Smith LAIM Text QODs

Question 1

Delphiniums are second in importance only to locoweed as a source of economic loss due to plant toxicities in range animals of the United States. Select the correct toxic principle contained within the plant, mechanism of action and clinical signs seen in cattle that ingest the plant from the list below:
A. Pyrrolizidine alkaloid; inhibition of hepatocellular mitosis; weight loss, anorexia, diarrhoea, photosensitisation.
B. 3-methyl-indole; disruption of clara cell metabolism; acute respiratory distress and death.
C. Diterpenoid alkaloid; neuromuscular blockade via binding to nicotinic receptors; staggering, exciteability, basewide stance, bloat, death.
D. Ergot alkaloid; vasoconstriction; increased reproductive loss, necrosis of ears, lameness, reduced weight gain.

Answer 1

C. Diterpenoid alkaloid; neuromuscular blockade via binding to nicotinic receptors; staggering, exciteability, basewide stance, bloat, death.

Question 2

Cyanogenic glycosides are contained within many plants that may be consumed by animals e.g. cherry trees, crabapples, eucalyptus, bracken fern. Which option below is true regarding cyanide toxicity in livestock?
A. Horses and pigs are more susceptible to cyanide toxicity than ruminants.
B. Chronic cyanide ingestion in Sorghum grass by pregnant horses and cattle can result in the birth of foals and calves with arthrogryposis.
C. Drying as hay or silage increased the cyanogenic potential of Bahai, Bermuda and Johnson grass.
D. Cyanotic membranes and chocolate brown blood are the hallmarks of cyanide toxicity.

Answer 2

B. Chronic cyanide ingestion in Sorghum grass by pregnant horses and cattle can result in the birth of foals and calves with arthrogryposis.

Question 3

Many common pasture and crop plants fed routinely to cattle are capable of accumulating toxic levels of nitrates in the correct environmental conditions. Which of the following statements is true regarding nitrate toxicty?
A. Nitrites are converted to nitrates and ammonia in the rumen.
B. Excessive nitrate intake by pregnant mares can result in congenital hyperthyroidism in their offspring.
C. In ruminants, plants containing more than 5% nitrates (measured as KNO3) dry weight may be lethal. Sublethal effects are seen from feed containing 2.5% to 4.5% nitrates.
D. Treatment of nitrate toxicity includes removal from offending pasture, administration of cold water, vinegar and mineral oil via nasogastric tube and intravenous methylene blue.

Answer 3

D. Treatment of nitrate toxicity includes removal from offending pasture, administration of cold water, vinegar and mineral oil via nasogastric tube and intravenous methylene blue.

Question 4

Select the option below in which the neurotoxic plant is correctly matched with its toxic principle and the disease induced by its ingestion.
A. Yellow star thistle; sesquiterpene lactone; chewing disease.
B. Perenial ryegrass; lolitrem B; bilateral stringhalt.
C. Locoweed; ptaquiloside; grass staggers.
D. False dandelion; phenytoin; epilepsy.

Answer 4

A. Yellow star thistle; sesquiterpene lactone; chewing disease.

Question 5

Which of the following plants is NOT associated with cardiac and skeletal muscle pathology in large animals?
A. White snakeroot (Eupatorium rugosum)
B. Burrow weed (Isocoma pluriflora)
C. Coffee senna (Senna occidentalis)
D. Broomweed (Gutierrezia sarothrae)

Answer 5

D. Broomweed (Gutierrezia sarothrae)

Question 6

The major liver fluke infecting ruminants in the USA is Fasciola hepatica. What degree of fluke burden is proposed to result in i) economic losses in infected herds, and ii) clinical disease in individual cattle?
A. 10-20 flukes/animal; >50 flukes/animal.
B. 10-50 flukes/animal; >100 flukes/animal.
C. >100 flukes/animal; >500 flukes/animal.
D. >40 flukes/animal; >200 flukes/animal.

Answer 6

D. >40 flukes/animal; >200 flukes/animal.

Question 7

With regard to diagnostic tests for liver disease which of the following options is true?
A. An elevated SDH concentration is indicative of cholestasis.
B. AST is a liver specific enzyme.
C. Elevated direct (conjugated) bilirubin which constitutes >25% total bilirubin is a sensitive marker of cholestatic disease.
D. Bilirubinaemia is indicated by brown bubbles on the top of a urine sample after shaking.

Answer 7

C. Elevated direct (conjugated) bilirubin which constitutes >25% total bilirubin is a sensitive marker of cholestatic disease.

Question 8

Which bacteria is responsible for causing Tyzzers Disease in foals?
A. Clostridium piliforme.
B. Echinococcus granulosus.
C. Bacillus hepatica.
D. Rhodococcus equisimillus.

Answer 8

A. Clostridium piliforme.

Question 9

Several supplements are recommended for treatment of liver disease in dogs and humans. Which of the following options contains the correct pairing of a supplement/medication and its proposed mechanism of action?
A. Milk thistle; anti-fibrotic.
B. Acetylcystine; anti-oxidant, glutathione donor.
C. S-Adenosylmethionine; anti-inflammatory.
D. Pentoxyfylline; lyses biliary crystals.

Answer 9

B. Acetylcystine; anti-oxidant, glutathione donor.

Question 10

Which of the following bacteria are responsible for causing Black Disease in ruminants?
A. Clostridium perfringens type A.
B. Clostridium sordhelli.
C. Clostridium novyi type D.
D. Clostridium novyi type B.

Answer 10

D. Clostridium novyi type B.

Question 11

What is the most important management practice to employ in terms of prevention of Bacillary Haemoglobinuria in a cattle herd?
A. Restrict access to bracken fern.
B. Feed grain with 20ppm copper.
C. Control liver flukes.
D. Feed grain with 200ppm copper.

Answer 11

C. Control liver flukes.

Question 12

What is the mechanism by which addition of ammonium chloride to the feed prevents urolithiasis in goats?
A. Decreases urine pH.
B. Encourages increased water intake.
C. Increases urine pH.
D. Increases urea production in the rumen.

Answer 12

A. Decreases urine pH.

Question 13

Liver abscesses are found commonly in feedlot cattle at slaughter. What is the bacteria most frequently cultured from liver abscesses in cattle and what is its main virulence factor?
A. Trueperella pyogenes; haemolysin.
B. Fusobacterium necrophorum; leukotoxin.
C. Bacteroides fragilis; phospholipase C.
D. Clostridium difficile; exotoxin.

Answer 13

B. Fusobacterium necrophorum; leukotoxin.

Question 14

Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of gastric ulcer disease in adult horses?
A. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole is recommended in treatment of EGGD.
B. Ranitidine is the treatment of choice for ESGD.
C. Omeprazole has equal efficacy in treatment of EGSD and EGGD.
D. Sucralfate is recommended in addition to omeprazole in initial treatment of EGGD.

Answer 14

D. Sucralfate is recommended in addition to omeprazole in initial treatment of EGGD.

Question 15

What are the three phenotypic characteristics of horses and ponies with Equine Metabolic Syndrome?
A. Regional adiposity; history of laminitis; resting hyperglycaemia.
B. Obesity; insulin resistance; abnormal hair coat.
C. Generalised obesity or regional adiposity; insulin resistance; a predisposition towards laminitis.
D. Cresty neck score >3; BCS >6/9; familial history of laminitis.

Answer 15

C. Generalised obesity or regional adiposity; insulin resistance; a predisposition towards laminitis.

Question 16

Which of the following horses is least likely to develop anhydrosis in Summer?
A. A 15 year old Morgan broodmare that lives in Nova Scotia.
B. A 6 year old Thoroughbred gelding used for eventing that lives in northern Queensland.
C. A 10 year old Quarter Horse mare used for barrel racing that has just moved to Florida.
D. A 12 year old Warmblood mare whose sire had anhydrosis that lives in Alabama.

Answer 16

A. 15 year old Morgan broodmare that lives in Nova Scotia.

Question 17

Which of the following diets would be likely to cause Big Head (aka nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism in a horse?)
A. A diet of oats and lucerne hay.
B. A diet of solely kikuyu grass.
C. A diet of mare and foal pellets and bermuda grass hay.
D. A diet of sweet feed, Senior pellets, rye grass and timothy hay.

Answer 17

B. A diet of solely kikuyu grass.

Question 18

A miniature pony presents to you for treatment of retained foetal membranes. She is icteric and anorectic. You are concerned about metabolic disease in this pony so you run some bloodwork. Which of the following correctly matches a potential serologic abnormality and diagnosis in this pony?
A. Ketosis; serum beta-hydroxybutyrate concentration 337umol/L.
B. Hepatic lipidosis; serum triglyceride concentration 283mg/dL, bile acid concentration 28mg/dL.
C. Hyperlipaemia; serum triglyceride concentration 575mg/dL, serum clear.
D. Hyperlipidaemia; serum tryglyceride concentration 480mg/dL, serum clear.

Answer 18

D. Hyperlipidaemia; serum tryglyceride concentration 480mg/dL, serum clear.

Question 19

Hypokalaemic myopathy can occur in post-partum dairy cattle being treated for ketosis as a consequence of treatment. Which of the following medications can induce hypokalaemia in ketotic cattle?
A. Propylene glycol.
B. Isofluprednone acetate.
C. Dexamethasone.
D. Triamcinolone acetonide.

Answer 19

B. Isofluprednone acetate.

Question 20

A number of inherited immunodeficiency disorders have been reported in horses. Which of the following options correctly matches the disorder to the breed in which it is reported?
A. X-linked IgM deficiency; Fell Pony foals.
B. Combined variable immunodeficiency; Quarter Horse and Arabian yearlings.
C. Foal immunodeficiency syndrome; Caspian foals.
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency; Arabian foals.

Answer 20

D. Severe combined immunodeficiency; Arabian foals.

Question 21

Which of the following antibiotics/antibiotic combinations are recommended for treatment of macrolide-resistant Rhodococcus equi pneumonia in foals?
A. Doxycycline and rifampin.
B. Enrofloxacin.
C. Ceftiofur.
D. Clindamycin and rifampin.

Answer 21

A. Doxycycline and rifampin.

Question 22

Mycoplasma bovis is capable of causing multiple disease syndromes in cattle. Which of the following is not caused by Mycoplasma infection?
A. Mastitis.
B. Abomasitis.
C. Tenosynovitis.
D. Otitis.

Answer 22

B. Abomasitis.

Question 23

Which of the following viruses produces benign, locally invasive tumours of the nasal turbinates in sheep that eventually lead to facial distortion, dyspnoea and death?
A. Ovine Nasal Sarcoma Virus.
B. Ovine Papilloma Virus.
C. Oestrus Ovis Virus.
D. Ovine Adenocarcinoma Virus.

Answer 23

D. Ovine Adenocarcinoma Virus.

Question 24

Infection of pregnant cattle with Bovine Virus Diarrhoea Virus at which stage of gestation results in production of persistently infected calves?
A. Days 15-35.
B. Days 40-100.
C. Days 100-150.
D. Days 150-200.

Answer 24

B. Days 40-100.

Question 25

What is the most common cause of sinusitis in cattle?
A. Dehorning.
B. Upper respiratory tract viral infection.
C. Sinus cysts.
D. Oestrus ovis infection.

Answer 25

A. Dehorning.

Question 26

Which of the following is the most common cardiac tumour of cattle?
A. Adenocarcinoma.
B. Haemangiosarcoma.
C. Lymphoma.
D. Squamous cell carcinoma.

Answer 26

C. Lymphoma.

Question 27

Which of the following bacteria are most commonly cultured from the urine of cattle with pyelonephritis?
A. Coryebacterium renale and Escherichia coli.
B. Streptococcus bovis and Escherichia coli.
C. Staphylococcus aureus and Klebsiella hypopnuemoniae.
D. Corynebacterium renale and Streptococcus bovis.

Answer 27

A. Coryebacterium renale and Escherichia coli.

Question 28

Post mortem findings from a cow that died from respiratory disease include fibrinopurulent pleuropneumonia with infarcts and coagulative necrosis in the cranioventral lungs lobes. Which of the following organisms could cause these lesions?
A. Histophilus somni.
B. Mannheimia haemolytica.
C. Bovine Herpesvirus-1.
D. Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus.

Answer 28

B. Mannheimia haemolytica.

Question 29

Which of the following test findings are most consistent with a diagnosis of lungworm (Dictycaulus viviparus) infection in cattle?
A. Operculate eggs on McMasters flotation of faeces
B. Operculate eggs on Baerrman flotation of faeces.
C. Pointed larvae on McMasters floation of faeces.
D. Pointed larvae on Baerrman flotation of faeces.

Answer 29

D. Pointed larvae on Baerrman flotation of faeces.

Question 30

Which of the following diseases in NOT caused by infection with a prion?
A. Aujesky Disease.
B. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy.
C. Scrapie.
D. Chronic wasting disease of deer.

Answer 30

A. Aujesky Disease.

Question 31

Several cows in a herd have developed severe anaemia of acute onset. One of the cows is sacrificed and a post mortem examination performed. Findings include tissue pallor, icterus, hepatomegally, splenomegally and dark yellow urine in the bladder. Which of the following infectious organisms is responsible for the anaemia in this cow?
A. Babesia bigemina.
B. Babesia bovis.
C. Anaplasma marginale.
D. Clostridium haemolytica.

Answer 31

C. Anaplasma marginale.

Question 32

Select the option in which the disease, aetiologic agent and vector are correctly matched below.
A. Johnes Disease, Mycoplasma pseudotuberculosis, Culex apicallis.
B. Black disease, Clostridium novyi type B, Fasciola hepatica.
C. Potomac Horse Fever, Risticia risticii, Ixodes scapularis.
D. Piroplasmosis, Babesia caballi, Ixodes pacificus.

Answer 32

D. Piroplasmosis, Babesia caballi, Ixodes pacificus.

Question 33

What is the most important first step in treating pregnancy toxaemia in ewes and does?
A. Oral propylene glycol.
B. IV balanced electrolyte solutions.
C. Removal of the kids/lambs via induction of parturition of caesarian section.
D. IV 10-50% glucose.

Answer 33

C. Removal of the kids/lambs via induction of parturition of caesarian section.

Question 34

Pergolide is the drug of choice for treatment of Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction in horses. What is its mechanism of action?
A. Dopamine antagonist.
B. Dopamine agonist.
C. Serotonin antagonist.
D. Serotonin agonist.

Answer 34

B. Dopamine agonist.

Question 35

Which breed of cattle bellow is prone to both allergic rhinitis ('Epizootic Nasal Granuloma') and an allergic reaction to their own milk proteins on drying off?
A. Guernsey.
B. Holstein-Friesian.
C. Brown Swiss.
D. Zebu.

Answer 35

A. Guernsey.

Question 36

Several inherited muscle disorders exist in horses. Select the option below in which the disease, mode of inheritance and gene involved are correctly matched.
A. Polysaccaride Storage Myopathy, autosomal recessive, GBE1.
B. Glycogen Branching Enzyme Deficiency, autosomal recessive, GYS1.
C. Hyperkalaemic Periodic Paralysis, autosomal dominant, SCS3.
D. Malignant hyperthermia, autosomal dominant, RYR1.

Answer 36

D. Malignant hyperthermia, autosomal dominant, RYR1.

Question 37

You are presented with a 7yo Lipizzaner mare who was found standing stock still in the paddock this morning, refusing to move, with generalised muscle fasiculations. On physical examination her temperature is 104.5F (40.3C), heart rate is 52 beats per minute and respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute. You note petechial haemorrhages in her oral and nasal mucosa and pitting oedema of all four limbs which is painful on palpation. Which of the following lists contain potential differential diagnoses for this mare?
A. Purpura haemorrhagica, Equine Viral Arteritis, Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis.
B. Equine Infectious Anaemia, Purpura haemorrhagica, Equine Piroplasmosis.
C. Bluetongue, Mucosal Disease, Equine Vasculitis Virus.
D. Equine Viral Arteritis, Hendra Virus infection, Babesiosis.

Answer 37

A. Purpura haemorrhagica, Equine Viral Arteritis, Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis.

Question 38

Which of the following haematologic abnormalities is most likely to be identified in cattle with Bovine Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (BLAD)?
A.	Lymphocytosis.
B.	Lymphopaenia.
C.	Neutropaenia.
D.	Neutrophilia.

Answer 38

D. Neutrophilia.

Question 39

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency is an immune disorder of Arabian foals, in which affected foals lack functional B and T lymphocytes and thus cannot mount an adaptive immune response against invading microorganisms. Select the correct genetic mutation and mode of inheritance associated with SCID.
A. Autosomal recessive; frameshift mutation in the gene encoding the catalytic subunit of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PKcs).
B. Autosomal dominant; frameshift mutation in the gene encoding the catalytic subunit of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PKcs).
C. Autosomal recessive; single nucleotide polymorphism in the sodium/myoinositol cotransporter gene (SLC5A3) resulting in an amino acid substitution.
D. Autosomal dominant; single nucleotide polymorphism in the sodium/myoinositol cotransporter gene (SLC5A3) resulting in an amino acid substitution.

Answer 39

A. Autosomal recessive; frameshift mutation in the gene encoding the catalytic subunit of DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PKcs).

Question 40

Bovine Lymphoma is often associated with infection with Bovine Leukaemia Virus (BLV), however sporadic forms also occur. In which of the following organs is lymphoma typically associated with BLV? 
A. Thymus.
B. Pancreas.
C. Abomasum.
D. Skin.

Answer 40

C. Abomasum.

Question 41

A 5yo Quarter Horse mare presented with history of recurrent bouts of pneumonia and sinusitis and B cell depletion. Which of the following immune disorders is mostly likely to be causing this mare’s signs?
A. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency.
B. Combined Variable Immunodeficiency.
C. Foal Immunodeficiency Syndrome.
D. Selective IgM deficiency.

Answer 41

B. Combined Variable Immunodeficiency.

Question 42

A 2 day old calf presents to you with suspected Failure of Passive Transfer. You make this presumptive diagnosis on the basis of findings of weakness, umbilical stump infection and a serum total protein concentration of 4.1g/dL. When advising the farmer on colostrum management to prevent this problem in the remainder of his herd, what volume of colostrum should you tell him to give his calves within the first few hours of life and what immunoglobulin should the colostrum be richest in? 
A. 4L; IgG1.
B. 2L; IgG2.
C. 6L; IgM.
D. 3L; IgA.

Answer 42

A. 4L; IgG1.

Question 43

A Thoroughbred racehorse presents to you for evaluation of fever, tachypnoea, lethargy, dyspnoea and nasal discharge. You diagnose her with pneumonia on the basis of physical examination, thoracic ultrasound, thoracic radiograph and haematology results. You perform a transtracheal wash and submit the fluid obtained for bacterial culture and susceptibility. Which of the following statements is true regarding the likely culture results?
A. Anaerobic culture will be negative.
B. There is a 30% chance anaerobic culture will be positive.
C. There is an 80% chance that Gram negative bacteria will not be grown.
D. There is a 50% chance Pseudomonas will be grown.

Answer 43

B. There is a 30% chance anaerobic culture will be positive.

Question 44

Oestrus ovis is a parasite that can cause significant nasal pathology in small ruminants. Which of the following statements are true regarding O. ovis infection?
A. Goats are more susceptible to infection than sheep.
B. Adult parasites are most active during Winter and Autumn.
C. The pathogenic stage of the parasite in the adult stage.
D. O. ovis is a zoonotic agent which may cause conjunctival infection in humans.

Answer 44

D. O. ovis is a zoonotic agent which may cause conjunctival infection in humans.

Question 45

A 10yo AQH gelding presents to your clinic for investigation of unilateral epistaxis. You perform upper respiratory tract endoscopy and identify a proliferative mass in the left nasal passage. Histopathologic examination of a core biopsy from the mass reveals thin-walled, septate, irregularly branched hyphae surrounded by eosinophils and occasional neutrophils. What is the likely aetiologic agent in this case?
A. Pseudallescheria boydii.
B. Cryptococcus neoformans.
C. Candida albicans.
D. Conidiobolus coronatus.

Answer 45

D. Conidiobolus coronatus.

Question 46

A 15 month old Angus steer from a feedlot presents to your hospital for investigation of weight loss. On physical examination you note a fetid odour to the breath, swelling around the larynx, a wet painful cough elicited when the larynx is palpated and hypersalivation. Which bacteria most likely to be is responsible for the condition described here? 
A. Mycobacterium bovis.
B. Actinomyces bovis.
C. Fusobacterium necrophorum.
D. Bacteroides fragillis.

Answer 46

C. Fusobacterium necrophorum.

Question 47

An outbreak of Strangles (Strep. equi ss equi infection) occurs at a local riding school. None of the horses on the property have been previously vaccinated. You examine a 17yo Danish Warmblood stallion who is housed next to a mare with draining lymph nodes abscesses and was reportedly fine yesterday, but today has an elevated temperature (103F; 39.4C), is lethargic and only ate one quarter of his breakfast. What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this stallion?
A. 3-5 days procaine penicillin IM, keep in current stable.
B. 3-5 days procaine penicillin IM, move to quarantine stable away from other horses.
C. Lavage both guttural pouches with crystalline penicillin daily for 3 days.
D. Lavage both guttural pouches with saline every 48h for 3 treatments.

Answer 47

B. 3-5 days procaine penicillin IM, move to quarantine stable away from other horses.

Question 48

A 2 week old Limousin calf presents for evaluation of respiratory distress and exercise intolerance. She was born following a dystocia and appeared normal for her first week of life. For the past week the owners have observed an increased respiratory rate and effort whenever she runs around the paddock and report an abnormal loud noise to be present on inspiration during these episodes. They tried treating her with dexamethasone and ceftiofur and there was no improvement and today got home to find her collapsed. You find her in lateral recumbency with marked dyspnoea and cyanosis and perform a tracheostomy, following which there is no improvement so you euthanise her. What is the most likely post-mortem diagnosis for this calf?
A. Tracheal collapse.
B. White muscle disease.
C. Necrotic laryngitis.
D. Epiglottic cyst.

Answer 48

A. Tracheal collapse.

Question 49

Which of the following statements is true with regards to Inflammatory Airway Disease in young horses?
A. BALF eosinophilia is most commonly identified in horses >5 years old.
B. BALF neutrophilia is most commonly identified in horses

Answer 49

D. Eosinophilic IAD is less common than neutrophilic IAD and is more often related to respirable dust exposure than to internal parasitism.

Question 50

A group of young dairy cattle present with fever, coughing, nasal and ocular discharge and hyperaemia of the nasal planum. What infectious agent is most likely to be responsible for this outbreak of respiratory disease?
A. Bovine Herpesvirus-1.
B. Pasteurella multocida.
C. Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus.
D. Bovine Viral Diarrhoea Virus.

Answer 50

A. Bovine Herpesvirus-1.

Question 51

A mare and foal are caught in a bushfire which takes 48 hours to control. You are the first vet on the scene after Emergency Services clear a path to their property. You examine the mare who has widespread, superficial burns to the skin of her rump and neck but appears to be systemically stable. While you are examining the mare the foal collapses on the ground and develops marked tachypnoea with a nostril flare and cyanotic mucous membranes. What is most likely occurring in the foal’s lungs at this time?
A. Necrosis of type I pneumocytes and proliferation of type II pneumocytes.
B. Proliferation of fibroblasts and airway fibrosis.
C. Necrosis of type II pneumocytes and proliferation of type I pneumocytes.
D. Inhibition of pulmonary J receptors.

Answer 51

A. Necrosis of type I pneumocytes and proliferation of type II pneumocytes.

Question 52

16. An outbreak of acute respiratory distress syndrome is reported in a group of 20 pasture-fed cattle. One cow is sacrificed for post-mortem examination which reveals lungs which are heavy and firm and fail to collapse on opening the thorax. Histologic findings include alveolar hyaline membrane formation and fibrin deposition, alveolar and interstitial oedema and type II pneumocyte proliferation. Which aetiologic agent and active ingredient could be responsible for these findings that are correctly paired below?
A. Mouldy sweet potato; L-tryptophan.
B. Perilla mint; 4-ipomeanol.
C. Alfalfa; 3-methyl-indole.
D. Mouldy sweet corn; fusarium solanii.

Answer 52

C. Alfalfa; 3-methyl-indole.

Question 53

Which of the following findings is diagnostic of Equine Metabolic Syndrome?
A. A baseline blood glucose concentration >175mg/dL.
B. An insulin concentration >100iu/ul 45 minutes post IV administration of glucose and insulin.
C. A glucose nadir 45 minutes post IV administration of glucose and insulin.
D. A baseline insulin concentration

Answer 53

B. An insulin concentration >100iu/ul 45 minutes post IV administration of glucose and insulin.

Question 54

Which of the following physical characteristics are most suggestive of Equine Metabolic Syndrome in a 9 year old Oldenburg gelding?
A. Increased digital pulses in the right forelimb and rough hair coat.
B. Body condition score 8/9 and growth rings in all 4 hooves.
C. Cresty neck score 2/5 and chronic nasal discharge.
D. Resting weight (‘rocking back’) on hindlimbs and body condition score 2/9.

Answer 54

B. Body condition score 8/9 and growth rings in all 4 hooves.

Question 55

In what group of camelids does Hyperosmolar Syndrome most commonly occur and what two blood abnormalities characterize the condition?
A. Neonatal crias; hyperglycaemia and hypernatraemia.
B. Pregnant llamas; hypoglycaemia and hyponatraemia.
C. Neonatal crias; hypoglycaemia and hyponatraemia.
D. Pregnant alpacas; hyperglycaemia and hypernatraemia.

Answer 55

A. Neonatal crias; hyperglycaemia and hypernatraemia.