SOP Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum crew for OSA/ALS passenger/cargo missions?

A

TAC and T2P (at least one shall be proficient in applicable T&R code)

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2
Q

For night flights, the aircraft commander shall have flown in the UC-12F in the last _________ per reference (d) and the pilot flying shall be proficient in the 2300 T&R event.

A

15 days

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3
Q

TAC/T2P 45-day currency requirements

A

Hours - 6
Landings - 3
Night Landings - 3

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4
Q

TAC 90-day currency requirements

A

Hours - 10
Landings - 5
Night Landings - 3

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5
Q

TA 45-day currency requirements

A

Hours - >0
Landings - N/A
Night Landings - N/A

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6
Q

The pilot at the controls during a night flight with passengers must have flown at least ____ landings of any type within the previous ____ days. In addition, the TAC must have flown within the previous ____ days to act as aircraft commander at night.

A

3 landings
90 days
15 days

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7
Q

Maximum crew day is ____ hours with a functioning autopilot (waived up to ____ hours by the ____) and ____ hours without a functioning autopilot.

A

14
16; CO
12

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8
Q

TOLD performance calculations shall be computed for each flight planned with ______ (5 criteria)

A
  1. Airport with less than 6000’ usable runway
  2. Pressure altitude > 4000’
  3. Temperature > ISA +10
  4. Aircraft weight > 12,500 lbs
  5. Non-standard climb gradient is required for the expected departure
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9
Q

Prior to commencing any take off, three weight requirements must be met:

A
  1. The aircraft must be able to accelerate to V1 and stop on the runway (accelerate-stop).
  2. Must be able to climb at 100 fpm with gear down and a failed engine.
  3. Must be able to climb at a gradient steep enough to clear obstacles if an engine fails.
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10
Q

All flights shall plan to land at a destination or alternate, if required, with no less than ____ pounds of fuel.

A

600

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11
Q

Minimum runway length for takeoff shall be the greater of _______ or the ________.

A

5000’ or the accelerate-stop distance

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12
Q

The CO may authorize takeoffs from runways with less than ______ of takeoff distance available but no less than the ____________ if warranted by ____________ and after a thorough risk assessment is completed.

A

5000’
Accelerate-stop distance
Mission requirements

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13
Q

When calculated accelerate-stop distance is within _________ of runway length available for takeoff, pilot flying should execute a _____________.

A

1000’
Static Takeoff Procedure

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14
Q

Propeller reversing shall not be used below ______ during normal or simulated emergency operations.

A

60 KIAS

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15
Q

Aircrew shall suspend checklists and configuration changes when _______ or _______ an ________.

A

taxiing on or crossing an active runway

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16
Q

Sterile Cockpit

A

No unnecessary conversation other than what is required for safety during critical phases of flight (taxi, takeoff, approach, and landing). In effect until passing 6000’ AGL or reaching cruise altitude on takeoff and when descending through 6000’ AGL to commence an approach to landing.

17
Q

Prior to pulling condition levers to low idle for engine run-ups, ensure environmental switches are in _______ to ensure the A/C breaker doesn’t pop.

A

OFF/AUTO

18
Q

Climb check shall not be performed below _____ AGL. If not requestted by _____ AGL, they shall be prompted by the PM.

A

1000; 3000

19
Q

The approach checklist with normally be conducted when passing through ________, or on call by the PF, followed by a _______ _______ until the aircraft has safely landed.

A

6000’ AGL; sterile cockpit

20
Q

Touch-and-Go ditty for PM

A

“Props, Flaps, Trim, Trim, Trim”

Ensure props are full forward, raise the flaps, and reset trim for takeoff.

21
Q

Go-Around Flow for PF

A

Pickle (G/A button)
Power (Stand them up and direct PM to set takeoff power)
Props (Ensure full forward)
Pitch (Establish positive ROC)
Flaps (Down to Approach if applicable)
Gear (UP after two positive rates)
Flaps (UP)

That’s the G in GSNAP, don’t forget to execute the Go-Around PROCEDURE before moving on to SNAP (multi-crew; direct PM to assist)

22
Q

For the UC-12F a Stable Approach is defined as (4 criteria)

A
  1. Airspeed: Vref as defined by the flap consideration up to 140 KIAS
  2. Configuration: Landing checklist complete (except flaps down and AP/YD) by the FAF.
  3. Lateral deviations < one dot for a non-precision approach, < 5 bearings for an NDB approach, and no “well left” or “right of course” calls if on an ASR or PAR.
  4. Vertical deviations less than one dot above or below and no “well above” or “well below” calls on a PAR.
23
Q

IMC Stable Approach

A
  1. Depart the FAF configured with gear down and flaps approach
  2. Airspeed variations < 10 knots
  3. Approach power set
  4. Stable flight path before descending below the minimum stabilized approach height of 1000’ above the airport elevation at a descent rate of no greater than 1000 fpm unless specifically briefed.
24
Q

VMC Stable Approach

A

Configured for landing with a stable flight path and power setting before descending below 500’ above airport elevation at a descent rate of no greater than 1000 fpm unless specifically briefed.