landings are limited to _____ runway surfaces.

A

PAVED

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18
Q

Antiskid must be __________ for takeoff.

A

OPERATIONAL

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19
Q

Except where otherwise specified by AFM procedure, speedbrakes must be stowed prior to ____ feet AGL for landing.

A

500

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20
Q

Takeoff may not be initiated with a ___ message displayed. Takeoff may not be initiated with an amber message displayed unless the associated system or component has been deferred per an approved MEL.

A

RED

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21
Q

Takeoff is limited to Flaps __ configuration when Type II, III, or IV anti-ice fluid has been applied to the airplane.

A

Flaps 1

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22
Q

The Pulselite system must be off and remain off during the following night ground and night flight operations:

Taxi, takeoff, and landing approach at ____feet AGL and below.

A

300 FT

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23
Q

MAX OPERATING ALTITUDE

A

47,000 FEET

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24
Q

For operations above FL410, the following conditions must be met:

  • Both ENG BLD AIR selectors must be selected to ____ or ____ and both engine bleed air sources must be available.
  • The PRESS SOURCE selector must be selected to ____.
A

For operations above FL410, the following conditions must be met:

  • Both ENG BLD AIR selectors must be selected to NORM or HP and both engine bleed air sources must be available.
  • The PRESS SOURCE selector must be selected to NORM.
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25
Q

Maximum Altitude with Flaps Extended.

A

18,000 FEET

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26
Q

When the airplane has been exposed to prolonged ground temperatures below -30°C, the cabin must be warmed to at least __°C as indicated on MFD GTC Home > Aircraft Systems > Temp page before flight above ____ with any occupants in the passenger cabin.

A

When the airplane has been exposed to prolonged ground temperatures below -30°C, the cabin must be warmed to at least -10°C as indicated on MFD GTC Home > Aircraft Systems > Temp page before flight above FL250 with any occupants in the passenger cabin.

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27
Q

The Mach trim system must be operational for speeds above Mach ____ or altitude above ____ with the autopilot disengaged.

A

The Mach trim system must be operational for speeds above Mach 0.77 or altitude above FL410 with the autopilot disengaged.

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28
Q

Maximum oil consumption is 1 qt per __ flight hours. When oil consumption is greater than 1 qt per __ flight hours, refer to the Airplane Maintenance Manual.

A

Maximum oil consumption is 1 qt per 8 flight hours. When oil consumption is greater than 1 qt per 8 flight hours, refer to the Airplane Maintenance Manual.

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29
Q

Oil types or ______ may not be mixed unless specifically approved in the PW306D Maintenance Manuals.

A

Brands

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30
Q

Continuous ground static operation of the engine at takeoff thrust is limited to a maximum of __ minutes.

A

2 minutes

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31
Q

Attempting an engine start is prohibited with a tailwind component greater than __ knots. When starting with a quartering tailwind, the downwind engine must be started first and the airplane turned into the wind prior to starting the second engine.

A

10 knots

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32
Q

The engine must be operated at idle for at least __ minutes prior to shutdown.

A

2 minutes

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33
Q

Max observed ITT°C for engine start.

A

950°C

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34
Q

The total time during which takeoff thrust may be used is limited to __ minutes per fligth. The __ minute time limit commences with the throttle is first increased to TO. This time may be extended to __ minutes for one engine inoperative operation.

A

The total time during which takeoff thrust may be used is limited to 5 minutes per flight. The 5 minute time limit commences with the throttle is first increased to TO. This time may be extended to 10 minutes for one engine inoperative operation.

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35
Q

After completing a start under cold conditions and achieving a stablized ground idle, it is acceptable to run the engine up to __% N1 in order to decrease the time required for the oil to reach the minimum operating temperature of __°C.

A

After completing a start under cold conditions and achieving a stablized ground idle, it is acceptable to run the engine up to 82% N1 in order to decrease the time required for the oil to reach the minimum operating temperature of 16°C.

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36
Q

After initiation of the start cycle, oil pressure should indicate an increase within __ seconds of engine light up indicated by a rise in N2 and ITT.

A

After initiation of the start cycle, oil pressure should indicate an increase within 20 seconds of engine light up indicated by a rise in N2 and ITT.

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37
Q

Engine Starter Limit

The rest periods between engine starts is __ minutes after the first start attempt, __ minutes after the second start attempt, and __ minutes after the third.

NOTE

The engine starter limit is independent of starter power source (i.e., battery, generator-assisted cross start, auxilliary power unit, or external power) and also applies to dry and wet motoring of the engine

A

Engine Starter Limit

The rest periods between engine starts is 2 minutes after the first start attempt, 5 minutes after the second start attempt, and 30 minutes after the third.

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38
Q

Engine Start Mototing Limit (not engine start)

BATTERIES ONLY

A

20 SECONDS

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39
Q

Engine Start Mototing Limit (not engine start)

BATTERIES WITH GENERATOR ASSIST

A

15 SECONDS

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40
Q

Engine Start Mototing Limit (not engine start)

EXTERNAL POWER (1000 AMPS)

A

15 SECONDS

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41
Q

Engine Start Mototing Limit (not engine start)

EXTERNAL POWER (1500 AMPS)

A

7 SECONDS

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42
Q

APU STARTER LIMIT

Three APU start cycles per __ minutes.

Three cycles with a __ second rest period between cycles is permitted.

A

Three APU start cycles per 30 minutes.

Three cycles with a 90 second rest period between cycles is permitted.

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43
Q

BATTERY START LIMIT

_____ engine battery starts per hour.

____ APU start cycles per hour.

A

THREE,

NINE

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44
Q

_____ engine external power starts (available external power current greater than or equal to 1000 amps) are equivalent to one engine battery start.

A

THREE

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45
Q

One engine external power start (available external power current less than 1000 amps) is equivalent to ___ engine battery start(s).

A

ONE

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46
Q

Three generator-assisted cross starts are equivalent to ___ engine battery start(s).

A

ONE

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47
Q

______ APU battery starts are equivalent to one engine battery start.

A

THREE

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48
Q

Use of an external power source with voltage in excess of __ VDC or current in excess of ____ amps may damage the ______.

MAX CURRENT - ???

MAX VOLTAGE - ???

A

Use of an external power source with voltage in excess of 28 VDC or current in excess of 1500 amps may damage the starter.

MAX CURRENT - 1500 AMPS

MAX VOLTAGE - 28 VDC

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49
Q

MAX OPERATING MACH NUMBER

(MMO) above 29,833 feet

A

Mach 0.80 (indicated)

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50
Q

MAX OPERATING KNOTS

(VMO) 8,000 to 29,833 feet

A

305 KIAS

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51
Q

MAX OPERATING KNOTS

(VMO) below 8,000 feet

A

270 KIAS

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52
Q

The maximum speed limits are ______ for certain equipment failures.

A

Lower

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53
Q

WARNING

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in ____, roll, or yaw (e.g., large sideslip angles), as they may result in structural failures at any speed, including below __.

A

Pitch,

VA

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54
Q

NOTE

Full application of rudder and aileron contols, as well as maneuvers that involve angles-of-attack near the stall, should be confined to speeds below ___________ speed.

A

maximum maneuvering

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55
Q

Max Flap Extended Speed - VFE

Partial Flaps

1 Position?

2 Position?

Full Flaps

FULL Position?

A

1 - 250 KIAS

2 - 200 KIAS

FULL - 175 KIAS

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56
Q

Maximum Landing Gear

Operating/Extended Speed

(VLE/VLO)

A

210 KIAS

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57
Q

Maximum Turbulent Air Penetration Speed

A

225 KIAS / MACH 0.73

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58
Q

Maximum Speedbrake Extension Speed

A

NO LIMIT

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59
Q

Minumum Speedbrake Extended Speed

(10 Panels)

A

VREF +15 KIAS

60
Q

Minimum Single Engine Enroute Climb Speed

A

180 KIAS

61
Q

Minimum Speed for Sustained Flight in Icing Conditions

(except takeoff, approach, and landing)

A

180 KIAS

62
Q

Minimum Flight Crew

for All Operations

A

1 Pilot and 1 Copilot

63
Q

This airpland is approved for day and night, ___ and ___ operations, and flight into known icing conditions.

A

VFR and IFR

64
Q

This airplane (is/is not) certified for ditching under

14 CFR Part 25.801.

A

IS NOT

65
Q

This airplane is _________ for over-water operations with applicable equipment specified in the appropriate operating rules.

A

ELIGIBLE

66
Q

PROHIBITED MANEUVERS

A

ACROBATICS, INCLUDING SPINS

67
Q

Intentional stalls are prohibited above _____.

Intentional full stalls are limited to ____ thrust only.

A

FL250,

IDLE

68
Q

Flight must remain within ___ minutes of a suitable airport for landing.

This limitation is due to:

  1. Standby flight instruments back-up battery endurance time.
  2. Baggage/cargo compartment fire protection, whenever baggage/cargo is carried.
A

180 MINUTES

69
Q

The battery temperature indicating system must be _______.

A

operational

70
Q

If the red BATTERY O’TEMP L and/or R message displays during ground operations, even if it subsequently clears, takeoff is ____________ until after the proper maintenance procedures have been accomplished.

A

prohibited

71
Q

For generator cooling during ground operations, the engine must be operated at idle with the generator load less than __ amps for __ minutes prior to engine shutdown. Otherwise, a __ minute cooling period after engine shutdown is required prior to attempting a restart.

A

For generator cooling during ground operations, the engine must be operated at idle with the generator load less than 75 amps for 4 minutes prior to engine shutdown. Otherwise, a 35 minute cooling period after engine shutdown is required prior to attempting a restart.

72
Q

TRU must be used only in accordance with an applicable AFM procedure.

Maximum current limit for each TRU is ___ amps.

A

100 amps

73
Q

Max altitude for APU start.

A

FL200

74
Q

Max airspeed for APU start

A

250 KIAS

75
Q

Max operating altitude for the APU.

A

FL300

76
Q

Max operating speed for the APU.

A

305 KIAS / MACH 0.80

77
Q

APU operation is prohibited until a ________ ___ ____ has been accomplished as contained in Section III, Normal Procedures.

A

satisfactory APU test

78
Q

___ APU start attempt(s) is/are permitted after a dual generator failure.

A

ONE​

79
Q

Applying deice/anti-ice fluid of any type is __________ when the APU is operating.

A

prohibited

80
Q

Unattended operation of the APU is __________.

A

prohibited

81
Q

Operating the cockpit and cabin temperature controls in MANUAL is prohibited while MAX COOL is selected to __.

A __ second waiting period is required after selecting MAX COOL to OFF before operating cockpit and cabin temperature controls in MANUAL.

A

Operating the cockpit and cabin temperature controls in MANUAL is prohibited while MAX COOL is selected to ON.

A 30 second waiting period is required after selecting MAX COOL to OFF before operating cockpit and cabin temperature controls in MANUAL.

82
Q

The APU compartment must be _________ following an automatic shutdown of the APU.

A

inspected

83
Q

Takeoff with an engine FADEC channel inoperative is_______.

A

prohibited

84
Q

Exceeding the time interval for a white ENG DISPATCH LIM L and/or R message is ________.

A

prohibited

85
Q

How many air data systems must be operational for takeoff?

A

BOTH

86
Q

Both L and R AVN buttons must be in the __ position for engine start and must remain __ until after shutdown.

A

ON, ON

87
Q

The use of the auxilliary pump is prohibited when the ground operating temperature is below ___.

A

-40°C

88
Q

The us of the auxilliary hydraulic pump in flight is ________.

A

prohibited

89
Q

In icing conditions, the airplane must be operated, and its ice protection systems ____ be used, as described in Section III, Normal Procedures, ANTI-ICE SYSTEMS. Specific operational speeds and performance information must be used where established for such conditions.

A

must

90
Q

The ANTI-ICE ENGINE/STAB buttons must be selected ON between the temperatures of ___°C to ___°C when in visible moisture. Us SAT/RAT for ground operations and SAT/RAT in flight.

A

+10°C to -35°C

GROUND OPS - SAT

IN FLIGHT - RAT

91
Q

ANTI-ICE WING buttons must be selected __ for operations above FL410.

A

OFF

92
Q

Except for the ground preflight check, maximum SAT for operation of bleed air anti-ice with the throttles above idle is __°C.

A

+20°C

93
Q

Limit the ground operation of the pitot-static heat to __ minutes to preclude damage to the pitot tubes and angle-of-attack vanes.

A

2 minutes

94
Q

Anti-ice systems must not be used to deice surfaces prior to _______.

A

takeoff

95
Q

___ boundary layer energizers (_ per wing) and stall strips (_ per wing) must be present for takeoff.

A

ALL,

7, 2

96
Q

When the PRESS SOURCE selector is selected L or R, an ENG BLD AIR selector is selected OFF, or an engine bleed air source is unavailable, the BAG HEAT button must be selected ___.

A

OFF

97
Q

The maximum number of occupants in the passenger compartment is __?

A

12

98
Q

The lavatory door must be latched ____ for taxi, takeoff, and landing.

A

OPEN

99
Q

The use of the lavatory is prohibited for taxi, takeoff, and landing and is limited to ___ occupant in flight.

A

ONE

100
Q

The baggage compartment smoke detection and fire extinguishing systems must be ________ if baggage is to be carried in the compartment.

A

operational

101
Q

The maximum total weight of baggage in the tailcone baggage compartment is ____ pounds. Total weight includes baggage in the forward and aft compartments plus any on the coat rod.

A

1000 pounds

102
Q

The maximum floor loading distribution is ___ pounds per square foot.

A

150

103
Q

Reverse thrust must be decreased to the idle reverse position at __ KIAS on landing roll.

A

65 KIAS

104
Q

Deployment of the thrust reversers for more than __ seconds with the APU operating is prohibited.

A

30 seconds

105
Q

Static ground operation of the engines is limited to ____ if the thrust reversers are deployed.

A

IDLE

106
Q

The use of thrust reversers is _________ during touch-and-go landings.

A

prohibited

107
Q

The use of thrust reversers to back the airplane is ________.

A

prohibited

108
Q

The Garmin G5000 Integrated Avionics System Pilot’s Guide for the Cessna Citation Sovereign, part number 190-01581-00 Rev B or later applicable version, must be available to the flight crew.

A

The Garmin G5000 Integrated Avionics System Pilot’s Guide for the Cessna Citation Sovereign, part number 190-01581-00 Rev B or later applicable version, must be available to the flight crew.

109
Q

Takeoff with a display unit in reversionary mode is _______.

A

prohibited

110
Q

Taxiing the airplane is ___________ until the HNS alignment is complete.

A

prohibited

111
Q

Attitude pitch limit indicator (PLI) ____ be used as a sole means of stall avoidance.

A

must not

112
Q

Cat II ILS approaches are _______

A

not authorized

113
Q

Accessing the system Maintenance page

(MFD GTC: Home > Aircraft Systems > Maintenance) in flight is

__________.

A

prohibited

114
Q

Prior to the FAF, make sure that the ___ or ___ auto-selected course (as appropriate) matches the final approach course on the published approach.

A

ILS or VOR

115
Q

The synthetic vision feature is provided as a situational awareness tool and must not be used for tactical navigation through _______ or around ___________.

A

terrain, obstacles or traffic

116
Q

Airplane navigation must ___ be predicated solely on SVT runway presentation graphics. Approach path angle and distance must be confirmed by other sources.

A

not

117
Q

SVT airport surface markings and features __________ agree with the actual surface markings and prevailing NOTAMs in effect for the particular airport. SVT must not be used as the sole means of navigation on the airport surface.

A

may not always

118
Q

Autopilot:

  1. One pilot must be seated, with the seatbelt fastened, during all autopilot operations
  2. Autopilot operation is ___________ when any comparison monitor message is displayed but appropriate sensor reversion has not been selected.
A

prohibited

119
Q

Autopilot Minumum use height:

ENROUTE AND DESCENT

A

1000 feet AGL

120
Q

Autopilot Minimum Use Height:

Precision Approach (ILS/LPV)

A

160 FEET AGL

121
Q

Autopilot Minimum Use Height:

Non-precision Approach

A

200 feet AGL

122
Q

Autopilot Minimum Use Height:

Takeoff, Climb, and Missed Approach

A

400 feet AGL

123
Q

Autopilot coupled operation is ___________ during flap retraction from FULL to 2.

A

prohibited

124
Q

Autothrottle:

Autothrottle must not be armed or used during __________; arm only when cleared for takeoff.

A

taxi operations

125
Q

Autothrottle:

Autothrottle operation is ___________ when any comparison monitor message is displayed but appropriate sensor reversion has not been selected.

A

prohibited

126
Q

Autothrottle:

Autothrottle HOLD mode must be displayed prior to __ KIAS during takeoff.

A

65 KIAS

127
Q

Autothrottle:

Autothrottle must be disengaged prior to ____ feet AGL for touch and go landings

A

50 feet AGL

128
Q

Autothrottle:

Autothrottle must be disengaged prior to landing with flaps not in the ___ position.

A

FULL

129
Q

Autothrottle:

When using autothrottle on approach,

  1. The speed bug must be set to VREF + __ knots or greater when descending to an MDA.
  2. The speed bug must be set to VREF + __ knots or greater when descending to a DH or DA, or after altitude capture at an MDA.
A

10,

3

130
Q

IFR enroute and terminal navigation is __________ unless the pilot verifies the currency of the database or verifies each selected waypoint for accuracy by reference to current data.

A

prohibited

131
Q

The fuel quantity, fuel required, fuel remaining and gross weight estimate performance functions of the FMS are considered ________________ only and must be verified by the flight crew.

A

supplemental information

132
Q

SPD mode must be selected to ____ on FMS based course reversals or holding patterns associated with approach procedures

A

MAN

133
Q

Once established in a hold, use of Cancle Hold or Remove Hold is ____________.

A

prohibited

134
Q

Use of VNAV vertical guidance is __________ when the barometric altitude is corrected to the landing field elevation (QFE operation).

A

prohibited

135
Q

In some cases, VNAV may not honor altitude constraints on flight plan waypoints. _________________ must be set to the altitude requirement at the active waypoint constraint to ensure proper altitude capture.

A

Altitude preselector

136
Q

The use of this system is limited to performing a caution/warning function only. The Garmin Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS) is _____ inteded as a primary flight instrument.

A

NOT

137
Q

Pilots are ____________ to deviate from their current air traffic control clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a TAWS warning.

A

authorized

138
Q

The terrain display is intended to serve as a ______________ tool only. The terrain/obstacle database does not include 100% of all terrain, nor does it include 100% of all obstacles. Navigation is not to be predicated upon use of the terrain database only.

A

situational awareness

139
Q

Ground proximity alerts must be __________ by selecting __________ on (MFD GTC Home: TAWS > TAWS Settings) when using QFE as an altitude reference.

A

inhibited,

GPWS inhibit

140
Q

Depicted data ______ include knowledge of current NOTAMs and therefore factors such as closure of runways or taxiways may not be reflected. Crews must be cognizant of prevailing NOTAM and ATIS data. Similarly, data on newly constructed or altered airfield geography may not necessarily be included in the database.

A

do not

141
Q

Painted hold lines may not agree with depicted data. Crews must remain behind hold lines when required and _______ depend on depicted data for positioning relative to hold lines.

A

must not

142
Q

HF radio transmissions are prohibited when navigation is predicated on the use of the ____________________.

A

ADF

143
Q

HF 1050 transmission during _________ operations is not approved.

A

refueling

144
Q

When displayed, the geographic-reference airplane symbol on the optional electronic charts ______________ be used for navigation.

A

must not

145
Q

Back-up charts _____ be available to the flight crew.

A

must

146
Q

Electronic chart database chart currency must be verified ____________.

A

prior to their use

147
Q

Who is responsible for verifying availability of charts for the planned flight?

A

THE FLIGHT CREW

CE-680 (2 decks)

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