Solid Tumour Flashcards

1
Q

Where does cholangiocarcinoma occur and what are the sub-types?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma are rare cancers which can occur anywhere in the biliary tract or within the liver.

These cancers are heterogenous and are best classified according to the primary anatomic subtype; intrahepatic CCA (iCCA) and extrahepatic CCA (perihilar CCA (pCCA) or distal CCA (dCCA))

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2
Q

What is the targetable genetic alteration found in cholangiocarcinoma and in which subtype is it found?

A

FGFR2 fusions - almost exclusively identified in intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma

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3
Q

What is the pathogenesis of FGFR family genes, as found in cholangiocarcinoma?

A

FGFR family of tyrosine kinase receptors. The family consists of 4 genes that encode single-pass transmembrane receptions that bind to FGF on the extracellular domain. Ligand binding triggers a cascade that may exercise several cellular functions, including cell survival.

Chromosomal rearrangements cause intragenic translocations that encode functional proteins derived from each of the original proteins. Normally, FGF-FGFR signalling is triggered by the ligand dependant dimerization. The activation of the receptor leads to intracellular phosphorylation of receptor dependant kinase domains resulting in a cascade of intracellular signalling and gene transcription. FGFR2 kinase activity is linked to oncogene addictive pathways including RAS-MAPK, JAK-STAT and PIK3-AKT-mTOR, promising progressive growth, invasiveness, epithelial mesenchymal transition and neo angiogenesis.

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4
Q

What does a typical FGFR2 rearrangement as seen in cholangiocarcinoma look like and what is its biological impact?

A

FGFR2 fusions typically result from chromosomal events that lead to an in frame fusion between the 5’ portion of FGFR2 and a partner gene. FGFR2 is located on chromosome 10, and around 50% of FGFR fusions arise from intrachromosomal events. On a structural level FGFR2 portion of the fusion retains the extracellular domain as well as the kinase domain. The fusion partner contributes a dimerization signal, leading to pathway activation. A diagnostic advantage is that the location of the breakpoint in the FGFR2 gene appears to be nearly universal within intron 17 or exon 18. However, with respect to potential partner genes, more than 150 fusion partners have been described until now, albeit with variable frequency.

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5
Q

What test is recommended for detection of FGFR or NTRK fusions and why?

A

Next generation sequencing - there are many fusion partners so becomes difficult to create probes (FISH or RQ-PCR) for the many combinations and would risk missing a novel fusion.

IHC can also be used, however, specificity, reproducibility and comparability of results between labs is difficult and the fusion partner may impact result quality

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6
Q

What is the name of the FGFR inhibitor approved by NICE for FGFR2 fusion positive cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Pemigatinib

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7
Q

In what proportion of colorectal cancer cases has a germline cause been found?

A

5%

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8
Q

What are the two forms of phenotypical evolution in colorectal cancer?

A

APC;TP53;KRAS and serrated neoplasia

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9
Q

Describe the evolution of colorectal cancer in the APC;TP53;KRAS phenotype

A

o Adenoma occurs with the occurrence with an inactivating mutation in APC, adenocarcinoma occurs with the occurrence of inactivating mutations in TP53, telomere dysfunction and double stranded DS breakage and invasive/metastatic disease often shows activating KRAS mutations

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10
Q

Describe the types of variants most often seen in the serrated neoplasm colorectal cancer type

A

o Serrated neoplasms exhibit a higher frequency of inactivating mutations in BRAF and KRAS, hypermutation rates and rarely APC mutations.

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11
Q

Whats is the clinical significance of KRAS and NRAS variants in colorectal cancer, in which exons are they found and in what proportion of cases?

A

CRC with an NRAS or KRAS variant do not respond to the EGFR inhibitors cetuximab and panitumumab. The variants occur in exons 2, 3 and 4 of each gene. KRAS - 40%, NRAS - 3-5%

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12
Q

Why do patients with KRAS or NRAS variants not respond to EGFR inhibitors?

A

KRAS and NRAS is downstream of EGFR in the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK pathway and so escape being influenced by EGFR inhibition.

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13
Q

What is the clinical significance of BRAF V600E variants in colorectal cancer?

A

 Approximately 5-9% of CRCs have a BRAF V600E variant
-poor prognosis
 The mutated BRAF protein is believed to be constitutively
active and occurs downstream in the pathway, thereby bypassing inhibition of EGFR by cetuximab or pantitumumab.
 BRAF V600E makes response to cetuximab or panitumumab highly unlikely unless given with a BRAF inhibitor.

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14
Q

What is the clinical significance of oncogenic non-V600E BRAF variants in colorectal cancer?

A

 In contrast to the V600E variants, some of these may lead to inactivation of the kinase, co-occur with RAS mutations and are not enriched in MSI-H CRCs

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15
Q

What biomarkers can be used to predict response to immune checkpoint inhibitors in CRC and which of these is approved by NICE for treatment with pembrolizumab?

A

MSI High - Approved by NICE
Tumour Mutational Burden
POLE and POLD1 mutations

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16
Q

What are the two testing methodologies which can be used as the initial test in the Lynch screening pathway?

A

Immunohistochemistry and MSI

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17
Q

What inherited cancer syndromes are associated with colorectal cancer?

A

Lynch syndrome and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

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18
Q

Describe the lynch testing pathway for colorectal cancer

A

IHC for lynch genes
- If IHC MLH1 abnormal proceed to BRAF V600E
- If MSH2, MSH6 or PMS2 immunohistochemistry results are abnormal, confirm Lynch syndrome
- If all proficient, no further testing

MSI
- If MSI-H proceed to BRAF analysis
- If MSI-L - likely sporadic

Both
BRAF V600E analysis
- If not variant detected proceed to MLH1 promoter hypermethylation analysis
- If positive - likely sporadic

MLH1 promoter hypermethylation analysis
- If negative proceed to germline testing
- If positive - likely sporadic (consider germline MLH1 methylation)

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19
Q

What are the most frequently mutated genes in uveal melanoma and at what frequency are the identified?

A

GNAQ and GNA11. Mutations are generally mutually exclusive and found in 90% of cases

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20
Q

What are the biomarkers for a higher risk of metastasis in uveal melanoma?

A

Monosomy of chromosome 3 (50% of cases)
Gains of chromosome 8p (coexistence with monosomy 3 = higher risk)
Bi-allelic inactivation of BAP1

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21
Q

What genetic abnormality offers protection from metastasis in uveal melanoma in the context of monosomy 3 and gain of 8q.

A

Gain of 6p

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22
Q

What are the hotspots of GNAQ and GNA11 in uveal melanoma?

A

Exons 4 & 5
Codons Q209 and R183

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23
Q

What are the different subtypes of cutaneous melanoma?

A

Non chronic sun damage (non-CSD)
Melanomas on skin without sun damage (CSD)
Acral melanoma on the soles and palms

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24
Q

In what proportion of cutaneous melanoma patients is a BRAF mutation found and what subtype is it associated with?

A

BRAF mutations occur in around 50% of cases and are associated with the non chronic sun damage (CSD) sub type

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25
Q

What are the treatment implications for metastatic melanoma patients with a BRAF V600 mutation?

A

BRAF V600 mutations are associated with response to BRAF inhibitors and MEK inhibitors. Trials have shown that a combination of BRAF and MEK inhibitors are superior to either agent alone

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26
Q

What are the treatment implications for non-V600 BRAF mutations including fusions in metastatic melanoma?

A

o Mutations near V600 in exon 15 have shown response to BRAF and MEK inhibitors
o Fusions of BRAF have also shown responses to MEK inhibitors and non specific RAF inhibitors
o Mutations in other codons in exon 11 or 15 have not demonstrated response to BRAF or MEK inhibition

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27
Q

In what proportion of melanoma cases are KIT mutations detected and with which subtype(s) is it associated?

A

KIT mutations are found in 2-8% of melanoma cases and are associated with chronic sun damage acral and mucosal melanomas

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28
Q

In what proportion of melanoma cases are NRAS variants found and what are the prognostic and treatment implications?

A

• NRAS variants occur in 20-30% of melanomas typically found in codons 12, 13 or 61
NRAS mutations appear to correlate with poor survival in localised and metastatic melanoma.
• MEK inhibitors may produce responses in a minority of patients.

29
Q

What proportion of ovarian cancers are serous type?

A

Around 70%

30
Q

What is the typical treatment pathway for ovarian cancer?

A

Surgical resection followed by maintenance therapy with platinum based chemotherapy and PARP if HR deficient

31
Q

Which biomarkers are predictive of response to PARP inhibitor therapy in ovarian cancer?

A

BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutated (somatic or germline) or Homologous recombination deficient signature

32
Q

How doe PARP inhibitor therapy work?

A

PARPs are enzymes which are activated by DNA damage involving single strand breaks and base excision repair pathways. PARP identifies regions or error and recruits repair proteins to the site.

PARP inhibition prevents recruitment of repair protein and traps PARP attached to the DNA. This results in the replication fork stalling and formation of double stranded breaks.

In patients who are homologous recombination deficient, the DBS will not be repaired leading to an accumulation of toxic DSBs and chromosome instability eventually leading to cell death.

33
Q

What are the proposed reasons for resistance to PARP inhibition in HR deficient Ovarian cancers?

A

1) Reversion of mutation in BRCA1/2 resulting in restoration of homologous recombination function
2) Decrease in non-homologous end joining which is normally upregulated with PARPi treatment and plays an important role in synthetic lethality
3) Decrease levels, activity or enzymatic or PARP (less available for inhibition)
4) Increased RAD51 activity, an essential protein in homologous recombination

34
Q

What is the name of the NICE approved PARP inhibitor for treatment of Ovarian Cancer?

A

Olaparib

35
Q

What are the main types of EGFR variants which are sensitizing to treatment with TKIs in lung cancer?

A

Exon 19 deletions / insertions (most common)
Exon 21 mutations

36
Q

What type of EGFR variants are resistant to first line TKI treatment in lung cancer?

A

Exon 20 insertions

37
Q

What is the clinical significance of the EGFR T790M variant and when does it occur?

A

T790M is associated with acquired resistance to EGFR TKI therapy and is identified in ~60% of patients who have progressed.

T790M may rarely occur in patients who have not had TKI treatment. Counseling is recommended for patients who have this variant pre-treatment as it suggests it may be germline in origin and is associated with predisposition to Lung Cancer.

Patients respond to the 3rd gen TKI Osimertinib

38
Q

What is the clinical significance of BRAF variants (V600E and non-V600E) in lung cancer?

A

RAF driver variants occur in 1-2% of lung cancer cases.

BRAF V600E typically occurs in current/former smokers and do not typically occur alongside EGFR, MET ex14, RET, ALK or ROS variants.

For patients with the BRAF V600E variant, combination therapy with dabrafenib and trametinib is recommended (BRAF inhibitor and MEK inhibitor)

Non-BRAF V600E variants impact on therapy is yet to be established.

39
Q

What types of variants can be found in MET in lung cancer skipping and what is the function of MET

A

MET (C-MET), the hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) receptor is a tyrosine kinase receptor that is involved in cell survival and proliferation.

Driver variants in MET include exon14 skipping mutations, MET gene copy number gain/amplification and MET overexpression.

40
Q

What is the clinical significance of MET variants in lung cancer?

A

Patients are likely to respond to treatment with a MET inhibitor

41
Q

What is the function of RET/ALK/ROS1, what types of RET/ALK/ROS1 variants are identified in lung cancer?

A

RET, ALK and ROS1 aretyrosine kinase receptors involved in cell proliferation.

RET, ALK and ROS1 rearrangements can be identified in lung cancer and may occur with a number of genes (e.g. KIF5B, CCDC6) which leads to overexpression of the RET, ALK or ROS1 protein.

42
Q

What is the clinical significance of RET, ROS1 and ALK rearrangements?

A

Response to RET, ROS1 and ALK inhibitors respectively

43
Q

Which of the ROS1, RET or ALK rearrangements need confirmation if positive on IHC and why?

A

ROS1 - IHC has low specificity for ROS1

44
Q

What phenotype are KRAS variants associated with in lung cancer and what are there clinical significance?

A

KRAS variants are associated with cigarette smoking and are associated with a shorter survival than patients who are KRAS wildtype. Patients with KRAS driver variants do not respond to EGFR TKIs.

Sotorasib (KRAS inhibitor) is recommended for use within the Cancer Drugs Fund as an option for treating KRAS G12C mutation-positive lung cancer

45
Q

What KRAS variant is a targetable biomarker in lung cancer and for which drug?

A

The presence of the KRAS G12C variant is associated with response to sotorasib, an inhibitor targeting the KRAS G12C variant. Sotorasib has not been evaluated for non G12C KRAS variants.

46
Q

What biomarkers can be used for prediction of immune therapy and which is preferred and why?

A

PD-L1 positivity on IHC,TMB, MSI or POLE mutation

PD-L1 preferred cut to technical issues with TMB.

47
Q

What are the issues with using PD-L1 as a biomaker for immunotherapy response in NSCLC?

A

Various antibody clones have been developed for IHC analysis and while some are comparable regarding intensity and proportion of cells stained, some are not. The definition of positive and negative are dependant on the individual antibody, clone and platform used. The approval of multiple difference assays for PD-L1 has raised concern among oncologists and pathologists.

48
Q

What are the clinical issues with using TMB to predict response to immunotherapy in lung cancer?

A

Some trials have indicated that high TMB doesn’t correlate with PD-L1 expression and TMB is also not ideal as some patients with low TMB will respond to immunotherapy and some with high levels will not respond.

49
Q

For which clinical indications of lung cancer is ct-DNA analysis recommended?

A
  • The patient is medically unfit for invasive tissue sampling
  • In the initial diagnostic setting, if following pathological confirmation of NSCLC there is insufficient material for molecular analysis or if all markers are unable to be tested due to tissue quantity or testing methodologies available.
  • Testing for the emergence of a resistance mutation (T790M)
50
Q

What are the molecular hallmarks of a glioblastoma?

A

EGFR amplification/mutation
TERT mut
IDH wt
1p19q wt

51
Q

What are the prognostic implications/grading associated with an IDH1/2 variant in a glioma and what testing methods can be used?

A

IDH1/2 variants define grade 2/3 astrocytomas and oligodendrogliomas and the secondary grade 4 glioblastomas into which astrocytomas can evolve. Their presence distinguishes lower grade gliomas from primary glioblastomas which are IDH wildtype.

IDH1/2 variants are associated with a relatively favourable prognosis and are commonly associated with MGMT methylation. In grade 2/3 gliomas, wild type IDH1/2 is associated with increased risk of progressive disease.

Diffusely infiltrative astrocytomas with IDH1/2 are mostly grade 2/3, however some develop grade 4 histological features associated with worse prognosis.

52
Q

What is 1p/19q co-deletion diagnostic of, how is it tested for and what is the associated prognosis.

A

The occurance of a 1p/19q co deletion is diagnostic of oligodendroglioma and is always seen alongside an IDH1/2 variant which is also needed for a diagnosis of oligodendroglioma.

The co-deletion is associated with a favourable prognosis.

Detection can be carried out by FISH, PCR, Array based (e.g. SNP array) or NGS

53
Q

For which types of brain tumour is MGMT promoter methylation carried out, what is the role of the MGMT protein, how is it tested for and what genetic changes is it associated with?

A

MGMT promoter methylation is essential in the workup of all high grade gliomas - grade 3/4.

MGMT is a DNA repair enzyme which reverses the DNA damage caused by alkylating agents.MGMT unmethylated is active and results in resistance to temozolomide chemotherapy. MGMT methylation silences the protein and makes it more sensitive to treatment with alkylating agents.

MGMT promoter methylation can be tested by methylation specific PCR, methylation specific high res melt analysis, pyrosequencing and ddPCR. Pyrosequencing is considered the best method and prognostic stratifier in GBMs treated with temozolomide.

MGMT methylation is strongly associated with IDH mutations and genome-wide methylation epigenetic changes (G-CIMP phenotype)

54
Q

What type of brain tumour is ATRX mutations associated with, what genetic changes are they seen with and not seen with and how can it be tested for?

A

ATRX mutations are associated with astrocytomas.

They are strongly associated with IDH mutations and are mutually exclusive with 1p/19q codeletions.

ATRX mutations can be detected by IHC and/or sequencing.

55
Q

What is the clinical significance of the K27M in H3F3A/HIST1H3B and G34V variants in H3F3A in brain tumours?

A

Histone variants tend to occur in paediatric midline gliomas. The K27M variant is an adverse prognostic marker and the G34V variant does not have a prognostic association after a diagnosis of GBM is made.

56
Q

What is the clinical significance of the BRAF V600E and BRAF Fusion variants in brain tumours?

A

BRAF V600E - present in 60-80% of supratentorial grade 2/3 pelomorphic xanthoastrocytomas (PXA), 30% of dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumours, 20% of grade 1 gangliomas and 5% of grade 1 astrocytomas.

The presence of a BRAF fusion is reliable evidence that the tumour is a pliocytic astrocytoma.

BRAF fusions tend to be indolent but BRAF V600E is associated which a much greater range of outcomes and may be associated with response to BRAF inhibitors.

57
Q

What are the different molecular endometrial classifications and associated prognosis?

A

POLE Mutated - Favourable Prognosis
MMRd (MSI) - Intermediate Prognosis
p53 abnormal (IHC / Mutated) - Poor Prognosis

58
Q

What are the treatment implications of the different molecular endometrial classifications?

A

POLE Mutated - low risk, adjuvant therapy not required
p53 abnormal - high risk, chemotherapy indicated
MMRd - Immune checkpoint inhibitor treatment (Pembroluzimab)

Note - Immune check point inhibitors have shown response in POLE mutated (hypermutated) tumours

59
Q

How many POLE variants are considered to be ‘pathogenic’ in Endometrial analysis and what proportion of cases do they account for?

A

11 recurrent POLE variants have been identified which are believed to account for >95% of cases.

60
Q

What are the approved EGFR TKI’s for treatment of NSCLC?

A

1st Gen - Erotinib & Gefitinib
2nd Gen - Afatinib
3rd Gen - Osimertinib

61
Q

What is the occurrence of BRAF, NRAS and KIT mutations in melanoma?

A

50%, 25-30%, 2-8%

62
Q

What are the proportion of endometrial cancer which have POLE mut, MIS-H and TP53 mut?

A

POLE - 6-9%
MSI-H 20-30%
TP53 mut - 13-18%
wt - 40-50%

63
Q

What are the treatment implications of having a PIK3CA mutation in metastatic/locally advanced breast cancer?

A

Alpelisib (PIK3 inhibitor) plus fulvestrant (hormone treatment) for the treatment of HR+/HER2- PIK3CA mutated locally advanced or metastatic cancer.

64
Q

What are the hotspots for PIK3CA variants in breast cancer?

A

E545K, E542K and H1047R

65
Q

In what proportion of breast cancers are mutations in PIK3CA found?

A

20-30%

66
Q

At what frequency are EGFR, KRAS, BRAF, ALK, ROS, RET, MET exon 14 and NTRK variants found in NSCLC?

A

EGFR - 15%
KRAS - 25-33%
BRAF - 2%
ALK - 5%
ROS1 - 2%
RET - 2%
MET ex14 - 3%
NTRK - <1%

67
Q

What is the name of the most commonly used BRAF inhibitor?

A

Dabrafenib

68
Q

What is the name of the most commonly used MEK inhibitor?

A

Trametinib

69
Q

What frequency of GIST have mutations in KIT, and PDGFRA in GIST?

A

KIT – 80-85%
PDGFRA – 8% (30-40% of KIT negative)