Cancer of Unknown Primary FRCR Flashcards

1
Q

What is cancer of unknown primary origin?

A

Cancer of unknown primary origin is a condition in which a patient has metastatic tumour without an identified primary source.

(NICE, 2010)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What terms are used in NICE clinical guideline CG104 for cancer of unknown primary?

A

The terms used are: metastatic malignancy of uncertain origin (MUO), provisional carcinoma of unknown primary (provisional CUP), and confirmed carcinoma of unknown primary (confirmed CUP).

(NICE, 2010)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should be done if a primary tumour is identified?

A

If a primary tumour is identified, treatment should continue as for that individual tumour site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment approach if a primary tumour is not identified?

A

If a primary tumour is not identified, treatment has to be empirical and based on research in patients whose primary tumour is known.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What percentage of all invasive malignancies does cancer of unknown primary account for?

A

Cancer of unknown primary accounts for 3–5% of all invasive malignancies in the western world.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many new cases of cancer of unknown primary were diagnosed in the UK in 2011?

A

In 2011, there were 9762 new cases of cancer of unknown primary diagnosed in the United Kingdom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the age-standardised rate of cancer of unknown primary in the UK?

A

The age-standardised rate in the UK is 10.2 per 100,000 population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the median age at diagnosis for cancer of unknown primary?

A

The median age at diagnosis is 65–70 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the commonest primary sites identified in patients with cancer of unknown primary?

A

The commonest primary sites are pancreas (20–26%), lung (17–23%), liver (3–11%), large bowel (4–10%), stomach (3–8%), kidney (4–6%), ovary (3–4%), prostate (3–4%), and breast (2%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the importance of investigating patients with cancer of unknown primary?

A

It is important to consider potentially curable malignancies, such as germ cell tumours or lymphoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the definition of malignancy of undefined primary origin (MUO)?

A

Metastatic malignancy identified on the basis of a limited number of tests, without an obvious primary site, before comprehensive investigation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the definition of provisional carcinoma of unknown primary origin (provisional CUP)?

A

Metastatic epithelial or neuroendocrine malignancy identified on the basis of histology/cytology, with no primary site detected despite a selected initial screen of investigations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the definition of confirmed carcinoma of unknown primary origin (confirmed CUP)?

A

Metastatic epithelial or neuroendocrine malignancy identified on the basis of final histology, with no primary site detected despite a selected initial screen of investigations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some risk factors and aetiology associated with CUP?

A

Several genetic mutations have been implicated including MYC, RAS, EGFR, PDGFR, MET, KIT, and p53.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What percentage of cancer patients present with symptoms from metastases from an unknown primary site?

A

15% of cancer patients present with symptoms from metastases from an unknown primary site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the most frequent presenting features of malignancy of undefined primary origin (MUO)?

A

The most frequent presenting features are pain (60%), liver mass or abdominal symptoms (40%), palpable nodal disease (20%), bone pain or fracture (15%), chest symptoms (15%), and central nervous system abnormality (5%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the recommended approach for the investigation of MUO?

A

There should be a CUP team in every cancer centre, and a two-phase diagnostic approach should be carried out guided by the patient’s clinical condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What initial assessments are required for patients with MUO?

A

Patients require a thorough comprehensive history and physical examination, along with laboratory tests including full blood count and serum LDH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What imaging tests are recommended for patients with MUO?

A

CXR and CT scanning of the thorax, abdomen, and pelvis are recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the common histopathological findings in patients with MUO?

A

The most common findings are adenocarcinoma, squamous carcinoma, and poorly differentiated types.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What immunohistochemical biomarkers help in tumour diagnosis?

A

Some biomarkers include CK for carcinoma, PSA for prostate, and ER for breast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the significance of t(11;22) in cancer?

A

It is associated with Ewing sarcoma and peripheral neuroendocrine tumours (PNET).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What specialized tests may be indicated for patients with MUO?

A

Further investigations may be indicated, particularly if patients have symptoms or signs suggesting a primary site.

24
Q

What blood tests are performed for suspected germ cell tumours or hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Serum αFP and βhCG are carried out.

25
Q

What blood test is done if prostate cancer is suspected?

A

PSA is done if the presentation is compatible with prostate cancer.

26
Q

What blood test is done if ovarian cancer is suspected?

A

CA125 is done if the presentation is compatible with ovarian cancer.

27
Q

What is the purpose of endoscopy in cancer diagnosis?

A

Endoscopy is performed if clinically indicated and not already carried out.

28
Q

What procedure is used for patients with intrapulmonary nodules unsuitable for percutaneous biopsy?

A

Flexible bronchoscopy with biopsy, brushings, and washings is used.

29
Q

What is VATs exploration used for?

A

It is used in patients with a negative bronchoscopy where percutaneous biopsy is not appropriate.

30
Q

What should be combined with panendoscopy in patients with malignant neck lymph nodes?

A

Directed biopsies of the nasopharynx, tongue base, hypopharynx, and if negative, bilateral tonsillectomy.

31
Q

When should 18F-FDG PET-CT be offered?

A

It should be offered to patients with cervical lymphadenopathy and no primary tumour identified.

32
Q

What is the role of mammography in cancer diagnosis?

A

Mammography is undertaken if the presentation is compatible with breast cancer.

33
Q

When is breast MRI carried out?

A

Breast MRI is carried out for patients with adenocarcinoma of the axillary nodes.

34
Q

What is the TNM classification used for?

A

It is used to stage patients with cancer of unknown primary according to the most likely primary site.

35
Q

What should be done when a probable primary site is found in patients with MUO?

A

Standard treatment for that site should be given.

36
Q

What percentage of patients with CUP are in the unfavourable group?

A

80% of patients will be in the unfavourable group.

37
Q

What role does surgery play in managing patients with CUP?

A

Surgery may be useful, particularly for those in one of the more favourable subgroups.

38
Q

What was investigated in a phase II prospective trial regarding cancer classification?

A

The effectiveness of a 92-gene reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction cancer classification assay to predict tumour origin.

39
Q

What was the median survival for patients receiving assay-directed site-specific treatment?

A

The median survival was 12.5 months compared to 8.9 months historically.

41
Q

What is the management approach for isolated brain metastases?

A

Management includes palliation of specific problems and referral to an MDT for local treatments

MDT refers to multidisciplinary team, which may consider other factors like unusual primary tumors.

42
Q

In which scenarios may radiotherapy be indicated?

A

Radiotherapy may be indicated for:
* Standard treatment for probable primary cancer in CUP
* Treatment of squamous cell cancer of cervical lymph nodes
* Palliative treatment for bone pain, epidural spinal cord compression, SVCO

43
Q

What is the overall response rate of chemotherapy regimens for CUP based on phase II studies?

A

The overall response rate is less than 20%

This indicates limited effectiveness of chemotherapy regimens in CUP.

44
Q

Which chemotherapy regimens appear to have a higher response rate for CUP?

A

Platinum-based chemotherapy regimens appear to give a higher response rate

Examples include cisplatin and gemcitabine.

45
Q

What percentage of patients with CUP are in the unfavourable subgroup?

A

80% of patients with CUP are in the unfavourable subgroup

46
Q

What are commonly used chemotherapy regimens for patients with CUP?

A

Commonly used regimens include:
* Epirubicin
* Cisplatin
* 5-FU
* Capecitabine
* Gemcitabine
* Taxanes

47
Q

What is the prognosis for one-year and five-year survival in CUP?

A

One-year survival is 16% and five-year survival is 8%

48
Q

What are poor prognostic factors for CUP?

A

Poor prognostic factors include:
* More than three metastatic sites
* Performance Status (PS) 2 or more
* Male gender
* Non-lymph node metastases
* Raised LDH, lymphopaenia, low serum albumin
* Unfavourable CUP subgroup

49
Q

What is the median survival for patients with CUP who undergo chemotherapy?

A

The median survival is 11.0 months with only 1.5% alive at 5 years

50
Q

True or False: Patients treated with radiotherapy have a significantly better survival compared to those who had no radiotherapy.

51
Q

What is the CUP-One trial focused on?

A

The CUP-One trial focuses on:
* New diagnostic tools like molecular profiling
* Effectiveness of ECX chemotherapy

52
Q

Fill in the blank: The treatment for patients with cancer of unknown primary is likely to move towards treatment based on _______ predicting treatment response.

A

molecular profiling

53
Q

What is the recommendation for patients with unfavourable CUP and poor performance status?

A

Best treated with supportive care alone, with palliative radiotherapy for local symptom control

54
Q

What should be considered for patients with predominant liver metastases?

A

Consider a 5-FU-based regimen, e.g. epirubicin, oxaliplatin, and capecitabine

55
Q

What is the recommended treatment for patients with predominant lung metastases if breast or thyroid cancer is thought unlikely?

A

Consider a platinum-based treatment regimen

56
Q

What is the suggested approach for patients with bone metastases?

A

Consider radiotherapy for painful sites and a trial of hormone treatment or possible combination chemotherapy

57
Q

What is the significance of obtaining a tissue diagnosis in CUP cases?

A

It is valuable if epithelial markers are positive with radiological evidence of malignancy, PS > 2, and more than three metastatic sites