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Captain Exam 2024 > SOPs > Flashcards

SOPs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of a memo?

A

To address administrative policies and alter or clarify routine practices but may not alter or amend SOPs or Rules and Regulations. Posted for 30 consecutive days.

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2
Q

Letters and appreciation and commendation shall be discarded from the bulletin board after how many days?

A

30 days. Other items discarded as appropriate.

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3
Q

Who is authorized to discipline members?

A

Staff and line officers

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4
Q

Who can invoke discipline up to and including suspension?

A

Fire chief, deputy chiefs, and assistant/battalion chiefs

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5
Q

How much notice does a member needs to receive prior to discipline?

A

24 hours

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6
Q

Suspensions can be issued up to how long before being referred to the Board of Fire and Police Commission?

A

12 hours-5 days

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7
Q

How much advance do you need to provide to the Shift Commander to use sick leave?

A

60 minutes prior to scheduled work day when possible

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8
Q

Who can release information pertaining to cause and origin of an incident to the media?

A

Fire chief, deputy chiefs, battalion chiefs, PIO, or Fire investigator assigned to the incident

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9
Q

A retiring member should contact HR how soon before retirement?

A

At least 6 months prior to retirement date

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10
Q

What information should the seniority list contain?

A

Member name, employee number, shift assignment/rank, rank date, and employment date

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11
Q

How long does a volunteer request for shift transfer need to be posted?

A

7 calendar days

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12
Q

What is the injury reporting window provided by IDOL?

A

45 days

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13
Q

What is the number for MEDCOR?

A

1-800-775-5866

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14
Q

How should injuries be documented from emergency calls?

A

As a Fire Service Casualty in the ImageTrend report

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15
Q

Recommendations from injury/incident investigations should be sent to who?

A

DC of Operations

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16
Q

Who is responsible to notify HR of work restrictions or work release?

A

The employee

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17
Q

Preference for union meeting attendance should be given to who first?

A

Union officers and committee members

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18
Q

Who makes the decision to lay off a firefighter?

A

City Manager

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19
Q

Who should be notified immediately regarding a citizen complaint?

A

The Battalion Chief

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20
Q

How must an employee request administrative duty for sick and injury leave?

A

In writing to the Fire Chief

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21
Q

What uniform is required for administrative duty?

A

Class C uniform

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22
Q

If a member is given an order believed to be unjust and informs the officer, the officer must make a decision by:

A

Rescinding, revising, or reaffirming the original order

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23
Q

How must sideburns be groomed?

A

May not protrude more than 1/4” when extending past the middle of the ear, and must not extend past the bottom of the ear

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24
Q

How far can a mustache extend vertically and horizontally from the corner of the mouth?

A

1/2”

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25
Q

How many piercings are allowed per ear?

A

2

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26
Q

How long must a member be off of work prior to starting a 48 hour shift?

A

7 hours

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27
Q

How many times must the BC allow the phone ring during call-ins?

A

7 times out of

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28
Q

After not reporting for how long after all-call should the member contact the BC for need to come in?

A

30 minutes

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29
Q

How long to turn out for an alarm?

A

60 seconds

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30
Q

When does Operative IQ documentation have to be submitted by?

A

16:00 each day

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31
Q

How wide are department issued belts?

A

1-3/8”

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32
Q

How many inches from the sleeve is the cuff stripe on a Class A uniform?

A

3 inches

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33
Q

What sleeve bears the service hash marks?

A

Left sleeve, above the cuff stripe

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34
Q

The patch should be sewn how many inches from the shoulder seam?

A

1-1/2 inches

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35
Q

Uniform hat should be what style?

A

Bell Crown

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36
Q

The IAFF pin may be worn in what pocket flap on the class b uniform?

A

Right pocket flap

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37
Q

How high can boots be with uniform shorts?

A

6 inches

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38
Q

Between what times are station visitors authorized?

A

Between 0700-2200, limited to 20 minutes unless authorized by captain

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39
Q

What discipline can be assigned for tardiness?

A

1-coaching, 2-written, 3-suspension, 4-termination

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40
Q

How long are personal phone calls allowed?

A

15 minutes

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41
Q

Who will take pictures of accidents involving department vehicles?

A

The shift commander if available

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42
Q

Who is notified by on scene by the shift commander or captain of an accident?

A

DC Operations and EMS, even after hours

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43
Q

Pictures of accidents and the report should be submitted to:

A

The fire chief, DCO, and DC EMS

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44
Q

An employee will be given 24 hours off if required to travel before when the next day?

A

Noon

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45
Q

Travel time in excess of __ is considered a work day?

A

6 hours

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46
Q

How are notifications received to lower the flag?

A

An email to the Bloomington Dispatch Center from the Illinois Department of Central Management Services, then emailed to FD staff

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47
Q

The annual apparatus skills evaluation is divided into how many modules?

A

6
1. Maintenance inspections
2. Apparatus familiarization
3. Safety procedures
4. Road course driving
5. Cone course driving
6. Pump/Aerial operations

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48
Q

How long is a PFF assigned to 40 hour work week after academy?

A

2 weeks

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49
Q

How many days does a PFF have to test into the EMS system?

A

45 days

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50
Q

Per diem checks should be issued how many days prior to event?

A

7 days

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51
Q

How many days after travel does a member have to complete a travel form?

A

5 days. Form is provided by admin staff

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52
Q

What is a quorum for awards committee?

A

3 members

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53
Q

Awards are presented within what time period of action?

A

3 months

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54
Q

Awards bars are worn where?

A

1/4” above nameplate on Class A, 1/4” above pocket on Class B

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55
Q

Where are awards presented?

A

Bloomington Council Meeting: Medal of Valor, Medal of Bravery, Life Saving Award
Scheduled Shift Meeting: Distinguished Service, Meritorious Service, Field Excellence/Unit Citation
Regular Scheduled Training: Education, Military Service, Honor Guard, Chief Vision, Pre-Hospital Delivery

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56
Q

What number is dialed for conference call?

A

2382

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57
Q

NFPA 1620 is the standard for:

A

Pre-Incident Planning

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58
Q

What is the purpose of job shadowing?

A

Intended for 16+ year olds with no experience to learn what it’s like being a firefighter/paramedic. One time 4-12 hour maximum

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59
Q

FTOs must have how much experience within the department?

A

2 years as a paramedic in Bloomington

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60
Q

When do school education leave requests get submitted?

A

Submitted by email to the DC Training 5 business days in advance of training date

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61
Q

When can a BC approve school leave?

A

BC can approve requests received 72 hours in advance

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62
Q

What are the medical screening thresholds for HAZMAT entry and decontamination personnel?

A

Diastolic BP 105 or greater, pulse based on age, respirations >24/minute

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63
Q

What is the standard tech level hazmat response within B/N?

A

Closest fire apparatus and ambulance, HAZMAT-1, E2

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64
Q

A callback should be initiated after how many units are committed to a Tech level HAZMAT in B/N?

A

4 fire units

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65
Q

What is the standard response for Tech level HAZMAT outside of Bloomington?

A

HAZMAT-1, fire apparatus, ambulance

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66
Q

A callback should be initiated after how many apparatus leave Bloomington for a HAZMAT?

A

3 fire apparatus

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67
Q

Who is responsible for developing the IAP for HAZMAT?

A

Battalion Chief or HAZMAT-1 officer

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68
Q

Who shall be the HAZMAT branch officer on calls outside of Bloomington, and what minimum qualifications?

A

BC, HAZMAT-1 officer, or responding staff officer. Trained to Tech level, IC certified

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69
Q

Where is the main disconnect (electrical) usually located for commercial and residential structures?

A

Commercial—outside at the meter. Residential—inside the structure within 6 feet of the exterior meter

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70
Q

Aerial ladders and ground ladders should be kept how far from overhead lines?

A

10 feet

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71
Q

When in storm mode, power lines can be left after:

A
  1. Notifying shift commander
  2. Identifying exclusion zone with caution tape
  3. Notifying persons in hazard area of circumstances and dangers
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72
Q

The hot stick should be turned on to what setting during start up?

A

High intensity

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73
Q

The hot stick will have an LED indicator and several beeps for how long during start up?

A

3 seconds

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74
Q

The UTV training includes:

A

Classroom portion and driving course

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75
Q

The UTV is designed to transport how many people?

A
  1. Exception is the EMS insert in the back that can transport 1 patient
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76
Q

What are the towing and cargo capacities of the UTV?

A

2000lbs towing, 1000lbs cargo

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77
Q

What is the capacity of the winch on the UTV?

A

4000lbs

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78
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed while plowing with the UTV?

A

5mph

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79
Q

PFFs shall pass the Class B written exam within how many days of employment?

A

180 days

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80
Q

HAZMAT certifications shall be maintained in accordance with what standards?

A

NFPA 472 and OSHA 29CFR1910.120

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81
Q

Certificates of training shall be submitted to the Deputy Chief of Training within how many calendar days?

A

7

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82
Q

Company officers must ensure members under their command maintain abilities within what standard?

A

NFPA 1001–Firefighter Professional qualifications

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83
Q

Captains must maintain skills under what standard?

A

NFPA 1021–Fire Officer Professional Qualifications
NFPA 1041–Fire and Emergency Services Instructor Professional Qualifications

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84
Q

What are the 3 levels of training in the department?

A

Level 1–Must know, taught by 1 instructor across the 3 shifts (EMS/Blue Card)
Level 2–Need to know, taught by CO or BC (monthly training)
Level 3–Nice to know, taught by CO (NIOSH, pre plan, LODD)

85
Q

What is the standard for live fire training?

A

NFPA 1403

86
Q

What is the standard for protective ensembles for structural firefighting?

A

NFPA 1971

87
Q

What is the standard for open-circuit self contained breathing apparatus?

A

NFPA 1981

88
Q

What is the standard for rehabilitation process for members during emergency operations and training exercises?

A

NFPA 1584

89
Q

Helmets must be worn when operating within how many feet from the tower?

A

20 feet

90
Q

How many Power Jamb Forcible Entry Trainers are there on the tower?

A

4

91
Q

How many inches above the lock on the Power Jamb must the tool be?

A

6 inches

92
Q

Water can’t be used at the tower within what parameter?

A

35 degrees or below for 24 hours

93
Q

Outside training activities requiring prolonged exertion shall not be conducted during what times of day?

A

Heat Stress Index exceeding 105 degrees

94
Q

The Deputy Chief of Training will respond to training requests within what timeframe of the course?

A

1 month

95
Q

Captains and down are required to have what NIMS training?

A

NIMS-100, 200, 700, 800

96
Q

EMS Supervisors, BCs, DCs and the Fire Chief need what level of NIMS training?

A

NIMS 100, 200, 300, 400, 700, 800

97
Q

Who enforces ANSI/ISEA 107-1999 standard on high visibility safety garments?

A

IDOT and IDOL

98
Q

Workers conducting traffic control, cone and emergency sign set up must wear what garment?

A

Class 3 safety garment, highest level of conspicuity for workers

99
Q

Ambulance and the emergency workers not conducting traffic control must wear what?

A

Class 2 vest or department reflective jacket

100
Q

Vehicles should be cleared of the roadway in what time frame for minor duration incidents when possible?

A

30 minutes

101
Q

Traffic cones should be deployed no greater than how many feet apart?

A

40 feet. Furthest cone approximately 200’ upstream on limited access highways

102
Q

Second blocking unit on an interstate should take how many lanes?

A

Two 12’ lanes plus shoulder or three lanes

103
Q

Incidents exceeding 30 minutes on the interstate become what type of MUTCD incident?

A

Intermediate duration incident

104
Q

Road closures exceeding what time frame requires MUTCD compliant traffic control?

A

2 hours

105
Q

What is the permissible exposure limit, Bloomington accepted exposure, and IDLH level of HCN pertaining to structure fire?

A

PEL—10 ppm
BFD—4.7 ppm
IDLH—50 ppm

106
Q

What is the PEL, Bloomington limit, and IDLH of CO pertaining to structure fire?

A

PEL—50 ppm
BFD—35 ppm
IDLH—1200 ppm

107
Q

How long does the Plymovent turn on when a vehicle is started?

A

3 minutes

108
Q

A vehicle is limited to how many RPMs and what time duration when hooked up to the Plymovent?

A

1500 rpm for 5 minutes

109
Q

The rehab officer must maintain a transport ambulance for every __ people undergoing rehab.

A

15
Need one paramedic for every 10 people in rehab

110
Q

During heat stress, how much water should be consumed per hour?

A

1 quart per hour. After 1 hour, 6-8 ounces of 4-8% carbohydrate solution should be consumed every 15 minutes

111
Q

Rehab and rest of 20 minutes should be provided after what?

A

2 bottle rule or 40 minutes of intense work without SCBA

112
Q

How much water should be consumed during bottle changes?

A

At least 16 ounces

113
Q

Those who experience problems with baseline vitals after how much rest should be transported?

A

30 minutes

114
Q

Personnel requiring more than ___ rest should be relieved of duty and transported?

A

1 hour

115
Q

Requests for CISD are made to who?

A

Deputy Chief of Operations

116
Q

What is the standard for fire service respiratory protection training?

A

NFPA 1404

117
Q

All personnel using SCBA are required to pass an annual quantitative or qualitative fit test in accordance with:

A

CFR1910.134

118
Q

What is the standard for selection, care and maintenance of protective ensembles for structural firefighting and proximity firefighting?

A

NFPA 1851

119
Q

PFD should be worn within what distance from water?

A

10 feet

120
Q

When is an SCBA required for CO alarms?

A

70ppm

121
Q

Water should not exceed what temperature for cleaning structural ensemble and helmets?

A

105 degrees, 130 degrees for hoods

122
Q

If PPE is suspected of bio-contamination, what should be used?

A

3-6% concentration of stabilized hydrogen peroxide, soaked for 3-5 minutes on contaminated area

123
Q

Water and disinfectant for SCBA face piece should not exceed what temperature?

A

110 degrees

124
Q

Reserve apparatus shall be driven on Mondays for how long?

A

15 minutes

125
Q

Engine powered equipment should be started and ran daily for how long?

A

5 minutes in accordance with manufacturer recommendations

126
Q

If a unit replacement is expected to take more than ___ hours, engines shall be replaced with engines and trucks with trucks.

A

8 hours

127
Q

Cloth and other porous items shall be marked with:

A

Indelible ink

128
Q

Loose equipment shall be marked with:

A

Color code, die stamp, or electric engraver

129
Q

How should fire hose be stenciled?

A

With a unique inventory number, 8 inches from each hose coupling

130
Q

How long should a hydrant be flowed during inspection?

A

At least 30 seconds or until water is reasonable clear

131
Q

Hose manufactured before what date should be taken OOS?

A

July 1987

132
Q

Total length of hose for testing shall not exceed what length?

A

300 feet

133
Q

What pressure does the hose tester get tested at?

A

10% higher than the highest pressure test; 440 psi

134
Q

What side of the hose should you walk during testing, and at what distance?

A

Left side, 15’

135
Q

What are acceptable air monitoring levels for removal of SCBA? (Use of SCBA and Air Purifying Respirator SOP)

A

CO under 70 ppm
HCN under 4.7 ppm
Oxygen 19.5-21%
H2S 10 ppm or lower
LEL 10% or lower

136
Q

Fire investigators should wear an APR within how many hours of a fire?

A

72 hours

137
Q

When do crew members need to give automatic air status reports?

A

When the first member reaches 2000psi

138
Q

The RIT leader will track a member on low air alarm and notify the IC at what point?

A

If the member has not exited the structure after 1 minute

139
Q

What size are pass tags?

A

3/8”x2”

140
Q

When should IC call for a PAR?

A
  1. Change in strategy
  2. Sudden hazardous event
  3. Missing or trapped firefighter
  4. 30-minute intervals
  5. Fire under control
  6. Discretion of IC
141
Q

What are the mile markers for auto-aid with BTFPD on the interstates?

A

I-55/74 north at MM161
I-55 south at MM155.5 (Stringtown)
I-74 east at MM134

142
Q

What level body armor is provided for violent incidents?

A

Level III ballistic body armor, ballistic helmet, safety glasses

143
Q

What is the response for a human victim for ice water rescue?

A

Closest engine/truck, closest apparatus with RDC, shift commander, 2 ambulances
Animal is 1 ambulance and no shift commander

144
Q

What is the Standard of the Organization and Deployment of Fire Suppression Operations, Emergency Medical Operations and Special Operations by Career Fire Departments?

A

NFPA 1710

145
Q

What is the Standard of the Organization and Deployment of Fire Suppression Operations, Emergency Medical Operations and Special Operations by Career Fire Departments?

A

NFPA 1710

146
Q

What is the required turnout time, first company on scene time, and full response scene time for structure fires?

A

1 minute turnout
4 minute response
8 minute full assignment
90% of the time

147
Q

What is the 3rd alarm for a residential fire?

A

1 additional engine or truck, MABAS Air Truck (HUDSON), Support-1, EMA Command post, mutual aid backfill stations

148
Q

When should RIT be established for residential fires?

A

After water supply, fire attack, and primary search have enough members/companies assigned

149
Q

If no life safety issues are present, what strategy should be employed until next arriving company is on scene?

A

Defensive

150
Q

If a life safety issue is present, what tactic is the top priority?

A

Fire control in conjunction with rescue if it can be done with acceptable risk to the company

151
Q

The second arriving unit to a residential fire will establish a water supply of what capability?

A

400gpm for 30 minutes

152
Q

When should an ISO be used at fires?

A

All fires where more than 1 crew is actively involved in suppression

153
Q

What is the definition of a high rise?

A

Any structure that is 4 or more stories in height

154
Q

What is the maximum personnel allowed in an elevator for a high rise fire?

A

6

155
Q

The initial attack crew for a high rise fire will consist of how many people?

A

4; 6 if initial medic is on scene and not needed for EMS

156
Q

Where will RIT stage for high rise fires?

A

2 floors below fire floor

157
Q

What are the search priorities for high rise?

A

Immediate floor, floor above, floor below, then top floor based on smoke conditions

158
Q

Where will rescues be moved in high rise fires?

A

Safe area 3 floors above or below fire if evacuation is not needed

159
Q

What area should be kept clear around a high rise fire?

A

100 feet

160
Q

What are the two primary RIT functions?

A
  1. Locating downed member, assessing needs, and moving member to safe place
  2. Forecast potential FG problems and fix them prior to incident occurring
161
Q

What are minimum RIT tools?

A

RIT pack or spare SCBA, irons, TIC

162
Q

RIT personnel deployment order is:

A
  1. Officer with TIC and RASP bag
  2. RIT SCBA
  3. Forcible entry tools/other specialized tools requested
163
Q

RIT officer will communicate with RIT SDG chief every:

A

5 minutes

164
Q

What will dispatch initiate after notification of MAYDAY?

A

Upgrade alarm, notify Staff Officers if not already complete, begin 5-minute checks

165
Q

Other IC MAYDAY considerations:

A
  1. Dispatch send MAYDAY alert on main and FG channels
  2. Level 2 staging
  3. All call
  4. Normal TRT
  5. BFD chaplain
  6. Air truck or BTDPD squad
  7. EMA command truck
166
Q

What are the airport Alerts?

A

Alert I—minor aircraft difficulty
Alert II—moderate to major difficulty
Alert III—aircraft has crashed
Alert IV—medical emergency
Alert V—security nature requiring law enforcement

167
Q

What are the alphabetical alerts for the airport?

A

A—plane carrying less than 8 passengers
B—8-12 passengers
C—all air carrier aircraft at CIRA. 30-100+

168
Q

Where will CR-1 stage for inbound aircraft?

A

The taxiway at the approach end of the runway the aircraft is landing on

169
Q

What is the no-entry zone for proposed drone takeoff and recovery point?

A

At least 10 feet

170
Q

Drone pilot in charge must report accidents to the FAA within how many days?

A

10
Only if serious injury or property damage over $500

171
Q

When does NICOR need to be notified for a CO call?

A

If gas has to be shut off to the building or occupancy if the gas can’t be shut off at the appliance

172
Q

What is the life expectancy of a CO alarm?

A

7 years

173
Q

When does Building Safety have to be notified for CO alarms?

A

When CO is over 70ppm or if it is found that residents are heating homes with gas appliances

174
Q

What are the flammable limits of natural gas?

A

Approximately 3-15% in air

175
Q

Full still assignments for outside gas leaks are ordered for gas lines of what size?

A

4 inches or greater

176
Q

Arriving apparatus should be positioned how far from buildings with suspected gas leaks?

A

150 feet

177
Q

When can the fire department reset a fire alarm?

A

When a key holder is not available and no problems are found. If the system goes back into alarm, it will remain in alarm u til evaluated by the alarm company

178
Q

If no access to the building for an AFA and no problem found, what is the procedure?

A

Perform second walk around after 10 minutes. If no key holder available or more than 20 minute response, clear scene.

179
Q

When does Building Safety get notified for AFA?

A

Alarm won’t reset, sprinkler activation, taking alarm offline. In high life hazard facility, building safety needs to respond. Non-life hazard, email back at the station

180
Q

What is the difference between Level 1 and 2 disaster activations for snow?

A

1–snow >6 inches over 12 hours causing drifting or up to 10 inches of snow. Recall plow driver
2–>10 inches of snow within 12 hours with drifting. Recall plow driver +3

181
Q

Difference between Level 1 and 2 ice storm?

A

1–1/4 inch ice. Plow driver and fire apparatus recall
2–1/2 inch ice. 4 +3. Staff member to dispatch center.

182
Q

Members should report response to crime scenes and suspected crime scenes via email to who?

A

Captain, BC, and EMS supervisor. BC will forward copy of run report and email to staff

183
Q

EMS report need to be completed in what time frame?

A

Within 8 hours of transport

184
Q

How should reports of questionable non-emergency transports be reported?

A

Ambulance crew reports via email to their supervisor upon return to station.

185
Q

Emergency transfers will be no further than what distance from the transferring hospital?

A

60 miles

186
Q

How many ambulances should be available before committing resources to emergency transfers?

A

2

187
Q

Who determines a warm zone for tactical law enforcement operations?

A

SWAT Team Leader

188
Q

How much training will a medical support liaison be required to attend with the SWAT team?

A

4 hours quarterly

189
Q

The medical support liaison will be taken OOS how long before the operational briefing?

A

30 minutes

190
Q

Priority for EMS ride time is given in what order?

A
  1. BFD personnel
  2. Critical care nursing students
  3. ECRN and EMT students
  4. Sponsored and licensed EMTs
191
Q

Signed waivers and authorization forms must be submitted to the Education EMS Supervisor at least __ weeks prior to initial ride time.

A

3

192
Q

How many days prior to EMS license expiration shall a member notify their EMS Supervisor?

A

90 days

193
Q

Department members shall submit their training records and other required documentation to the EMS office no later than ___ days in advance of license expiration.

A

60

194
Q

A department member shall notify their EMS Supervisor if they haven’t received their new license within ___ days of expiration.

A

30

195
Q

Who has the primary responsibility to secure the structure after a fire?

A

The building owner/occupant. The IC will check with RP regarding securing structure. If unable, Community Development will be contacted.

196
Q

Written documentation of specific date, time, location, and nature of problem for station alerting system shall be emailed to:

A

Fire chief, DCO, DC EMS, and Emergency Communication Center Director

197
Q

How many outdoor warning sirens in Bloomington?

A

17

198
Q

How many outdoor warning sirens are inspected each month?

A

4-5 at 10 on first Tuesday. 4 group of sirens listed

199
Q

Visual inspection problems of warning sirens are submitted to:

A

DCO, DC EMS, Battalion Chiefs. BC notifies Emergency Communications Center Director

200
Q

What fires require no less than 2 investigators?

A

Fire with multiple injuries, death, or serious injury to civilian or firefighter

201
Q

Investigators shall be notified for fires with moderate damage. Moderate damage is

A

A fire that spreads beyond room of origin and leaves structure uninhabitable

202
Q

Fires involving minor damage are defined as:

A

Less than $1000, does not spread beyond room of origin or render the structure uninhabitable

203
Q

The OSFM must be notified by law in what incidents?

A
  1. Death related to the incident
  2. Serious bodily injury as result of fire
  3. Monetary loss over $100,000
204
Q

A fire investigators report should include what at minimum?

A

NIFRS, digital photography, files notes, sketch, and weather report

205
Q

The OSFM notification for required reporting of fires in what time frame?

A

24 hours

206
Q

How many pieces of evidence tape are necessary for evidence cans?

A

Minimum 2

207
Q

Bonfire burn site maps are submitted to who for approval?

A

DCO

208
Q

Bonfires shall be of what maximum height and diameter?

A

10 feet

209
Q

Bonfires shall be how far from structures, vegetation or combustible materials?

A

50 feet

Captain Exam 2024 (4 decks)

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