SOFT TISSUE Flashcards

1
Q

Cold-related injury (frostbite) medication

A

because thrombosis may occur up to 16 hours after rewarming.

Recent studies confirm that thrombolytic therapy with the use of intravenous or intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) in patients with frostbite and no contraindication to tPA is safe and can reduce predicted digit amputations considerably.

Risk factors for poor response to tPA include more than 24 hours of cold exposure, warm ischemia times greater than 6 hours, or evidence of multiple freeze–thaw cycles.

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2
Q

The laboratory risk indicator for necrotizing fasciitis (LRINEC) score has a high discriminative ability negative predictive value of 96% when a cutoff of 6 or more is used to diagnose necrotizing soft tissue infection. Components of the LRINEC score include

A

C-reactive protein, total white blood cell count, hemoglobin, serum sodium, serum creatinine, and serum glucose.

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3
Q

what organism has poorest prognosis of nec fasc

A

Clostridial infections have a significantly worse mortality than infections caused by other agents.

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4
Q

most often identified as the single most important laboratory predictor associated with poor outcome of nec fasc

A

hyponatremia

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5
Q

rule of nines

A
head and neck 9
upper extremity 9
lower extremity 18
anterior thorax 18
posterior thorax 18
genital 1
hand 1
----
peds
hand and neck 18!
upper extremity 9
lower extremity 14*
anterior thorax 18
posterior thorax 18
genital 1
hand 1
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6
Q

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans

A

locally aggressive and are characterized by slow, infiltrative growth.

infrequently diagnosed cutaneous sarcoma of low to intermediate grade.

minimal metastatic potential but tends to recur locally after surgical excision.

Clinically, the tumors appear plaque-like or nodular

commonly on the trunk and proximal extremities.

Diagnosis of DFSP is best achieved through punch biopsy.

Excisional biopsy should be avoided when a diagnosis of DFSP is clinically suspected, because reexcision will be required to obtain wide negative margins.

Other than routine chest x-ray, no preoperative metastatic work-up is indicated.

Lymph node metastasis is rare; therefore, assessment of lymphatic spread, other than physical examination, is not indicated.

When feasible, based on tumor location, most practitioners endorse complete surgical resection with wide, pathologically negative margins as the optimal treatment for primary or recurrent DFSP.

For tumors occurring on the head, face, or other areas where wide local excision is not cosmetically acceptable, Mohs micrographic surgery may be a reasonable alternative. Radiation therapy is typically provided as adjuvant treatment.

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7
Q

Imiquimod

A

may be an alternative to surgery for patients with primary facial superficial basal cell carcinoma (BCCs), but long-term clearance is not as good as some of the other treatment modalities.

all, well-defined BCCs extend more than 4 mm beyond their apparent clinical margins.

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8
Q

Treatment of basal cell carcinoma other than surgery and efficacy

A

cryosurgery,
curettage,
radiation therapy,
photodynamic therapy

These techniques are generally used to treat low-risk tumors, although radiation therapy also has an important role in the management of high-risk BCCs.

do not allow histologic confirmation of tumor clearance.

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9
Q

Surgical management of basal cell carcimoma

A

used to treat both low- and high-risk BCCs and is generally considered to have the lowest overall failure rate in BCC treatment.

Studies using Mohs micrographic surgery sections, which can accurately detect BCC at any part of the surgical margin, suggest that excision of small (<20 mm), well-defined lesions with a 3-mm peripheral surgical margin will clear the tumor in 85% of cases.

A 4–5-mm peripheral margin will increase the peripheral clearance rate to approximately 95%, indicating that approximately 5% of small, well-defined BCCs extend more than 4 mm beyond their apparent clinical margins.

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10
Q

at highest risk for pressure ulcer development.

A

Trauma and burn patients, especially those with comorbidities including spinal cord injury or diabetes

Patients with low BMIs and low and high weights are at increased risk for pressure ulcers.

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11
Q

Braden score

A

To objectively assess pressure ulcer risk,

assess sensory perception, 
skin moisture, 
activity, 
mobility, 
friction and shear,  
nutritional status
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12
Q

Fat grafting

A

delivering adipose-derived stem cells to the injured tissue, particularly after radiation therapy.

After mastectomy and axillary dissection, postmastectomy pain syndrome can be treated with autologous fat grafting into the dermo-hypodermal junction of painful scars.

Autologous fat grafting is also used to treat severe vocal cord scarring.

Although publications are largely based on small case studies,
method of restoring glottis closure and correcting dysphonia due to vocal cord injury.

Fat grafting can be used to improve anal tone for fecal incontinence.

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13
Q

clean/contaminated wounds infection risk SSI

A

6–7% rate of SSI.

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14
Q

Associated factors with SSI

A

hyperglycemia,
poor tissue oxygenation,
suboptimal antibiotic delivery to tissue.

perioperative hyperglycemia after both cardiac and noncardiac surgery.

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15
Q

Based on these observations, the following strategies are recommended to prevent SSI in obese patients:

A

tight perioperative glucose control,
optimized tissue oxygen tension through increased perioperative FIO2,
larger doses of prophylactic antibiotics to maximize serum and tissue concentrations,
and use of minimally invasive approaches where possible.

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16
Q

gangion cyst treatment and recurrence

A

Some studies show that with reassurance and no further therapy, these cysts can involute spontaneously in approximately 50% of cases.

Conversely, simple aspiration has recurrence rates similar to the involution rate of simple observation, that is, around 50%.

Aspiration with steroid injection is no better, with recurrence rates around 50%. A

lthough excision of the cyst is considered the gold standard of treatment, simple excision without special attention to the pedicle has recurrence rates of approximately 40%.

With special attention to the pedicle, namely excision with ligation of the neck, recurrences rates drop to the 5–16% range. However, surgical complications occur in approximately 8% of patients.

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17
Q

slow-growing masses at the tip of the scapula.

A

Elastofibroma dorsi

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18
Q

Elastofibroma dorsi treatment and natural history

A

composed of alternating streaks of fatty and fibrous tissue.

These lesions typically occur in older people, with the mean age at diagnosis being 70 years.

Most of these lesions are asymptomatic, and when symptoms occur, they are generally mild, consisting of swelling, a “clunking” sensation when the shoulder is being moved, and mild to moderate pain.

The differential diagnosis includes a variety of benign and malignant soft tissue tumors, with the chief concern being that of a sarcoma.

step. MRI will show the characteristic findings of alternating streaks of fibrous and fatty tissue (figure 1). This will obviate the need for tissue diagnosis; therefore, fine needle aspiration and incisional biopsy are not necessary.

Although a lipoma is in the differential diagnosis, to reassure the patient that the lesion is a lipoma is wrong. Otherwise, the surgeon will believe that the lesion is in the subcutaneous space instead of its correct location, deep to the subscapular fascia. Surgical intervention is required only for symptoms. The operation of choice is simple excision, which is associated with a nearly zero rate of recurrence.

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19
Q

he pathophysiology of inhalation injury is complex and includes

A

Tdirect thermal injury to the tracheobronchial tree (NOT lung)
subsequent airway obstruction,
CO2 retention,
and ventilation–perfusion (VQ) mismatch.

activation of the inflammatory cascade leads to increased microvascular permeability, progressive pulmonary edema, and decreased pulmonary compliance.

Bronchoconstriction associated with inhalation injury further impairs gas exchange.

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20
Q

Complications of inhalation injury and its treatment with mechanical ventilation include give percent

A

pneumonia -
Up to 70% of patients develop pneumonia within the first week after burn injury.

spontaneous pneumothorax.

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21
Q

Proposed treatment for inhalation injury includes

A

A combination of aerosolized unfractionated heparin, N-acetylcysteine, and albuterol improves lung injury score, pulmonary compliance, and survival in patients with inhalation injury.

intravenous steroids and inhalation therapy with nitric oxide, beta-agonists, and anti-inflammatory agents (such as heparin and N- acetylcysteine).

However, studies examining the effects of steroids on inhalation injury failed to demonstrate any improvement in outcome and, in some cases, showed detrimental effects of increased infectious complications.

Inhaled nitric oxide (INO) lessens VQ mismatch and reduces pulmonary hypertension through vasodilatation of ventilated lung areas.

Multiple studies have shown improvement in oxygenation with the use of INO (clinically significant increase in PaO2/FiO2 ratio in two-thirds of patients).

Unfortunately, no improvement in survival has been shown with INO.

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22
Q

High-frequency oscillatory ventilation

A

effective in the treatment of patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

improves oxygenation index in burn patients with ARDS.

NOT for burns inhalation injury becuase it does not improve oxygenation and is associated with a higher incidence of severe hypercapnia.

In addition, use of HFOV complicates other therapies, such as frequent suctioning, bronchoscopy, and delivery of nebulizers.

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23
Q

Field rewarming for frostbite injuries

A

only if there is no further risk of refreezing.

If pursued, the provider commits to a course that involves controlling pain, maintaining a warm water bath at a constant temperature, and protecting tissues from further injury during transport.

Rubbing of affected tissue may cause undesirable mechanical trauma.

Space heaters or fires in the field should not be used, because slow partial rewarming can be detrimental to recovery.

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24
Q

recommended rewarming for frostbite

A

Rapid rewarming in a 40–42ºC water bath is the recommended management.

Rewarming time required varies from 30 minutes to 1 hour,

the appearance of red/purple color and pliable texture of the involved part signals the end of vasoconstriction and are signs that warming should cease.

At the time of rewarming, the degree of microvascular damage results in either vascular recovery with dissolution of clots or vascular collapse with thrombosis, ischemia, necrosis, and gangrene.

There is no evidence that antiseptic solutions at rewarming affects wound infection rates.

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25
Q

Bowen disease

A

carcinoma in situ of the skin.

Predisposing factors include sun exposure, chronic immunosuppression (e.g., HIV therapy), and human papilloma virus infection (HPV; e.g., anal neoplasia).

The damage, whether from sun, immunosuppression, or virus, is not local.

Wide local resection is all that is required. The tissue adjacent to the noninvasive lesion is also at high risk of neoplasia. HIV-positive status is not an independent predictor of disease, although HPV infection is.

Men and women are similarly affected.

Radiation can be used to retard the progression of disease in critical areas of the skin, but it is not the preferred therapy for treating most lesions.

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26
Q

Spitz nevi

A

Spitz - “starburst”

benign melanocytic proliferations that usually present as solitary lesions.

most commonly found on the head, trunk, or extremities in children younger than 10 years.

The nevus shares many clinical and histological features with melanoma, thereby presenting clinical ambiguity that makes the diagnosis and management of the patient difficult.

In young children, the lesions tend to be pink or red and dome shaped.

The initial pattern may be a “starburst” that transitions to a reticular pattern over time.

Spitz nevi can also be seen in adults. In adults, the nevi may be brown or black. The natural history is not fully understood, and patients should be managed on an individual basis, with efforts made to avoid both overly aggressive or suboptimal management strategies.

Although somewhat controversial, the most common recommended therapy is:

surgery, and excision should include a 1–2 mm margin of normal-appearing skin around the Spitz nevus with confirmation of the pathology.

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27
Q

Enzymatic débridement using collagenase

A

gained popularity

derived from the bacterial strain Clostridium histolyticum.

Collagenase ointment selective, because it cleaves only 1 type of protein, collagen.

applied at least daily,
moist environment

use with silver dressings reduces activity by more than 50%.

Cadexomer iodine inhibits activity by approximately 90%.

Some antiseptic cleansers containing heavy metal ions, acetic acid, or hypochlorite also reduce the biologic activity of collagenase and should be avoided or removed from the wound bed via cleansing with saline before collagenase is applied.

use with a vacuum-type dressing is not recommended.

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28
Q

Necrotizing soft tissue infection

incidence of community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus mandates empiric coverage with

A

either vancomycin or linezolid.

29
Q

Necrotizing soft tissue infection Antibiotic coverage should also be directed against

A

Clostridia, methicillin-sensitive S. aureus, Streptococcus, and Gram-negative organisms.

The extended-spectrum penicillin piperacillin/tazobactam is appropriate for treatment of these organisms.

The Gram-positive organisms S. aureus, Streptococcus, and Clostridia produce exotoxin, potentiating the systemic manifestations of the disease process.

Clindamycin is appropriate secondary to its ability to inhibit protein synthesis, thereby reducing exotoxin production. The other antibiotics do not inhibit protein synthesis.

either vancomycin or linezolid.

30
Q

necrotizing soft tissue infection organism profile associated with diabetes

A

polymicrobial (type I), which occurs commonly in diabetic patients,

includes a mix of aerobic and anaerobic organisms.

31
Q

Clostridium septicum - type of infection and what is workup

A

necrotizing soft tissue infection found spontaneously without history of trauma

associated underlying gastrointestinal malignancy!

or

immunocompromised

Colonoscopy should be performed, because patients with a diagnosis of C. septicum NSTI have a high incidence of colorectal cancer. The other studies

32
Q

what burn patient required telemetry monitoring

A

electrical burn Patients with electrocardiogram abnormalities on arrival to the emergency department

or

a high-voltage injury, defined as more than 1000 V, require a minimum of 24 hours of telemetry monitoring.

33
Q

Rhabdomyolysis

A

diagnosis is made by evaluating the urine for myoglobin.

If myoglobin is present in the urine, volume expansion is the treatment of choice, targeting a urine output of 100 mL/hour until the myoglobin is cleared.

34
Q

Silver sulfadiazine

A

most common agent used for burn wound care.

some penetration of eschar.

broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity, although pseudomonas can develop resistance.

Application to the face and ears is typically avoided.

A transient leukopenia can develop with its use; if it does, application should be discontinued.

Once the leukopenia resolves, the agent can be reapplied without recurrence of the problem.

35
Q

Mafenide acetate

A

more effective than silver sulfadiazine against pseudomonas.

penetrates eschar well.

inhibition of carbonic anhydrase with associated metabolic acidosis when applied to large wounds.

used for burns of the ear and nose to prevent development of chondritis.

36
Q

Silver nitrate

A

applied as a soak.

Rarely, methemoglobinemia can develop.

leaching of electrolytes due to its hypotonicity.

Disadvantages include staining of tissues, which turn black when exposed to light

advantage is that dressings do not need to be removed; they just need to be resaturated with the solution.

It is painless on application and has outstanding antimicrobial activity.

37
Q

Bacitracin

A

superficial partial thickness burns at low risk for infection.

It is primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria.

38
Q

During the first 24 hours of healing, skin graft is sustained by

A

plasmatic imbibition.

This is the process by which transudate from the recipient bed is absorbed by the skin graft.
because of this increased risk of necrosis.

39
Q

at what stage fibrin become and active component and skin graft - what is its role

A

Fibrin acts as the adhesive during holding the graft in place until 48–72 hours after grafting,

40
Q

when do vascular anastomoses began to develop between the recipient bed and tissue of the graft

A

after 48-72 hours during which time the fibrin has held things in place

41
Q

Full circulation is restored to the skin graft when

A

within 4–7 days after initial grafting.

42
Q

Split-thickness skin grafts consist of

A

epidermis
and
a portion of the underlying dermis

43
Q

full-thickness skin grafts include

A

epidermis and dermis.

44
Q

Full-thickness skin grafts are well suited for

A

repair to small wounds, such as
nose, ear, and eyelid,

they contract less than split-thickness skin grafts;

however, they are more prone to necrosis.

Smoking is a RELATIVE contraindication for full-thickness skin grafts

45
Q

hard signs of necrotizing fasciitis

A

(bullae, crepitus, gas on radiograph, systolic less than 90 mm Hg, skin necrosis)

present in less than 50% of patients

46
Q

laboratory findings predicted with necrotizing fasciitis on initial workup

A

sodium less than 135

WBC greater than 14

BUN greater than 15

47
Q

How does timing of initiating antibiotics affect outcome of necrotizing fasciitis

How does this compare to the importance of early surgical debridement and its effect on mortality

A

Once the diagnosis is suspected, failure to initiate treatment with appropriate antibiotics within the first hour of presentation leads to increased mortality.

Numerous studies show that the MOST important determinants of mortality are early débridement and adequacy of initial débridement.

48
Q

those patients with necrotizing fasciitis requiring debridement what percentage includes MRSA

A

the incidence of community-acquired MRSA is greater than 70% in patients requiring surgical débridement.

49
Q

mortality rate with necrotizing soft tissue infection

A

(25–35%).

50
Q

the most common organism profile for necrotizing soft tissue fasciitis

A

polymicrobial

necessitating broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage of Gram-positive cocci, Gram-negative rods, and anaerobes.

Overall, Staphylococcus aureus is the most common pathogen isolated (in 25–50% of NSTIs).

Clostridium perfringens is now a rare cause of NSTI because of improvements in sanitation and hygiene.

51
Q

Merkel cell carcinoma histopathology

A

a cutaneous neuroendocrine tumor

containing cells with keratin filaments and cytoplasmic dense-core neuroendocrine granules.

reasonable appearance Merkel receptors - oval-shaped synaptic receptor cells found in the skin that are associated with light touch.

A polyomavirus was found to be integrated into the genome of MCC; it may play a role in the pathogenesis and progression of these tumors.

52
Q

Merkel cell carcinoma clinical features

A

Clinically, MCC has several features similar to cutaneous melanoma

it occurs on sun-damaged skin,

lymphatic spread is common. A

can be staged with sentinel node biopsy.

may be related to patients who are immunosuppressed (e.g., from HIV, transplantation, leukemias);

has its own staging system separate from squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), with which it used to be combined.

MCC, unlike melanoma and SCC, is fairly radio- and chemosensitive, and radiation is often used to treat draining nodal beds, although the exact role of adjuvant therapy for MCC is still under study.

53
Q

get a diagnosis of necrotizing soft tissue infection is in doubt what his management

A

If the diagnosis is in doubt, an urgent CT scan, MRI, or surgical débridement is indicated.

54
Q

what is recommended guidelines for margin of tissue to be taken and debriding necrotizing fasciitis

What is average number debridement and in what time frame

A

Boundaries should be at least as wide and deep as the rim of the infected tissue.

Most patients are scheduled for repeat multiple surgical débridements within 24 hours and receive more than 3 débridements.

55
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma arising in chronically scarred inflamed skin is most often due to well-differentiated or poorly differentiated?

A

well-differentiated cell type.

56
Q

how aggressive and how fast to squamous cell carcinomas growth associated with chronic wounds

A

fast-aggressive despite being well-differentiated

rapid growth, local aggressiveness, early metastasis, and high mortality can be observed.

57
Q

Marjolin ulcer associated with what type of wound

A

malignant change within burn scar the

Other chronic inflammatory conditions are reported to incite Marjolin ulcer:

osteomyelitis, frostbite, skin graft donor site, lupoid rash, irradiated skin, hidradenitis suppurativa, pilonidal abscess, decubitus ulcer, snakebite, and venous stasis ulcer.

58
Q

management of chronic gluteal pilonidal disease.

A

unroofing favored compared to higher incidence of wound dehiscence and unhealed wound with excision and reconstructions

do not use subcutaneous drain - shown to increase rate of dehiscence and wound infection. with increased nonhealing times.

no advantage of V-Y advancement flaps compared to simple primary closures

no proof of prophylactic antibiotics perioperatively - not needed if left to heal by secondary intention the unroofing

hair removal decreases recurrence

59
Q

compare surgical site infection with 4% chlorhexidine gluconate bathing compared to washing with our soap

A

no statistical difference 2011 Cochran

chlorhexidine statistically improved outcome when compared to no washing

60
Q

Skin surface concentrations of chlorhexidine gluconate that inhibit the growth of 90% of staphylococcal skin isolates can be achieved by

A

shower with 4% chlorhexidine gluconate
or
scrub the skin with 2% chlorhexidine gluconate impregnated polyester cloths.

61
Q

numerous lipomas with a history of occurrence in several family generations.

A

These lesions are soft, smooth, and nontender, and, at the time of excision, they appear to be well encapsulated.

There is usually a strong family history, and the entity occurs primarily in men.

The mode of inheritance is thought to be autosomal dominant.

Malignant transformation of these lesions is exceedingly rare.

Their encapsulated nature and minimal vasculature often favors excisions by digital pressure through small incisions.

62
Q

basal cell carcinoma excision margins

A

Low-risk BCC should be excised with a 4–5 mm macroscopic margin

high-risk lesions require a 10-mm margin.

63
Q

low-risk basal cell carcinoma with features

A

Low-risk BCC includes:

trunk and extremity lesions less than 2 cm
head and neck lesions less than 1 cm.

64
Q

high-risk basal cell carcinoma features

A
High-risk BCC includes
larger tumors, 
recurrent tumors,
immunocompromised patients, 
perineural invasion

basal cell type of:
morpheaform
sclerosing
micronodular

65
Q

second most common skin cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

66
Q

surgical margins were squamous cell carcinoma

A

SCC are similar to BCC

Low-risk BCC should be excised with a 4–5 mm macroscopic margin

high-risk lesions require a 10-mm margin.
In addition to size criteria,

high-risk SCC patients include tumors that are:

poorly differentiated
adenoid,
adenosquamous,
desmoplastic

67
Q

Mohs micrographic surgery should be performed for

A

high-risk carcinomas,
recurrent carcinomas,
surgeries near critical structures.

68
Q

The Breslow depth

A

less than 1 mm = 1 cm margin

1-2 mm = 2 cm margin (1 cm acceptable if near critical structure)

greater than 2 mm = 2 cm margin

69
Q

Merkel cell carcinoma margin

A

Surgical excision is based on the size of the tumor:

less than 2 cm = 1 cm margin
greater than 2 cm = 2-cm margin