SOPs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of a memo?

A

To address administrative policies and alter or clarify routine practices but may not alter or amend SOPs or Rules and Regulations. Posted for 30 consecutive days.

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2
Q

Letters and appreciation and commendation shall be discarded from the bulletin board after how many days?

A

30 days. Other items discarded as appropriate.

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3
Q

Who is authorized to discipline members?

A

Staff and line officers

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4
Q

Who can invoke discipline up to and including suspension?

A

Fire chief, deputy chiefs, and assistant/battalion chiefs

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5
Q

How much notice does a member needs to receive prior to discipline?

A

24 hours

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6
Q

Suspensions can be issued up to how long before being referred to the Board of Fire and Police Commission?

A

12 hours-5 days

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7
Q

How much advance do you need to provide to the Shift Commander to use sick leave?

A

60 minutes prior to scheduled work day when possible

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8
Q

Who can release information pertaining to cause and origin of an incident to the media?

A

Fire chief, deputy chiefs, battalion chiefs, PIO, or Fire investigator assigned to the incident

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9
Q

A retiring member should contact HR how soon before retirement?

A

At least 6 months prior to retirement date

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10
Q

What information should the seniority list contain?

A

Member name, employee number, shift assignment/rank, rank date, and employment date

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11
Q

How long does a volunteer request for shift transfer need to be posted?

A

7 calendar days

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12
Q

What is the injury reporting window provided by IDOL?

A

45 days

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13
Q

What is the number for MEDCOR?

A

1-800-775-5866

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14
Q

How should injuries be documented from emergency calls?

A

As a Fire Service Casualty in the ImageTrend report

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15
Q

Recommendations from injury/incident investigations should be sent to who?

A

DC of Operations

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16
Q

Who is responsible to notify HR of work restrictions or work release?

A

The employee

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17
Q

Preference for union meeting attendance should be given to who first?

A

Union officers and committee members

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18
Q

Who makes the decision to lay off a firefighter?

A

City Manager

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19
Q

Who should be notified immediately regarding a citizen complaint?

A

The Battalion Chief

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20
Q

How must an employee request administrative duty for sick and injury leave?

A

In writing to the Fire Chief

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21
Q

What uniform is required for administrative duty?

A

Class C uniform

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22
Q

If a member is given an order believed to be unjust and informs the officer, the officer must make a decision by:

A

Rescinding, revising, or reaffirming the original order

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23
Q

How must sideburns be groomed?

A

May not protrude more than 1/4” when extending past the middle of the ear, and must not extend past the bottom of the ear

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24
Q

How far can a mustache extend vertically and horizontally from the corner of the mouth?

A

1/2”

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25
How many piercings are allowed per ear?
2
26
How long must a member be off of work prior to starting a 48 hour shift?
7 hours
27
How many times must the BC allow the phone ring during call-ins?
7 times out of
28
After not reporting for how long after all-call should the member contact the BC for need to come in?
30 minutes
29
How long to turn out for an alarm?
60 seconds
30
When does Operative IQ documentation have to be submitted by?
16:00 each day
31
How wide are department issued belts?
1-3/8”
32
How many inches from the sleeve is the cuff stripe on a Class A uniform?
3 inches
33
What sleeve bears the service hash marks?
Left sleeve, above the cuff stripe
34
The patch should be sewn how many inches from the shoulder seam?
1-1/2 inches
35
Uniform hat should be what style?
Bell Crown
36
The IAFF pin may be worn in what pocket flap on the class b uniform?
Right pocket flap
37
How high can boots be with uniform shorts?
6 inches
38
Between what times are station visitors authorized?
Between 0700-2200, limited to 20 minutes unless authorized by captain
39
What discipline can be assigned for tardiness?
1-coaching, 2-written, 3-suspension, 4-termination
40
How long are personal phone calls allowed?
15 minutes
41
Who will take pictures of accidents involving department vehicles?
The shift commander if available
42
Who is notified by on scene by the shift commander or captain of an accident?
DC Operations and EMS, even after hours
43
Pictures of accidents and the report should be submitted to:
The fire chief, DCO, and DC EMS
44
An employee will be given 24 hours off if required to travel before when the next day?
Noon
45
Travel time in excess of __ is considered a work day?
6 hours
46
How are notifications received to lower the flag?
An email to the Bloomington Dispatch Center from the Illinois Department of Central Management Services, then emailed to FD staff
47
The annual apparatus skills evaluation is divided into how many modules?
6 1. Maintenance inspections 2. Apparatus familiarization 3. Safety procedures 4. Road course driving 5. Cone course driving 6. Pump/Aerial operations
48
How long is a PFF assigned to 40 hour work week after academy?
2 weeks
49
How many days does a PFF have to test into the EMS system?
45 days
50
Per diem checks should be issued how many days prior to event?
7 days
51
How many days after travel does a member have to complete a travel form?
5 days. Form is provided by admin staff
52
What is a quorum for awards committee?
3 members
53
Awards are presented within what time period of action?
3 months
54
Awards bars are worn where?
1/4” above nameplate on Class A, 1/4” above pocket on Class B
55
Where are awards presented?
Bloomington Council Meeting: Medal of Valor, Medal of Bravery, Life Saving Award Scheduled Shift Meeting: Distinguished Service, Meritorious Service, Field Excellence/Unit Citation Regular Scheduled Training: Education, Military Service, Honor Guard, Chief Vision, Pre-Hospital Delivery
56
What number is dialed for conference call?
2382
57
NFPA 1620 is the standard for:
Pre-Incident Planning
58
What is the purpose of job shadowing?
Intended for 16+ year olds with no experience to learn what it’s like being a firefighter/paramedic. One time 4-12 hour maximum
59
FTOs must have how much experience within the department?
2 years as a paramedic in Bloomington
60
When do school education leave requests get submitted?
Submitted by email to the DC Training 5 business days in advance of training date
61
When can a BC approve school leave?
BC can approve requests received 72 hours in advance
62
What are the medical screening thresholds for HAZMAT entry and decontamination personnel?
Diastolic BP 105 or greater, pulse based on age, respirations >24/minute
63
What is the standard tech level hazmat response within B/N?
Closest fire apparatus and ambulance, HAZMAT-1, E2
64
A callback should be initiated after how many units are committed to a Tech level HAZMAT in B/N?
4 fire units
65
What is the standard response for Tech level HAZMAT outside of Bloomington?
HAZMAT-1, fire apparatus, ambulance
66
A callback should be initiated after how many apparatus leave Bloomington for a HAZMAT?
3 fire apparatus
67
Who is responsible for developing the IAP for HAZMAT?
Battalion Chief or HAZMAT-1 officer
68
Who shall be the HAZMAT branch officer on calls outside of Bloomington, and what minimum qualifications?
BC, HAZMAT-1 officer, or responding staff officer. Trained to Tech level, IC certified
69
Where is the main disconnect (electrical) usually located for commercial and residential structures?
Commercial—outside at the meter. Residential—inside the structure within 6 feet of the exterior meter
70
Aerial ladders and ground ladders should be kept how far from overhead lines?
10 feet
71
When in storm mode, power lines can be left after:
1. Notifying shift commander 2. Identifying exclusion zone with caution tape 3. Notifying persons in hazard area of circumstances and dangers
72
The hot stick should be turned on to what setting during start up?
High intensity
73
The hot stick will have an LED indicator and several beeps for how long during start up?
3 seconds
74
The UTV training includes:
Classroom portion and driving course
75
The UTV is designed to transport how many people?
3. Exception is the EMS insert in the back that can transport 1 patient
76
What are the towing and cargo capacities of the UTV?
2000lbs towing, 1000lbs cargo
77
What is the capacity of the winch on the UTV?
4000lbs
78
What is the maximum speed allowed while plowing with the UTV?
5mph
79
PFFs shall pass the Class B written exam within how many days of employment?
180 days
80
HAZMAT certifications shall be maintained in accordance with what standards?
NFPA 472 and OSHA 29CFR1910.120
81
Certificates of training shall be submitted to the Deputy Chief of Training within how many calendar days?
7
82
Company officers must ensure members under their command maintain abilities within what standard?
NFPA 1001–Firefighter Professional qualifications
83
Captains must maintain skills under what standard?
NFPA 1021–Fire Officer Professional Qualifications NFPA 1041–Fire and Emergency Services Instructor Professional Qualifications
84
What are the 3 levels of training in the department?
Level 1–Must know, taught by 1 instructor across the 3 shifts (EMS/Blue Card) Level 2–Need to know, taught by CO or BC (monthly training) Level 3–Nice to know, taught by CO (NIOSH, pre plan, LODD)
85
What is the standard for live fire training?
NFPA 1403
86
What is the standard for protective ensembles for structural firefighting?
NFPA 1971
87
What is the standard for open-circuit self contained breathing apparatus?
NFPA 1981
88
What is the standard for rehabilitation process for members during emergency operations and training exercises?
NFPA 1584
89
Helmets must be worn when operating within how many feet from the tower?
20 feet
90
How many Power Jamb Forcible Entry Trainers are there on the tower?
4
91
How many inches above the lock on the Power Jamb must the tool be?
6 inches
92
Water can’t be used at the tower within what parameter?
35 degrees or below for 24 hours
93
Outside training activities requiring prolonged exertion shall not be conducted during what times of day?
Heat Stress Index exceeding 105 degrees
94
The Deputy Chief of Training will respond to training requests within what timeframe of the course?
1 month
95
Captains and down are required to have what NIMS training?
NIMS-100, 200, 700, 800
96
EMS Supervisors, BCs, DCs and the Fire Chief need what level of NIMS training?
NIMS 100, 200, 300, 400, 700, 800
97
Who enforces ANSI/ISEA 107-1999 standard on high visibility safety garments?
IDOT and IDOL
98
Workers conducting traffic control, cone and emergency sign set up must wear what garment?
Class 3 safety garment, highest level of conspicuity for workers
99
Ambulance and the emergency workers not conducting traffic control must wear what?
Class 2 vest or department reflective jacket
100
Vehicles should be cleared of the roadway in what time frame for minor duration incidents when possible?
30 minutes
101
Traffic cones should be deployed no greater than how many feet apart?
40 feet. Furthest cone approximately 200’ upstream on limited access highways
102
Second blocking unit on an interstate should take how many lanes?
Two 12’ lanes plus shoulder or three lanes
103
Incidents exceeding 30 minutes on the interstate become what type of MUTCD incident?
Intermediate duration incident
104
Road closures exceeding what time frame requires MUTCD compliant traffic control?
2 hours
105
What is the permissible exposure limit, Bloomington accepted exposure, and IDLH level of HCN pertaining to structure fire?
PEL—10 ppm BFD—4.7 ppm IDLH—50 ppm
106
What is the PEL, Bloomington limit, and IDLH of CO pertaining to structure fire?
PEL—50 ppm BFD—35 ppm IDLH—1200 ppm
107
How long does the Plymovent turn on when a vehicle is started?
3 minutes
108
A vehicle is limited to how many RPMs and what time duration when hooked up to the Plymovent?
1500 rpm for 5 minutes
109
The rehab officer must maintain a transport ambulance for every __ people undergoing rehab.
15 Need one paramedic for every 10 people in rehab
110
During heat stress, how much water should be consumed per hour?
1 quart per hour. After 1 hour, 6-8 ounces of 4-8% carbohydrate solution should be consumed every 15 minutes
111
Rehab and rest of 20 minutes should be provided after what?
2 bottle rule or 40 minutes of intense work without SCBA
112
How much water should be consumed during bottle changes?
At least 16 ounces
113
Those who experience problems with baseline vitals after how much rest should be transported?
30 minutes
114
Personnel requiring more than ___ rest should be relieved of duty and transported?
1 hour
115
Requests for CISD are made to who?
Deputy Chief of Operations
116
What is the standard for fire service respiratory protection training?
NFPA 1404
117
All personnel using SCBA are required to pass an annual quantitative or qualitative fit test in accordance with:
CFR1910.134
118
What is the standard for selection, care and maintenance of protective ensembles for structural firefighting and proximity firefighting?
NFPA 1851
119
PFD should be worn within what distance from water?
10 feet
120
When is an SCBA required for CO alarms?
70ppm
121
Water should not exceed what temperature for cleaning structural ensemble and helmets?
105 degrees, 130 degrees for hoods
122
If PPE is suspected of bio-contamination, what should be used?
3-6% concentration of stabilized hydrogen peroxide, soaked for 3-5 minutes on contaminated area
123
Water and disinfectant for SCBA face piece should not exceed what temperature?
110 degrees
124
Reserve apparatus shall be driven on Mondays for how long?
15 minutes
125
Engine powered equipment should be started and ran daily for how long?
5 minutes in accordance with manufacturer recommendations
126
If a unit replacement is expected to take more than ___ hours, engines shall be replaced with engines and trucks with trucks.
8 hours
127
Cloth and other porous items shall be marked with:
Indelible ink
128
Loose equipment shall be marked with:
Color code, die stamp, or electric engraver
129
How should fire hose be stenciled?
With a unique inventory number, 8 inches from each hose coupling
130
How long should a hydrant be flowed during inspection?
At least 30 seconds or until water is reasonable clear
131
Hose manufactured before what date should be taken OOS?
July 1987
132
Total length of hose for testing shall not exceed what length?
300 feet
133
What pressure does the hose tester get tested at?
10% higher than the highest pressure test; 440 psi
134
What side of the hose should you walk during testing, and at what distance?
Left side, 15’
135
What are acceptable air monitoring levels for removal of SCBA? (Use of SCBA and Air Purifying Respirator SOP)
CO under 70 ppm HCN under 4.7 ppm Oxygen 19.5-21% H2S 10 ppm or lower LEL 10% or lower
136
Fire investigators should wear an APR within how many hours of a fire?
72 hours
137
When do crew members need to give automatic air status reports?
When the first member reaches 2000psi
138
The RIT leader will track a member on low air alarm and notify the IC at what point?
If the member has not exited the structure after 1 minute
139
What size are pass tags?
3/8”x2”
140
When should IC call for a PAR?
1. Change in strategy 2. Sudden hazardous event 3. Missing or trapped firefighter 4. 30-minute intervals 5. Fire under control 6. Discretion of IC
141
What are the mile markers for auto-aid with BTFPD on the interstates?
I-55/74 north at MM161 I-55 south at MM155.5 (Stringtown) I-74 east at MM134
142
What level body armor is provided for violent incidents?
Level III ballistic body armor, ballistic helmet, safety glasses
143
What is the response for a human victim for ice water rescue?
Closest engine/truck, closest apparatus with RDC, shift commander, 2 ambulances Animal is 1 ambulance and no shift commander
144
What is the Standard of the Organization and Deployment of Fire Suppression Operations, Emergency Medical Operations and Special Operations by Career Fire Departments?
NFPA 1710
145
What is the Standard of the Organization and Deployment of Fire Suppression Operations, Emergency Medical Operations and Special Operations by Career Fire Departments?
NFPA 1710
146
What is the required turnout time, first company on scene time, and full response scene time for structure fires?
1 minute turnout 4 minute response 8 minute full assignment 90% of the time
147
What is the 3rd alarm for a residential fire?
1 additional engine or truck, MABAS Air Truck (HUDSON), Support-1, EMA Command post, mutual aid backfill stations
148
When should RIT be established for residential fires?
After water supply, fire attack, and primary search have enough members/companies assigned
149
If no life safety issues are present, what strategy should be employed until next arriving company is on scene?
Defensive
150
If a life safety issue is present, what tactic is the top priority?
Fire control in conjunction with rescue if it can be done with acceptable risk to the company
151
The second arriving unit to a residential fire will establish a water supply of what capability?
400gpm for 30 minutes
152
When should an ISO be used at fires?
All fires where more than 1 crew is actively involved in suppression
153
What is the definition of a high rise?
Any structure that is 4 or more stories in height
154
What is the maximum personnel allowed in an elevator for a high rise fire?
6
155
The initial attack crew for a high rise fire will consist of how many people?
4; 6 if initial medic is on scene and not needed for EMS
156
Where will RIT stage for high rise fires?
2 floors below fire floor
157
What are the search priorities for high rise?
Immediate floor, floor above, floor below, then top floor based on smoke conditions
158
Where will rescues be moved in high rise fires?
Safe area 3 floors above or below fire if evacuation is not needed
159
What area should be kept clear around a high rise fire?
100 feet
160
What are the two primary RIT functions?
1. Locating downed member, assessing needs, and moving member to safe place 2. Forecast potential FG problems and fix them prior to incident occurring
161
What are minimum RIT tools?
RIT pack or spare SCBA, irons, TIC
162
RIT personnel deployment order is:
1. Officer with TIC and RASP bag 2. RIT SCBA 3. Forcible entry tools/other specialized tools requested
163
RIT officer will communicate with RIT SDG chief every:
5 minutes
164
What will dispatch initiate after notification of MAYDAY?
Upgrade alarm, notify Staff Officers if not already complete, begin 5-minute checks
165
Other IC MAYDAY considerations:
1. Dispatch send MAYDAY alert on main and FG channels 2. Level 2 staging 3. All call 4. Normal TRT 5. BFD chaplain 6. Air truck or BTDPD squad 7. EMA command truck
166
What are the airport Alerts?
Alert I—minor aircraft difficulty Alert II—moderate to major difficulty Alert III—aircraft has crashed Alert IV—medical emergency Alert V—security nature requiring law enforcement
167
What are the alphabetical alerts for the airport?
A—plane carrying less than 8 passengers B—8-12 passengers C—all air carrier aircraft at CIRA. 30-100+
168
Where will CR-1 stage for inbound aircraft?
The taxiway at the approach end of the runway the aircraft is landing on
169
What is the no-entry zone for proposed drone takeoff and recovery point?
At least 10 feet
170
Drone pilot in charge must report accidents to the FAA within how many days?
10 Only if serious injury or property damage over $500
171
When does NICOR need to be notified for a CO call?
If gas has to be shut off to the building or occupancy if the gas can’t be shut off at the appliance
172
What is the life expectancy of a CO alarm?
7 years
173
When does Building Safety have to be notified for CO alarms?
When CO is over 70ppm or if it is found that residents are heating homes with gas appliances
174
What are the flammable limits of natural gas?
Approximately 3-15% in air
175
Full still assignments for outside gas leaks are ordered for gas lines of what size?
4 inches or greater
176
Arriving apparatus should be positioned how far from buildings with suspected gas leaks?
150 feet
177
When can the fire department reset a fire alarm?
When a key holder is not available and no problems are found. If the system goes back into alarm, it will remain in alarm u til evaluated by the alarm company
178
If no access to the building for an AFA and no problem found, what is the procedure?
Perform second walk around after 10 minutes. If no key holder available or more than 20 minute response, clear scene.
179
When does Building Safety get notified for AFA?
Alarm won’t reset, sprinkler activation, taking alarm offline. In high life hazard facility, building safety needs to respond. Non-life hazard, email back at the station
180
What is the difference between Level 1 and 2 disaster activations for snow?
1–snow >6 inches over 12 hours causing drifting or up to 10 inches of snow. Recall plow driver 2–>10 inches of snow within 12 hours with drifting. Recall plow driver +3
181
Difference between Level 1 and 2 ice storm?
1–1/4 inch ice. Plow driver and fire apparatus recall 2–1/2 inch ice. 4 +3. Staff member to dispatch center.
182
Members should report response to crime scenes and suspected crime scenes via email to who?
Captain, BC, and EMS supervisor. BC will forward copy of run report and email to staff
183
EMS report need to be completed in what time frame?
Within 8 hours of transport
184
How should reports of questionable non-emergency transports be reported?
Ambulance crew reports via email to their supervisor upon return to station.
185
Emergency transfers will be no further than what distance from the transferring hospital?
60 miles
186
How many ambulances should be available before committing resources to emergency transfers?
2
187
Who determines a warm zone for tactical law enforcement operations?
SWAT Team Leader
188
How much training will a medical support liaison be required to attend with the SWAT team?
4 hours quarterly
189
The medical support liaison will be taken OOS how long before the operational briefing?
30 minutes
190
Priority for EMS ride time is given in what order?
1. BFD personnel 2. Critical care nursing students 3. ECRN and EMT students 4. Sponsored and licensed EMTs
191
Signed waivers and authorization forms must be submitted to the Education EMS Supervisor at least __ weeks prior to initial ride time.
3
192
How many days prior to EMS license expiration shall a member notify their EMS Supervisor?
90 days
193
Department members shall submit their training records and other required documentation to the EMS office no later than ___ days in advance of license expiration.
60
194
A department member shall notify their EMS Supervisor if they haven’t received their new license within ___ days of expiration.
30
195
Who has the primary responsibility to secure the structure after a fire?
The building owner/occupant. The IC will check with RP regarding securing structure. If unable, Community Development will be contacted.
196
Written documentation of specific date, time, location, and nature of problem for station alerting system shall be emailed to:
Fire chief, DCO, DC EMS, and Emergency Communication Center Director
197
How many outdoor warning sirens in Bloomington?
17
198
How many outdoor warning sirens are inspected each month?
4-5 at 10 on first Tuesday. 4 group of sirens listed
199
Visual inspection problems of warning sirens are submitted to:
DCO, DC EMS, Battalion Chiefs. BC notifies Emergency Communications Center Director
200
What fires require no less than 2 investigators?
Fire with multiple injuries, death, or serious injury to civilian or firefighter
201
Investigators shall be notified for fires with moderate damage. Moderate damage is
A fire that spreads beyond room of origin and leaves structure uninhabitable
202
Fires involving minor damage are defined as:
Less than $1000, does not spread beyond room of origin or render the structure uninhabitable
203
The OSFM must be notified by law in what incidents?
1. Death related to the incident 2. Serious bodily injury as result of fire 3. Monetary loss over $100,000
204
A fire investigators report should include what at minimum?
NIFRS, digital photography, files notes, sketch, and weather report
205
The OSFM notification for required reporting of fires in what time frame?
24 hours
206
How many pieces of evidence tape are necessary for evidence cans?
Minimum 2
207
Bonfire burn site maps are submitted to who for approval?
DCO
208
Bonfires shall be of what maximum height and diameter?
10 feet
209
Bonfires shall be how far from structures, vegetation or combustible materials?
50 feet