Sore Throat Flashcards

1
Q

Structure and Functions of cell membrane

A
  • Regulates movement of molecules in and out of the cell
    — the membrane is hydrophobic but contains proteins that allow movement of hydrophilic molecules
  • cell-cell interactions and cell signalling/recognition
    — contains glycoproteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Structure and function of micro filaments

A
  • double strands of actin about 7nm thick
  • forms a mesh below the plasma membrane
  • it’s components are linked to proteins in the cell membrane
    — these in turn may connect with the molecules in the ECM
    —- this helps the cell to fix its shape with respect to the external environment and if necessary, move around
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are actin filaments - structure and function

A
  • provide support for the cell membranes
  • form a core of membrane projections such as microvilli
  • microvilli are present in cells that need to absorb substances form them Extracellular medium such as kidneys and intestine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Structure and function of microtubules

A
  • participate in the intercellular movement of organelles
  • made up of 2 globular proteins; alpha and beta tubulin polymerised into protofilament
  • 13 protofilaments are arranged to form a tube called a singlet —> which can be enlarged to form a doublet or a triplet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where are centrosomes made and found

A

They are made from microtubules and found near the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is fast axonal transport?

A

In the neurones, the proteins required by the synapse are manufactured in the cell body and transported along the microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fast axonal transport happens in how many directions?

A

Both:

  • anterograde transport carries new material from the cell body to the synapse and is carried out by kinesins
  • retrograde transport carries materials back to the cell body for destruction in the lysosomes and is carried out by the motor proteins, dyneins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Structure and function of Golgi

A

Segment names close to nucleus - away: cis, median, trans.

  • modification of proteins and lipids, primarily by glycosylation
  • sorting and distributing to other organelles within the cell or packaging to be secreted from the cell
  • vesicles move from trans Golgi to the membrane via cytoskeletal filaments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Types of junctions:

A
  • tight junctions: prevent movement of substances between cells
  • adhering junctions: which maintain cellular positions
  • gap junctions: which allow movement of substances between cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Distribution of total body water percentage

A

Intracellular fluid: 40% of body weight
Extracellular fluid: 20% of body weight
- interstitial fluid: 15% of TBW
- blood plasma: 5% of TBW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three components needed for homeostasis?

A

Sensor, control centre and effector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Types of control systems and examples

A

OPEN LOOP
- no feedback could result in run-away reactions: controller –> controlled component –> output

CLOSED LOOP

  • output of the system feeds back and influences the controller: controller –> controlled component –> output –> sensor –> feedback –> controller
  • negative feedback: return to set point.
  • positive feedback: moves away from set point

FEEDFORWARD:
- response generated in anticipation of a change: Precision of control depends on power and speed of response of controller
and sensitivity of the sensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where is the central control of thermoregulation?

A

Integration of signals from 2 types of thermoreceptors:

  • cutaneous: convey info via anterolateral pathway
  • internal warm: located in preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus and cervical spinal cord which monitor core temp.

Both these sources send input to the posterior hypothalamus which acts as a thermostat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the body’s response to infection?

A

Increase temperature set point:

  • bacteria/waste products phagocytosed by leukocytes (WBC)
  • pyrogens (cytokines) released
  • binds at hypothalamus
  • change in set point
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Function of lysosome

A

Act by damaging bacterial cell walls, but so no harm to eukaryotic cells as they do not have a cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Functions of mannose binding proteins and c-reactive proteins

A

Mannose binding proteins: act through recognition of particular carbohydrate patterns found on the surface of many pathogenic microorganisms

C-reactive proteins: bind to phosphorylcholine on bacteria, enhancing phagocytosis and assist in complement binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do virally infected cells release?

A

Interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are are the important cytokines secreted by macrophages and their function?

A

IL-1

  • activates: vascular endothelium and lymphocytes
  • tissue destruction
  • fever

IL-8

  • chemo-taxis
  • activation of PMN’s

TNF-a

  • increase vascular permeability inc drainage to LN’s/blocks back flow to blood stream
  • fever

IL-6

  • activates lymphocytes
  • acute phase
  • proteins
  • fever

IL-12

  • activates NK’s
  • CD4+ to Th1 response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Basophils and mast cells function

A

Basophils in blood and mast cells in tissues are both mobile and chemotactic but not phagocytic.

  • they are activated directly by chemical and physical stimuli.
  • they are also activated by nerves, complement and receptors —> allowing them to interact with the adaptive immune system
20
Q

Phagocytes: examples and features of the main two

A

Phagocytes such as neutrophils, monocytes/macrophages, dendritic cells and eosinophils deploy a variety of cell surface receptors which can detect non self and damaged tissues

Two main types: neutrophils v macrophages

  • Abundant; less numerous
  • migrate to tissues during infection; reside in tissues
  • short lived; long lived
  • express MHC class I; express MHC class I
  • pattern recognition; pattern recognition through toll-like receptors
  • responsible for pus formation; up-regulate MHC class II - a link to adaptive immunity
21
Q

Major functions of proteins, carbohydrates, nucleic acid and lipids

A

Proteins: structure and catalyst
Carbohydrates: energy source and marker
Nucleic acid: generic information
Lipids: energy store and cell membrane

22
Q

Bacillus anthracis

A
Gram positive bacteria 
Causative agent of anthrax 
Infects wild and domestic animals 
Produces spores that last in soil for long time
Category 3 pathogen:
• Humans are rarely infected
• Multiple form of the disease
• High mortality in some forms of the disease
23
Q

How people are infected with anthrax

A
  • Working with infected animals or animal products: inhalation and cutaneous anthrax
  • People who eat raw or undercooked meat from infected animal: Gastro Intestinal anthrax
  • Injecting heroin: injection anthrax
24
Q

Pathogenesis of anthrax

A

CAPSULE: polypeptide capsule consisting of poly-D- glutamic acid is produced:
• Synthesis of the capsule is by three enzymes encoded by capA, capB and capC on plasmid pX-02
• A forth enzyme encoded by the dep gene, catalyses the formation of polyglutamates that inhibit phagocytosis

TOXIN: two binary toxins, edema factor (EF) and lethal factor (LF) bind a third toxin component, protective antigen (PA).
• The three toxin components are encoded on plasmid pX-01

25
Q

Treatment for anthrax

A
ANTIBIOTICS
Cutaneous anthrax:
- ciprofloxacin or doxycycline
- 7-10 days
Systemic anthrax: 
- ciprofloxacin with either linezolid or clindomycin 

MONOCLONAL ANTIBODY PREPARATIONS (antitoxin)

VACCINATION

26
Q

Define pathogenicity

A

The capacity of an organism or agent to causes disease reflects it’s relative pathogenicity

27
Q

Define virulence

A

Virulence is the measure of the pathogenicity of an organism or agent

28
Q

Variables that affect virulence

A
  • Number of infecting organisms or agents (infectivity)
  • Route of entry into the body
  • Specific and non-specific host defence mechanisms
  • Intracellular growth replication
  • Virulence factors of the organism or agent
29
Q

Types of pathogens

A

Obligate pathogens:

  • almost always associated with disease.
  • E.g. bacillus anthracis, HIV

Conditional pathogen:

  • may cause disease if certain conditions are met.
  • E.g staphylococcus aureus

Opportunistic pathogen:

  • usually only infects immune compromised host.
  • E.g Cryptococcus neoformans
30
Q

Characteristic of a successful pathogen

A
  • Survival and transmission in the environment
  • Attachment to the surface of the host
  • Overcoming the body defences against infection
  • Ability to damage the host, e.g. by toxin production
31
Q

Name Some virulence factors and why bacteria need them

A
Toxin secretion
Pilus formation
Capsule
Iron transport systems 
Adhesion factors 
Enzymes 
Antibiotic resistance 

They help bacteria to:

  1. Invade the host
  2. Cause disease
  3. Evade host defence
32
Q

Features of virus, Protozoa and fungi

A

Virus: bares no resemblance to any other living cell + only contains parts needed to enter and control a host; DNA/RNA enclosed in protein shell

Protozoa: single celled eukaryotes. 
Classified as: 
• Sporozoa: intracellular parasites
• Flagellates
• Amoeba: use temporary cell-body projections (pseudopods)
• Ciliates

Fungi: eukaryotic, multinucleate or multicellular organisms (but yeasts are single felled). Thick carbohydrate walls with chitin and glucans. Part of normal microbiota as well as pathogens

33
Q

What are the ethical theories?

A
  1. Consequenjtionalism
  2. Deontology
  3. Virtue ethics
34
Q

Consequentialism:

  1. basis
  2. points to note
  3. weaknesses
A

Promotes best consequence.

Must decide how different consequences are going to be morally evaluated and ranked

Weaknesses:

  • some actions that lead to best consequences seem wrong in themselves.
  • Some individuals are treated unjustly
  • Acute vs intended consequences
35
Q

Deontology

  1. basis
  2. points to note
  3. weaknesses
A

It is in accord with a moral rule or principle.

A moral rule is one laid on us by god or would be chosen by a rational being

Weaknesses:

  • consequences matter.
  • How do we decide what on the duties
  • How do you decide duty hierarchy
36
Q

Virtue ethics

  1. basis
  2. points to note
  3. weaknesses
A

It is what a virtuous agent would do in this circumstance.

A virtue is a character trait a human being needs to flourish.

Weaknesses:

  • how do we decide on virtues.
  • May be culturally specific
37
Q

Principles of ethics

A

Autonomy
Benevolence
Non-maleficence
Justice

38
Q

What are applied ethics:

A

Obligatory: right to do it and wrong not to do it. (ethical obligation to perform the action)

Impermissible: wrong to do it and right not to do it

Permissible: neither right not wrong to do it

Supererogatory: right to do it but not wrong to not do it (above and beyond)

39
Q

What is stridor?

A

Abnormal noise generated around the larynx

40
Q

How is homeostasis maintained?

  1. within cells
  2. within tissues?
A
  1. Genetics

2. nervous system (quick response - seconds) and endocrine system (longer response - mins-hours)

41
Q

Describe the process of thermoregulation within normal range

A
  1. skin and hypothalamus receptors detect increased T
  2. effector responses (sweating, vasodilation etc) begin to reduce T
  3. receptors detect T below set point
  4. effector responses (vasoconstriction etc) begin to increase T
42
Q

Describe the negative feedback control of arterial blood pressure

A

baroreceptors (sensor) signals the solitary nucleus in medulla oblongata (control centre) references set point and identifies change in BP.

Heart and blood vessels respond (effectors).

negative feedback returns the controlled variable to within safe limits (rise and fall in arterial blood pressure).

43
Q

Define gain

A

Degree of effectiveness of the negative feedback control system.

Gain = correction/error

44
Q

What are the four criteria’s of the doctrine of double effect?

A
  1. The action must be good, independent of its consequences
  2. Although the bad effect can be foreseen, the agent must intend only the good effect
  3. The bad effect must not be a means to the good effect
  4. The good effect must outweigh, or compensate for, the bad effect
45
Q

What are the 5 R’s of medicine safety?

A
Right patient
Right drug
Right dose
Right route
Right time
46
Q

Describe some of the common causes of sore throat

A

Tonsils

Strep throat

  • red throat + tonsils
  • neck nodes
  • dysphagia
  • odynophagia
  • penicillin

Tonsilitis

  • sore throat
  • difficulty swallowing
  • fever
  • penicillin/supportive
47
Q

Describe some uncommon causes of sore throat

A

Quincy

  • peritonsillar abscess
  • complication of tonsillitis
  • can’t open mouth (trismus) is key sign
  • drain it

Glandular fever

  • infective mononucleosis
  • epstein barr virus
  • large tonsils
  • greyish/white exudate
  • supportive treatment

Croup

  • children (6m to 3y)
  • ciral
  • gradual onset (URTI, stridor, barking cough)
  • treatment: open airway, intubation