SOP's Flashcards

1
Q

During the D.A.L.T.A setup for a circling approach, when setting the range rings for the approach and landing, the pilot should set 10 NM range ring and 4/5 NM ( VMC/IMC) range ring from the approach runway and…

Select one:
4.2 NM ring from the landing runway.
4.2 NM ring from the airport.
4.2 NM including abeam radial from the landing runway.
4.2 NM ring from the opposite runway.

A

The correct answer is: 4.2 NM including abeam radial from the landing runway.

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2
Q

he 10 Checks are performed during descent using the F.L.A.P.S.-Recall mnemonic. What does the ‘A’ stand for?

Select one:
Altimeters
Angle of bank
Autobrake
APU

A

Angle of bank

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3
Q

No Ryanair revenue flight shall be planned to arrive at destination with less than
Select one:

Final Reserve Fuel + 500Kg
1800Kg of fuel
Final Reserve Fuel
936Kg of fuel

A

1800kg of fuel

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4
Q

During any Go-Around when is ATC called if required?
Select one:

After 400 ft
After calling “SPEED CHECKS, FLAPS UP”
After the call “FLAPS UP, NO LIGHTS”
After autopilot engagement

A

After calling “SPEED CHECKS, FLAPS UP”

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5
Q

In descent when setting QNH what is the correct PF call?

Select one:
a. SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET

b. SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET, ___ FLAGS, STANDBY INSTRUMENTS SET

c. SET QNH____, STANDBY ALTIMETER SET

d. SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET, ___ FLAGS, STANDBY ALTIMETER SET

A

The correct answer is: SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET, ___ FLAGS, STANDBY ALTIMETER SET

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6
Q

After De-Icing or Anti-icing the aircraft, Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust (ATRT):

Select one:

-Is permitted provided the runway surface is not contaminated, crosswind component 10kts or less, anti-skid and thrust reversers operative, bleeds ON, no potential windshear conditions exist, EECs in normal mode and not prohibited by the AFB

-Is not permitted

-Is permitted provided the runway surface is not contaminated

-Is always permitted

A

-Is not permitted and 24k minimum

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7
Q

During an dual channel Go-Around who will select the appropriate roll mode on the MCP?

Select one:
PM
Capt
FO
PF

A

PF

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8
Q

Choose the most appropriate statement regarding the Hotmike usage.

Select one:

-I/C shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains ON for the remainder of the flight until the Parking Brake is set at the stand, then OFF.

-I/C shall remain ON until reaching top of climb, after which it will remain crew discretion to either turn the
-I/C ON or OFF.

-I/C shall always be selected on during all phases of flight.

-I/C selected OFF after pushback and prior to obtaining taxi clearance.

A

-I/C shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains ON for the remainder of the flight until the Parking Brake is set at the stand, then OFF.

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9
Q

NITS ???

A

N - Nature of the emergency

I - Intention of the crew

T - Time available

S - Special intructions

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10
Q

PIOSEE

A

P - Problem

I - Information

O - Options

S - Select

E - Execute

E - Evaluate

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11
Q

When should progress page 4/4 be selected with reference to approach procedures and what is the purpose of this operation?

Select one:

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring only ANP/RNP.

Should be selected descending through MSA with the purpose of monitoring cross track error, vertical deviation and ANP/RNP.

Should be selected on completion of the approach checks with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

A

The correct answer is:

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

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12
Q

During severe turbulence, what is the recommended decent speed below 15,000ft for aircrafts below MLW?

Select one:

ECON speed
280 KIAS
220 KIAS
250 KIAS

A

250 KIAS

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13
Q

What is the minimum fuel tank temperature for CSFF relief?

Select one:

There is no limit.
4°C
0°C
At or above -16°C

A

At or above -16°C

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14
Q

What is the diversion distance (maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without an ETOPS approval) for the RYR B737-800 and B737-8200 for a flight over mainland Europe?

Select one:
416 nm
427 nm
none of the above
396 nm

A

B737-800——–427 nm

B737-8200——-416 nm

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15
Q

What should the pressurisation FLT ALT window be set to during the Preflight procedure?

Select one:

Filed level or lower if performance limited or level capped.
Optimum cruise altitude (or ATC capped level, if lower)
Current step climb level corresponding with MCP and FMC
LIDO final planned level

A

Filed level or lower if performance limited or level capped.

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16
Q

Minimum engine oil quantity for dispatch (as displayed on the lower DU) is:

Select one:

12 Quarts
12 Litres
18 Litres
18 Quarts

A

12 Litres

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17
Q

When is the missed approach altitude set on a Non Precision Approach?

Select one:

a. Once overhead the FAF
b. 500ft AAL (Top of the amber band)
c. 1000ft AAL (Top of the white band)
d. It is never set

A

1000ft AAL (Top of the white band)

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18
Q

What is the correct checklist discipline?

Select one:
READ-LISTEN-LOOK
READ-LOOK-LISTEN
LOOK-READ-LISTEN

A

READ-LOOK-LISTEN

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19
Q

What is the latest point during an ILS Low Drag Approach (LDA) in VMC that the Landing Gear Down and Flap to 15 must be selected?

Select one:
3.5nm
5nm
6 nm
4nm

A

3.5nm

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20
Q

What is the general rule to selection of approach type in case there are multiple approaches available to the the same runway?

Select one:

-If ceiling is below 1000’ and/or the visibility is less than 3000m, it is preferable to select a precision approach over an NPA.

-Regardless of weather conditions, where a precision approach is available, crews must select the precision approach.

-If it is commercially more desirable (e.g. less track miles), the crew can opt for a non-precision approach over a precision approach, provided the weather is above the required minima and the landing gate parameters are met.

-If it is commercially more desirable (e.g. less track miles), the crew can opt for a non-precision approach over a precision approach, provided the weather is above the required minima, PAPI is available and the landing gate parameters are met.

A

-If ceiling is below 1000’ and/or the visibility is less than 3000m, it is preferable to select a precision approach over an NPA.

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21
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call?

Select one:

-This is not part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff to prompt cabin crew to interrupt all the procedures.

-This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is unnecessary during a Rejected Takeoff where cabin crew have defined roles and procedures to follow.

-This is not part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is necessary during a Rejected Takeoff only.

-This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff.

A

-This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is unnecessary during a Rejected Takeoff where cabin crew have defined roles and procedures to follow.

22
Q

The Fasten Belts switch should be selected to ON when:

Select one:

Passing FL150
Passing FL150 or 15 minutes to landing
Performing the 10 checks
At 15 minutes to landing

A

Passing FL150 or 15 minutes to landing

23
Q

Which statement is correct If an engine failure occurs during a NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF?

Select one:

-Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 3000 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

-Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 1500 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

-Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 400 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

-Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 1000 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

A

Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 1500 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

24
Q

Which statement is correct with regard to extending the airstair from the inside of the aircraft?

Select one:

-Leave the entry door closed as the airstair will not operate with the door open.

-Open the entry door to the cocked position to allow clear visibility of the area outside the aeroplane to avoid injury to personnel.

-The airstair must only be operated from the exterior of the aeroplane to allow clear visibility of obstacles and ground personnel.

-Fully open the entry door to allow clear visibility of the area outside the aeroplane.

A

Open the entry door to the cocked position to allow clear visibility of the area outside the aeroplane to avoid injury to personnel.

25
Q

What is “Deviation Fuel”?

Select one:

-Extra fuel carried at the discretion of the Commander for operational reasons in accordance with Operations Manual Part A.

-Deviation fuel allows for MEL items that will increase fuel burn and will be added by flight planning.

-Fuel to account for en-route or destination weather restrictions Incorrect

-Fuel required to compensate for unforeseen factors which could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome.

A

-Deviation fuel allows for MEL items that will increase fuel burn and will be added by flight planning.

26
Q

When conducting a Visual Approach, the landing gate is….
Select one:

-1000ft AAL in IMC or 500ft AAL in VMC

-300ft AAL, however the landing configuration must be established by 500ft AAL.

-Land Alt plus 500 feet

-300ft AAL, however the landing configuration must be established by 1000ft AAL.

A

-Land Alt plus 500 feet

27
Q

After landing if the turnoff is 90 degrees, what is the maximum allowed speed?
Select one:

-15 knots

-5 knots

-20 knots

-10 knots

A

-10 knots

28
Q

When operating in sandy or dusty conditions, which of the following is true?
Select one:

-Make a no engine bleed takeoff if operations permit.

-Do not use auto brakes on landing and use maximum reverse thrust to avoid damage to brake discs from sand accumulation.

-Use 26K only. Incorrect

-Perform a static run up.

A

-Make a no engine bleed takeoff if operations permit.

29
Q

Prior to pushback, the “Passengers Seated” signal:
Select one:

-Is received by the F/O pressing the cabin ATTEND button once the take-off briefing has been reviewed by the Captain

-Is received by pressing the cabin ATTEND button once the L1 door is closed

-Is obtained by the F/O via the service interphone

-Is given by the No 1 prior to pushback

A

-Is given by the No 1 prior to pushback

30
Q

Which statement regarding RTE 2 feature of the FMC is correct?

Select one:

-RTE 2 shall never be loaded on the ground.

-It is recommended to copy the active flight plan into
RTE 2 as backup in case of a loss of FMC L.

-Using RTE 2 is not approved for Ryanair operations.

-RTE 2 page may be crosschecked inflight between PF and PM for the next sector. After activation crew may NOT execute RTE2.

A

-RTE 2 shall never be loaded on the ground.

31
Q

What is the correct method to calculate OPT performance for take-off in gusty headwind conditions?

Select one:

-Enter wind direction and full gust value only. Check that crosswind is within limits and continue with the calculation.

-Enter wind direction and full gust value to check that crosswind is within limits. Then enter the steady wind direction (without gust value) to complete the performance calculation.

-Enter wind direction and steady wind value plus half of the gust value and complete the performance calculation.

-Enter wind direction and steady wind value. Complete the performance calculation.

A

Enter wind direction and full gust value to check that crosswind is within limits. Then enter the steady wind direction (without gust value) to complete the performance calculation.

32
Q

During ILS CATII/III approaches the maximum allowed deviation is:

Select one:

-1/3 dot Localizer (2/3 from center to dot on the localizer expanded scale)

-1/3 dot Glide Slope Incorrect

-1 dot Localizer

-1/2 dot Glide Slope

A

-1/3 dot Localizer (2/3 from center to dot on the localizer expanded scale)

33
Q

FMC pages on an RNP app

A

Once cleared for the app

PF: Progress page 4

PM: legs page

34
Q

CAT II / III app

A
  • Flown by the FO
  • At 5nm gear down, flap 15
  • At 500ft CAPT:” 500, flare armed”
    FO:”passing….radio, flare armed”

At minimums:

  • CPT:” continue” If visible or “go around”
  • FO:” go around, flap 15” if not visible

If app continues CPT take controls and lands

-The go around must be done by the FO

35
Q

Monitored approach

A

Applicable if:

  • Non-Precision Approach – Visibility is reported as 3,000 metres or less and/or the reported ceiling is reported as 1,000 feet AAL or less; or
  • Cat I ILS – Visibility/RVR is reported as 1,000 metres or less and/or the reported ceiling is 300 feet AAL or less.

and…

  • The approach shall be flown by the first officer (RHS), monitored by the captain (LHS).
  • A go-around shall be flown by the F/O (RHS).
  • A landing shall be flown by the captain (LHS).
  • The autopilot, if available, shall be used.
36
Q

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL

A

The Commander shall declare a situation of fuel emergency by broadcasting
“MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, FUEL, callsign”, when the calculated
usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing
can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel.

37
Q

MINIMUM FUEL

A

Practically speaking, the Commander
should declare “MINIMUM FUEL” when, based
on the current ATC clearance, the anticipated
amount of fuel remaining upon landing at the
aerodrome to which the aeroplane is committed is
approaching the planned Final Reserve Fuel
quantity.

38
Q

Fuel check policy

A

Fuel must be checked at:

  • TOC
  • Cruise every 30 min
  • TOD
39
Q

Taxi maximum speeds

A

▪ 50 kts on an ACTIVE runway when backtracking

▪ 30 kts on a taxiway

▪ 15 kts on the apron

▪ 10 kts when executing a turn of 45o or more

▪ 5 kts on contaminated runways or taxiways

40
Q

MAX RVR de RYR para app CAT III?

A

200m

41
Q

Minimum visibility for a LVTO

A

125m

42
Q

NO ENG BLEED TO procedure is done by memory?

A

NO, it is read from de NO ENG BLEED TO checklist from the glareshield.

READ AND DO

43
Q

Cuando hay un cambio de frecuencia automático después del despegue, cuando hay que llamar?

A

Despise de que el PM hace el call out de SPEED CHECKS, FLAP UP.

44
Q

Instruccion de alta velocidad por debajo de FL100, se acepta?

A

Si es una instrucción si, pero se pone en la FMC 250/60 y se limita a 60, no menos de eso.

45
Q

Donde miramos para sestear la MAA a los 1000AAL?

A

En la pagina de LEGS del PM

46
Q

Timing durante la circulación visual?

A
  • Cuando nos abrimos 45º para la inicial son 20 segundos y le restamos al mitad del TW o le sumamos el HW completo
  • El tiempo en inicial es 3x100 AGL. Ejemplo, estamos a 700ft….7x3=21 seg
  • Viramos a final con Hdg y pedimos LDG CHECKLIST
  • LDG FLAP
  • A/P off y aterrizamos
47
Q

HIL???

A

Hold Item List

48
Q

When is mandatory a GO AROUND when RAAS long landing sounds?

A

Mandatory when on a SHORT or PERFORMANCE LIMITED RWY

  • Short= less than 1800m
  • Performance limited when RTO MAX or MAX MANUAL required
49
Q

Reverse thrust on ldg until which speed?

A

Until stop is assured

50
Q

LDG enroute REVERSERS policy

A

Always REVERSERS CREDIT

except:

  • Con pistas wet/slippery and XW mayor a 15kts usar NO CREDIT REVERSE
51
Q

LDG dispatch REVERSERS policy

A

for RWY’s(4, 3, 2) REVERSERS NO CREDIT y FLAP 40

52
Q
A