Soft Tissue Malignancies FRCR CO2A Flashcards

1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Mesenchymally derived malignant tumours that may arise anywhere in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the incidence of soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Approximately 45 per million.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the overall survival rate for soft tissue sarcoma at 5 years?

A

Approximately 50%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the primary treatment for soft tissue sarcoma?

A

Surgical treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the role of adjuvant radiotherapy in soft tissue sarcoma?

A

Offered where there is a significant risk of local relapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What percentage of patients with intermediate or high-grade tumours develop metastatic disease?

A

50%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the usual spread pattern for soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Haematogenous spread to the lungs or liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What chemotherapy agent is commonly used for palliative treatment of soft tissue sarcoma?

A

Doxorubicin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the typical response rate to chemotherapy for soft tissue sarcoma?

A

Around 20%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name two classifications for soft tissue sarcomas.

A

ICD-O-3 and WHO classifications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some common subtypes of soft tissue sarcomas?

A
  • Leiomyosarcoma
  • Liposarcoma
  • Fibrosarcoma
  • Synovial sarcoma
  • Vascular sarcoma
  • Nerve sheath tumours
  • Malignant phyllodes tumours.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the age-standardised incidence rate trend for soft tissue sarcoma in England from 1985 to 2009?

A

Increased from 34 cases per million to 48 cases per million.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At what age is the peak incidence of soft tissue sarcomas observed?

A

Gradually increases with age, peaking in those aged 30 and above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What percentage of sarcomas are diagnosed in patients under 30 years of age?

A

16%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the common sites for soft tissue sarcomas?

A
  • Limbs (23%)
  • Connective tissues of the trunk (13%).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What risk factors are associated with soft tissue sarcoma?

A
  • Exposure to radiation
  • Vinyl chloride monomer
  • Dioxins and chlorophenols.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the Trojani grading system used for?

A

Grading sarcomas based on differentiation, mitoses, and necrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do sarcomas typically spread?

A

By local invasion or haematogenous spread.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the significance of a soft tissue mass greater than 5 cm?

A

Should be referred to a diagnostic centre as a suspected soft tissue sarcoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of biopsy is recommended for suspected soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Wide-needle biopsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What imaging is recommended for confirmed cases of sarcoma?

A

CT thorax and local imaging, usually by MRI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the recommended TNM classification for soft tissue sarcomas?

A

T1, T2, N0, N1, M0, M1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the aim of treatment for soft tissue sarcoma?

A

Maximise the chance of a cure while minimising treatment-related morbidity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the typical margin for excising a primary soft tissue sarcoma?

A

1 cm margin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the controversy surrounding the timing of radiotherapy?

A

The optimum time for RT is still debated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the significance of local control in soft tissue sarcoma treatment?

A

Quality of life and limb function depend on local control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

True or False: Chemotherapy is the primary treatment for soft tissue sarcoma.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the primary context for the use of preoperative radiotherapy (RT)?

A

Preoperative RT is becoming increasingly common in the UK, although its optimum timing is controversial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How has preoperative RT been compared to postoperative RT?

A

Preoperative RT has not been compared with surgery alone in a randomized trial but has been compared with postoperative RT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What significant finding was reported after 50 Gy of preoperative RT?

A

A statistically significant increase in wound healing problems was found.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What has continued follow-up shown regarding overall survival with preoperative RT?

A

There is a marginal but significant improvement in overall survival with preoperative RT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the typical dose and fractionation for phase 1 radiotherapy?

A

The dose is 50 Gy in 25 fractions over 5 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the target volume for phase 1 CTV in limbs?

A

The phase 1 CTV typically comprises the operative bed plus 5 cm longitudinally and 2 cm radially.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the purpose of limb immobilization during RT planning?

A

To ensure reproducibility of the set-up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the significance of using a photograph during limb positioning for RT?

A

It helps record the exact position for treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How does preoperative RT planning differ from postoperative RT planning?

A

The tumour is still in situ and there is typically no scar in preoperative planning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the recommended dose for phase 2 radiotherapy?

A

The dose is 10–16 Gy in 5–8 fractions over 1–1.5 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the standard first-line chemotherapy for soft tissue sarcoma?

A

Single-agent doxorubicin at a dose of 60–75 mg/m2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

True or False: Doxorubicin has been shown to improve survival compared to best supportive care.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What combination of drugs was tested in the first EORTC study?

A

Cyclophosphamide, vincristine, doxorubicin, and dacarbazine (CYVADIC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What was the conclusion of the second EORTC study regarding ifosfamide?

A

It showed no difference compared to no chemotherapy, but local control rates were higher than expected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the peak age for osteosarcoma incidence?

A

The peak age is 15, with a second peak in the elderly.

44
Q

What are some genetic predispositions associated with osteosarcoma?

A

Hereditary retinoblastoma, Rothmund–Thomson syndrome, and Li–Fraumeni syndrome.

45
Q

What is the average annual incidence of bone sarcoma in England from 1985–2009?

A

Approximately 7.9 per million persons.

46
Q

What is the most common primary bone malignancy in adults?

47
Q

What is the five-year relative survival rate for soft tissue sarcoma in England?

A

Around 54%.

48
Q

Fill in the blank: Trabectedin is approved by NICE when treatment with _______ and ifosfamide has failed.

A

anthracyclines.

49
Q

What is the common treatment approach for metastatic disease in soft tissue sarcoma?

A

Metastectomy, usually pulmonary.

50
Q

What is a notable feature of the epidemiology of Ewing sarcoma?

A

It shows a broader age range but becomes increasingly uncommon beyond age 30.

51
Q

What type of radiotherapy is being compared in the IMRiS trial?

A

Intensity Modulated Radiotherapy (IMRT) and conventional 3D conformal planning.

52
Q

What is the role of gemcitabine and docetaxel in the treatment of uterine leiomyosarcoma?

A

They have shown high response rates.

53
Q

What is the significance of the phase II trial conducted by the EORTC?

A

It compares preoperative radiotherapy plus surgery versus surgery alone in retroperitoneal sarcoma.

54
Q

What is a common risk factor for the development of osteosarcoma?

A

Paget’s disease of bone.

55
Q

What is the incidence of Ewing sarcoma among different ethnicities in the US?

A

It is less common in Black and Chinese populations.

56
Q

What type of cancer do chordomas represent?

A

Rare cancers derived from notochordal remnants.

57
Q

What is the primary source for further information on clinical trials related to soft tissue sarcomas?

A

http://csg.ncri.org.uk/.

58
Q

What are the known risk factors for Ewing sarcoma?

A

There are no known risk factors for Ewing sarcoma, though it is less common in US populations of Black and Chinese ethnicity, suggesting genetic factors might play a role.

59
Q

What benign tumors can lead to chondrosarcoma?

A

Chondrosarcoma may arise from benign cartilaginous tumours such as osteochondromas and chondromas.

60
Q

What is Maffucci’s syndrome?

A

Maffucci’s syndrome is a combination of multiple enchondromas that usually affect the hands and angiomas.

61
Q

What are chordomas?

A

Chordomas are rare cancers that arise from embryonic notochord remnants along the length of the neuraxis.

62
Q

Where does osteosarcoma commonly metastasise?

A

Osteosarcoma commonly metastasises to the lung and less commonly to bone.

63
Q

What are skip metastases?

A

Skip metastases are non-contiguous deposits in the same or neighbouring bone.

64
Q

What percentage of Ewing sarcoma patients present with metastases?

A

Ewing sarcoma presents with metastases in around 25% of patients.

65
Q

What is the typical cure rate for Ewing sarcoma before chemotherapy?

A

The typical cure rate for Ewing sarcoma before chemotherapy is around 5%.

66
Q

What is the commonest symptom of a primary bone tumour?

A

The commonest symptom of a primary bone tumour is non-mechanical or night pain.

67
Q

What imaging is the correct first investigation for a suspected primary bone tumour?

A

A plain X-ray is the correct first investigation.

68
Q

What is Codman’s triangle?

A

Codman’s triangle is a characteristic radiographic finding in osteosarcoma.

69
Q

What is required for the investigation of bone sarcoma?

A

A biopsy is essential for the investigation of bone sarcoma.

70
Q

What staging systems are used in bone cancer?

A

The Enneking system and the TNM system are used in bone cancer staging.

71
Q

What is the preferred treatment of chondrosarcoma?

A

Complete surgical excision is the preferred treatment of chondrosarcoma.

72
Q

What is the recommended dose of radiotherapy for chordoma?

A

Radiotherapy may be given ideally to a dose of 70 Gy for chordoma.

73
Q

What is the focus of sandwich chemotherapy?

A

Sandwich chemotherapy focuses on combining neoadjuvant and postoperative chemotherapy.

74
Q

What agents are commonly used in the treatment of osteosarcoma?

A

Cisplatin and doxorubicin are commonly used in the treatment of osteosarcoma.

75
Q

What is the role of immunotherapy in osteosarcoma?

A

Immunotherapy in osteosarcoma remains contentious, with some studies showing potential benefits.

76
Q

What are the prognostic factors associated with poorer outcomes in osteosarcoma?

A

Raised lactate dehydrogenase, alkaline phosphatase, presence of metastatic disease, poor histologic response, pelvic tumour site, male gender, and age greater than 18.

77
Q

What was the survival rate for Ewing sarcoma before the use of multi-agent chemotherapy?

A

The survival rate for Ewing sarcoma before the use of multi-agent chemotherapy was only 6%.

78
Q

What combination of drugs was first reported for Ewing sarcoma treatment?

A

Cyclophosphamide and vincristine were first reported for Ewing sarcoma treatment.

79
Q

What is the significance of the first Intergroup Ewing’s Sarcoma Study (IESS-1)?

A

The IESS-1 showed a 5-year disease survival of 60% with the addition of doxorubicin.

80
Q

Fill in the blank: The addition of _____ improved outcomes in Ewing sarcoma treatment.

A

doxorubicin

81
Q

What is the current standard treatment for osteosarcoma?

A

The current standard treatment for osteosarcoma is with MAP chemotherapy.

82
Q

What percentage of patients with localised disease will relapse?

A

Around 30% of patients with localised disease will relapse.

83
Q

What is osfamide used for?

A

It is used in the treatment of Ewing’s sarcoma

Referenced in Craft et al., 1998.

84
Q

What was the outcome of the first American Intergroup Ewing’s trial?

A

Survival in localized disease improved with ifosfamide and etoposide, but remained poor at 22% in metastatic disease

Referenced in Grier et al., 2003.

85
Q

What was investigated in the second American Intergroup trial?

A

Dose intensity with randomization to treatment protocols of either 30 or 48 weeks

Referenced in Womer et al., 2012.

86
Q

What was the improvement in 5-year event-free survival with 2-weekly chemotherapy?

A

Increased from 65% on the standard arm to 73% in the 2-weekly arm

No increased toxicity was noted.

87
Q

What chemotherapy agents were compared in the EICESS-92 trial?

A

Vincristine, doxorubicin, actinomycin-D with either cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide

Known as VAIA or VACA.

88
Q

What was found regarding cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide in the EICESS-92 trial?

A

Cyclophosphamide had similar effects as ifosfamide but was associated with increased toxicity.

89
Q

What was the treatment regimen in the EuroEWING99 trial?

A

6 cycles of vincristine, doxorubicin, ifosfamide, and etoposide (VIDE)

Patients without metastases were randomized to further treatment.

90
Q

What is the recommended dose for definitive radiotherapy in Ewing sarcoma?

A

55 Gy in 30 fractions.

91
Q

Is recurrent Ewing sarcoma often curable?

A

No, recurrent and locally relapsed Ewing sarcomas are seldom curable.

92
Q

What treatment options are available for recurrent Ewing sarcoma?

A

Palliative radiotherapy and drugs including temozolomide, irinotecan, and topotecan.

93
Q

What are the reported 5-year survival rates for localized Ewing sarcoma?

A

Ranges from 55% to 70%.

94
Q

What factors are associated with a poorer outcome in Ewing sarcoma?

A
  • Large tumours
  • Axial tumours
  • Increasing age.
95
Q

What areas does the EuroEWING2012 trial aim to examine?

A
  • Comparison of VIDE induction and VAI/VAC consolidation
  • Addition of bisphosphonate during consolidation
  • High-dose therapy with BuMel followed by stem cell rescue
  • High-dose therapy for patients with pulmonary and/or pleural metastases.
96
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

An inflammatory arthritis of the spine and sacro-iliac joints, predominantly affecting young males.

97
Q

What is the recommended radiotherapy dose for ankylosing spondylitis?

A

10 Gy in 10 fractions with orthovoltage.

98
Q

What is heterotopic bone formation (HBF)?

A

Postoperative ossification that can develop 3–6 weeks after surgery.

99
Q

What is the dose for radiotherapy to prevent recurrent HBF?

A

8 Gy in a single fraction within 4 days of surgery.

100
Q

What are desmoid tumours also known as?

A

Aggressive fibromatosis.

101
Q

What is the recommended dose for desmoid tumours after local resection?

A

50 Gy in 2 Gy fractions.

102
Q

What is synovitis?

A

An inflammatory reaction affecting the synovial lining of joints.

103
Q

What is the treatment for synovitis?

A

Intra-arterial injection of 90Y to give 185 MBq.

104
Q

What does arterial restenosis refer to?

A

Restenosis of coronary arteries after balloon angioplasty.

105
Q

What is the reduction in restenosis incidence due to radiotherapy post-angioplasty?

A

Reduced from 54% to between 17% and 25%.