BREAST Flashcards

1
Q

HER-2 neu CHEMO

A

Trastuzumab is a highly effective therapy for breast cancer patients with

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Regarding women known to be at increased risk of breast cancer development Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy decreases breast cancer risk by

A

50%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Regarding women known to be at increased risk of breast cancer development Bilateral prophylactic mastectomy decreases breast cancer risk by

A

90–95% by removing the majority of the breast tissue. It does not completely eliminate breast cancer risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Regarding women known to be at increased risk of breast cancer development Tamoxifen decreases breast cancer risk by

A

50% and is an effective chemoprevention agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Regarding women known to be at increased risk of breast cancer development The American Cancer Society (ACS) guidelines state that annual MRI for screening is recommended for women whose lifetime risk of breast cancer development is

A

20–25% or higher. ACS recommends the use of the BRCAPRO, Claus, or Tyrer-Cuzick models to calculate lifetime risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Anastrozole use is limited to use with what patient population

A

postmenopausal patients with breast cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

63-year-old woman undergoes a lumpectomy for a 1.2-cm invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast resected to negative margins. One of 2 sentinel lymph nodes is found to be positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management option

A

NO axillary disection - just “whole breast radiation”

no difference in in-breast recurrence, axillary recurrence, 5-year disease-free survival or 5-year overall survival between women undergoing axillary lymph node dissection and those women who did not!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Currently in the clinical practice, ALND can be avoided for patients who meet ALL of the following criteria:

A
1 No neoadjuvant chemotherapy
2 Breast conservation
3 Clinical T1 or T2 and N0 tumor
4 1 or 2 positive SLNs
5 Whole breast radiation, not for patients receiving partial breast radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Life-threatening anaphylactic reactions have been reported in 1% of cases with use of

A

isosulfan blue

LYMPHAZURIN™

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

isosulfan blue can interfere with

A

pulse oximetry, resulting in falsely lowered peripheral oxygen saturation readings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

in ecurrent breast cancer where should lymp mapping agent be injected

A

peritumoral injection is recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SLN surgery is used when

A

male breast cancer,
multifocal breast cancer,
multicentric breast cancer,
patients after neoadjuvant chemotherapy with clinically negative nodes at presentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Patients at an increased risk of local recurrence after breast conservation include those with

A

a young age at diagnosis (<40 years).

HER2 positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

breast cancers, with a lower local recurrence rate

A

estrogen receptor positive breast cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Multicentric breast cancer, recurrence rate with the use of partial breast radiation for the appropriate patients.

A

lesions in different quadrants of the breast,

longstanding indication for mastectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

multifocal disease breast cancer

effect on local recurrence

A

lesions within the same quadrant of the breast,

not suggest increased
can be resected with breast conservation without any evidence of increased local recurrence after breast conservation with adjuvant radiation therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Histological subtype of breast cancer between lobular and ductal affect local recurrence rates

A

not signifcant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Regarding a 55-year-old patient with a 2-cm intermediate-grade ductal carcinoma in situ who undergoes surgical resection, what is management besides lumpectomy

A

Adjuvant breast radiation

decreases local recurrence rates after lumpectomy for ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS).

tamoxifen and is used to decrease the risk of
recurrence or new primary in the ipsilateral or contralateral breast.

SLNB ONLY if:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when is post op radiation recommended in breast surgery

A

after lumpectomy for ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS).

after lumpectomy for invasive cancer

after MASTECTOMY if:
greater than 5 cm
chest wall invasion
persistent positive margins
positive lymph nodes (classically ≥4 positive lymph nodes and increasingly also for those women with 1–3 positive lymph nodes).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

post operative treatment after mastectomy less than 5 cm in size resected to negative margins and has negative lymph nodes,

A

NO radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sentinel lymph node (SLN) staging for DCIS

A
DCIS ONLY when:
greater than 5 cm in size
palpable
associated with microinvasion on biopsy
high nuclear grade 
presence of comedonecrosis, 

or

treated with mastectomy - disrupted lympatics

By definition, DCIS is noninvasive and should not spread to the lymph nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Adjuvant therapy for women with DCIS

A

tamoxifen and is used to decrease the risk of
recurrence or new primary in the ipsilateral or contralateral breast.

Women with DCIS treated with a bilateral mastectomy are not recommended to receive adjuvant endocrine therapy.

Aromatase inhibitors have not been studied in women with DCIS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Partial breast radiation is appropraite for what patients

A

radiation to the lumpectomy bed and surrounding breast tissue.

guidelines ALL of the following:
invasive ductal carcinoma
ER positive +/-
tumor size 3 cm or smaller
negative margins
node negative
women older than 45 years 

Location of the tumor within the breast is not a limiting factor regarding use of partial breast radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

annual screening MRI for the detection of breast cancer

A

lifetime risk of breast cancer of at least 20–25%
known BRCA1 or 2 mutation carriers
untested first-degree relatives of known BRCA1 or 2 mutation carriers.

evaluation of response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy

radiation to the chest between ages 10 and 30 years
Li Fraumeni syndrome
Cowden syndrome.

It is also useful to reconcile differences between findings on clinical examination and mammographic or ultrasound imaging.

workup of patients presenting with axillary metastases thought to be of breast origin where standard imaging (mammogram and ultrasound) does not identify the primary breast tumor.

Routine MRI for evaluation of the contralateral breast before surgery of a known breast cancer is not required.

MRI should be considered in women with dense breast tissue, women with invasive lobular carcinoma, or women presenting with mammographically occult disease.

ACS concluded that there was insufficient evidence to recommend:
atypia (atypical ductal hyperplasia 
atypical lobular hyperplasia)
lobular carcinoma in situ
or
breast cancer!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Chemoprevention with medications are what and decrease the risk of breast cancer development by

A

tamoxifen, raloxifene, or exemestane can decrease the risk of breast cancer development by 50%.

Anastrozole has NOT been studied as a chemopreventive agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the managemt when LCIS is diagnosed on a stereotactic core biopsy

A

operative excisional biopsy is indicated to exclude an adjacent invasive breast cancer.

Surgical excisional biopsy has a 20–30% incidence of a malignant lesion near the LCIS.

If invasive breast cancer is not identified on final pathology, the patient is followed with annual mammography and physical examination.

If the needle-localized excisional breast biopsy has LCIS at the margin of excision, repeat excision is not indicated.

Tamozifne -In premenopausal high-risk women, tamoxifen can decrease the risk of developing invasive breast cancer by almost 50%.

chemoprevention drug of choice is tamoxifen, NOT raloxifene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

risks of tamoxifen include

A

thromboembolic disease and uterine malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

managment of 3 cm breast abscess in 22 yo

A

needle aspiration and antibiotics can be used as first-line treatment for simple breast abscesses.

Incision and drainage are reserved for patients who do not resolve with repeated aspirations.

Placement of a drainage catheter is considered for abscesses greater than 5 cm,

Excision of a breast mass identified by ultrasound to be an abscess is not necessary.

Incisional biopsy is performed in patients with a concern for associated malignancy; overall, fewer than 5% of patients with a breast abscess have an associated malignancy.

Patients should undergo repeat imaging approximately 6 weeks after clinical resolution of the infection.

If there is a residual noninflammatory mass, a core biopsy should be performed to evaluate for malignancy.

If the cellulitis and associated breast mass do not improve with antibiotics, malignancy should be suspected and a biopsy should be performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A 60-year-old, postmenopausal woman has left breast microcalcifications noted on her yearly screening mammogram. She has no family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Stereotactic core needle biopsy reveals atypical ductal hyperplasia. Which of the following is the next most appropriate step?

A

Needle located excisional biopsy is indicated to exclude invasive carcinoma

If, after excisional biopsy, there is no additional DCIS or invasive cancer that requires treatment, the patient may consider future chemoprevention with tamoxifen.

Although the patient will continue to need annual mammography for screening purposes, a needle-localized excisional biopsy for definitive diagnosis is indicated first.

30
Q

Stereotactic biopsy is used for

A

diagnosis of nonpalpable masses or microcalcifications noted on mammography.

31
Q

Mondor disease

A

superficial thrombophlebitis of the subcutaneous veins.

painless, cord-like induration. The cause of Mondor disease is unknown, although it is most commonly associated with trauma. The disease is easily diagnosed by physical examination.

Treatment is reassurance, because this disease is self-limiting.

Although the most common site is the anterolateral thoracoabdominal wall, including the breast, other sites include the antecubital fossa, the penis, and the posterior cervical region

More aggressive treatment is required only for symptoms, which are generally focused on symptom relief rather than resolution of the thrombosis.

32
Q

recommended practice is to treat N1mi disease as

A

The Joint Commission defined micrometastasis as a cluster of cancer cells 0.2–2.0 mm in size, with the designation of N1mi.

” It defined single tumor cells or clusters 0.2 mm or smaller as “isolated tumor cells,” with the designation of N0(i+). What these findings mean clinically is still being fully determined.”

Although controversial, the recommended practice is to treat N1mi disease as lymph node positive disease requiring hormonal chemotherapy.

33
Q

sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) in DCIS on core needle biopsy

A

Routine sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) not recommended in all patients with DCIS

selective use of SLNB in patients with DCIS on core needle biopsy is recommended based on predictors of an invasive component.

Strong predictors include the presence of a
palpable mass,
detection of microinvasion on core needle biopsy,
lesion size at least 2 cm on imaging (other q states 5cm).
high nuclear grade
associated with microinvasion on biopsy
presence of comedonecrosis,

or

treated with mastectomy - disrupted lympatics

34
Q

A 47-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of an 8-cm mass occupying the majority of the right breast. Although there is no skin breakdown, the breast is blue at the apex of the mass, and the nipple is enlarged and excoriated. No palpable adenopathy is present in the axilla. Core biopsy reveals mixed epithelial stromal proliferation. Which of the following is the next step in her management?

A

Phyllodes tumors - just excise with clear (1cm) margin unless just too damn big

simple mastectomy

surgical excision with a clear margin, regardless of tumor grade

Axillary dissection is not indicated because of the low incidence of lymph node involvement.

35
Q

incidence of lymphedema in patients undergoing sentinel lymph node biopsy was

A

6.9%

36
Q

where anatomically is the risk of developing Lymphedema with SLNB

A

specially if the sentinel node is located at the level of the axillary vein

or if combined with axillary radiotherapy.

Weight loss is shown to reduce upper-extremity lymphedema. Some studies have initiated therapy as early as 48 hours after surgery.

37
Q

treated conservatively lymphedema

A

physical therapy, manual drainage, or pneumatic pump, yield greater volume reduction than compression garments or limb elevation.

low-level laser therapy increases the rate of lymph vessel pumping and promotes lymph vessel regeneration, reduces pain, and softens fibrous tissue and surgical scarring,

Exercise has been shown to significantly reduce severity of symptoms.

38
Q

Any discharge not considered to be galactorrhea is caused by what DDX

A

a ductal condition, such as ductal ectasia, fibrocystic breast changes, intraductal papilloma, intraductal carcinoma, and invasive ductal carcinoma (usually papillary type).

39
Q

Ductal ectasia is characterized by

A

dilatation of the major ducts along with inflammation and fibrosis around the ducts.

Discharge is usually dark green or black and guaiac negative.

Surgical therapy is not necessary in women with classic multiduct nonbloody green–black discharge.

If only 1 duct is involved, therapy is usually excision to help diagnose the etiology.

40
Q

Fibrocystic disease typically results in

A

serous or light-green multiduct discharge.

cyclic breast pain and premenstrual breast lumpiness, and exam reveals a diffuse fine nodularity.

Mammography and ultrasound are confirmatory and show dense breast tissue with nodularity and microcyst formation.

41
Q

The most common cause of bloody uniductal discharge is

A

intraductal papilloma - including for 75 yo

42
Q

intraductal papilloma findings, w/u, tx

A

Discharge is usually spontaneous but can be elicited by palpation and comes from a single duct orifice.

Mammography is typically negative, and ultrasound may show a dilated duct with an intraluminal lesion.

Most intraductal papillomas occur near the areolar edge, and galactography is recommended to identify more-peripheral lesions.

Galactography involves cannulation of the duct orifice and injection of radiopaque dye; papillomas are seen as intraluminal filling defects.

Treatment of intraductal papilloma is duct excision.

43
Q

breast cancer associated with nipple discharge

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ and papillary carcinoma cause most cancer-associated nipple discharges.

Intraductal and invasive ductal carcinoma only rarely associated with nipple discharge in the absence of an abnormal mammogram or palpable mass.

Occasionally, bloody discharge is present in Paget disease—a scaly, raw, vesicular, or ulcerated lesion that begins on the nipple and spreads to the areola.

Lobular carcinoma in situ and phyllodes tumors are not associated with nipple discharge.

44
Q

Hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome refers to

A

an increased risk of breast and ovarian cancer in people who have inherited a deleterious mutation of the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes.

These genes confer a 10-fold relative risk of these cancers and increase risk more than any other factor. Female BRCA1 carriers have a lifetime risk of developing breast cancer and ovarian/fallopian tube cancers of approximately 40–80% and 26–46%, respectively. For BRCA2 mutation carriers the risk of developing breast and ovarian/fallopian tube cancers are 30–60% and 10–20%, respectively.
Because the same specific BRCA mutation tends to be conserved within a given BRCA family, it is most efficient to test an affected patient (“the index relative”) to determine whether a BRCA mutation exists and, if a mutation is found, to then test other family members for that same mutation. The National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) has established guidelines to determine which patients should undergo BRCA 1/2 mutation testing. These guidelines are detailed, but include 4 main categories:
1. People from families with known deleterious BRCA1/2 mutations
2. People with a personal history of cancer and at least 1 of several other risk factors, for example, diagnosis before age 45, Ashkenazi Jewish heritage (1 in 40 Ashkenazi women are BRCA mutation carriers), and 2 breast cancers when the first was diagnosed before age 50 (after age 50, such events are usually sporadic and not an indication for testing)
3. People with certain cancers (e.g., male breast cancer, ovarian/fallopian tube cancers)
4. Certain high-risk family histories.

45
Q

A 55-year-old woman presents to the office with erythema of the right breast. After a 2-week course of oral antibiotics, the erythema is still present, and right breast mammography reveals diffusely increased density. Ultrasonography shows no fluid component. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

A

Inflammatory breast cancer is not common, comprising approximately 1–5% of all breast cancers.

Diagnostic evaluation with mammogram and ultrasound should be performed early, whether or not there is a palpable breast mass or axillary adenopathy.

If there is a palpable mass on exam or a radiographic abnormality, an incisional biopsy of the mass with attached/involved skin should be performed.

If ultrasound suggests an abscess, drainage should occur, and the patient should be placed on antibiotics.

If no abscess is seen, but skin erythema is subtle, a percutaneous core biopsy of the underlying lesion should be performed.

The 5-year survival for inflammatory breast cancer patients is approximately 40%; further, 20–35% of patients will have distant metastases at the time of presentation, and 60–85% will have nodal metastases.

MRI in the initial workup is neither necessary nor recommended.

46
Q

Atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH)

A

4-fold increased lifetime risk of breast cancer.

chemoprevention is recommended to decrease the risk of breast cancer for women found to have ADH or ALH.

The risk of breast cancer is associated with the number of foci of atypia; breast cancer risk increases with multifocal atypia.

47
Q

atypical lobular hyperplasia (ALH)

A

4-fold increased lifetime risk of breast cancer

chemoprevention is recommended to decrease the risk of breast cancer for women found to have ADH or ALH

48
Q

Flat epithelial atypia (FEA)

A

recommended for surgical excisional biopsy to rule out malignancy

not an indication for chemoprevention.

49
Q

papillomas with atypia

A

recommended for surgical excisional biopsy to rule out malignancy

have the highest risk of concurrent malignancy identified on excision, with reported rates greater than 20%.

50
Q

Sclerosing adenosi

A

benign finding that does not require surgical excision unless the radiologic and pathologic findings are discordant.

51
Q

Intraductal papilloma

A

is the most common cause of pathologic nipple discharge

should be surgically excised to rule out concomitant malignancy.

52
Q

B-IRADS

A
0 insuf imaging - reimage
1 benign normal f/u
2 beign nomral f/u
3 probably benign close f/u
4 suspicious - bx
5 highly suspicious take action
6 known cancer
53
Q

MRI to evaluate breast is indicated when

A

patients with nodal disease and occult primary cancers,

multifocal or multicentric tumors,

difficult primaries, such as invasive lobular carcinoma (NOT LCIS)

o assess response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy in selected patients.

in addition to mammography for patients at very high risk for breast cancer, especially those with gene mutations such as BRCA1 and 2, but it is not indicated to take the place of screening mammography.

further delineate the extent of a primary tumor and to identify unsuspected, occult cancers in the contralateral breast.

Presentation with clinically involved axillary nodes without any identifiable primary

54
Q

Breast abscesses smaller than what size can be treated successfully with

A

5cm

ultrasound localization with repeated aspirations as required, leading to improved cosmesis at the drainage site.

ultrasound can facilitate complete drainage of abscesses, including loculations.

A thick abscess rind associated with septa may indicate the need for surgical drainage in patients with larger abscesses.

55
Q

idiopathic granulomatous mastitis

A

is a rare condition characterized histologically by noncaseating granulomas centered on lobules.

can be associated with fistulas and abscesses.

treated with a variety of therapies, including steroids, which may treat an underlying autoimmune cause.

Aggressive surgical management is rarely required.

Regardless of treatment, idiopathic granulomatous mastitis often “burns out” spontaneously in 6–12 months.

biopsy, and close observation are critical to rule out inflammatory breast cancer.

56
Q

periductal mastitis,

A

can be associated with fistulas and abscesses.

associated with smoking, occurs in younger women, and is often associated with recent pregnancy.

associated with
oral contraceptives previously,
white,

classic treatment
surgical drainage and antibiotics.

biopsy, and close observation are critical to rule out inflammatory breast cancer.

57
Q

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is most commonly detected as

A

suspicious microcalcifications on routine screening mammography in an asymptomatic woman.

58
Q

newly diagnosed DCIS for breast conservation treatment what is post op treatment

A

radiation
and
tamoxifen

59
Q

do you excise isolated lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) when found on core needle biopsy (CNB)

A

not for incidental finding on margin

depends on multiple factors, 
imaging indication,
imaging findings, 
extent of LCIS on CNB, 
the presence of concurrent atypical ductal hyperplasia on CNB.
60
Q

A proposed treatment algorithm allows for close follow-up of patients with calcifications on routine mammography and isolated LCIS on CNB that meet the following criteria:

A

(1) normal-risk patient undergoing routine screening mammography found to have calcifications,
(2) fewer than 4 foci of LCIS on CNB,
and
(3) no other high-risk lesion present.

61
Q

adjuvant for LCIS

A

Tamoxifen and raloxifene are equally effective in reducing this risk.

62
Q

Immunohistochemical staining for LCIS vs DCIS

A

E-cadherin can be used to differentiate ductal versus lobular carcinoma in situ, because membranous staining is seen in most DCIS, and negative staining is seen in lobular neoplasia.
Patients with a history of LCIS have a 4- to 10-fold increased risk of subsequent invasive disease.

63
Q

The 2 most common agents used to identify sentinel nodes are

A

isosulfan blue and technetium-labeled sulfur colloid.

used independently or in combination.

64
Q

Isosulfan blue
when should be injected
should pregenent pt receive

A

iinjected into the breast 5–10 minutes before making the axillary incision.

category “C” (possible teratogen) by the US Food and Drug Administration and, therefore, should not be used for sentinel node biopsy in pregnant patients.

65
Q

Technetium-labeled sulfur colloid
when should be injected
should pregenent pt receive

A

injected on the day before surgery or as little as 20 minutes before surgery, depending on nuclear medicine facilities available at the institution.

The potential radiation dose to the fetus appears to be minimal, and the authors believe the procedure should be safe.

66
Q

Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS

A

marker for increased risk of breast cancer.

8-fold increased risk of lifetime development of breast cancer,

risk is for both breasts, regardless of which side the LCIS was identified.

67
Q

classic LCIS should it be excised

A

LCIS is often an incidental finding. Excisional biopsy to rule out a coexistent malignancy is recommended. Negative margins are not required at the time of surgical excision of classic LCIS

Sentinel node biopsy for nodal staging is not required at the time of surgical excision of LCIS and is reserved for cases with invasive disease.

Adjuvant radiation is not required for classic or pleomorphic LCIS.

Both classic and pleomorphic LCIS are associated with invasive lobular carcinoma, although invasive ductal carcinomas also occur in these patients.

68
Q

Pleomorphic LCIS should it be excised

A

shows a more aggressive nature based on a higher proliferative index and immunohistochemical markers.

Excisional biopsy to rule out a coexistent malignancy is recommended.

Negative margins ARE required at the time of surgical excision of pleomorphic LCIS, which behaves more like ductal carcinoma in situ.

Sentinel node biopsy for nodal staging is not required at the time of surgical excision of LCIS and is reserved for cases with invasive disease.

Adjuvant radiation is not required for classic or pleomorphic LCIS.

Both classic and pleomorphic LCIS are associated with invasive lobular carcinoma, although invasive ductal carcinomas also occur in these patients.

69
Q

Seborrheic keratoses

A

the most common benign skin tumor in older people.

most common on the face, neck, and back, and like melanoma, are usually related to sun exposure.

can spontaneously regress, although this event is rare and usually associated with pregnancy, inflammatory skin conditions, and malignancy.

almost never occur before the age of 30 and are essentially never found on the mucosa, palms, or soles.

They can be clinically distinguished from melanoma by their raised, stuck-on appearance and their “greasy” or “waxy” texture. often oval and slightly raised.

they are most often treated with ablative techniques such as cryotherapy, laser, and electrodessication.

have an apparent familial predisposition with a postulated autosomal dominant inheritance with incomplete penetrance.

70
Q

Lymph node involvement is rare in adult soft tissue sarcoma, but it is somewhat more frequent in certain subtypes, including

A

high-grade rhabdomyosarcoma,
synovial cell sarcoma,
epithelioid sarcoma.

Sentinel lymph node biopsy may be indicated in these subtypes