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Vet Medicine > Small Animal Nursing > Flashcards

Small Animal Nursing Flashcards

Varied

1
Q

What can the T segment’s deflection in lead II D be?

A

Positive or negative

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2
Q

What causes sinus arrhythmia from respiratory origin?

A

Influence of vagal tone, especially during respiration

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3
Q

What is considered normal heart rate in dogs weighing 20 kg or less?

A

Less than 70 beats per minute

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4
Q

What are some causes of sinus bradycardia?

A

Increased inspiratory effort, gastric irritation, hypothyroidism, among others

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5
Q

What is the heart rate cut-off for sinus tachycardia in cats?

A

Greater than 240 beats per minute

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6
Q

What is an evident characteristic of atrial flutter on an ECG?

A

A regular, sawtooth formation between QRS complexes

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7
Q

What is the purpose of the primary layer in bandaging?

A

The primary layer is used to remove necrotic tissue and absorb wound exudates.

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8
Q

Describe the application of dry-to-dry dressings in wound care.

A

Dry sterile gauze is placed over the wound, held in place by an absorbent wrap, used when loose necrotic tissue is present.

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9
Q

How do wet-to-dry dressings function in wound management?

A

Wet-to-dry dressings absorb material from the wound, allowing exudate to adhere to the bandage and be removed.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of using wet-to-wet dressings for wounds?

A

Wet-to-wet dressings are used on wounds with large amounts of exudates to absorb fluid easily and cause less pain on removal.

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11
Q

What are the characteristics of a nonadherent primary layer in bandaging?

A

Nonadherent primary layers are used when granulation tissue is forming and minimize tissue injury during bandage changes.

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12
Q

Explain the differences between semiocclusive and occlusive bandages as nonadherent primary layers.

A

Semiocclusive bandages allow air and fluid permeability, while occlusive bandages retain moisture and are impermeable to air.

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13
Q

What is the role of the secondary layer in bandaging?

A

The secondary layer provides extra absorbency, draws fluids away from the wound, and adds padding for support.

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14
Q

What materials are commonly used for the tertiary layer in bandaging?

A

Adhesive tapes, elastic bandages, Vetrap, and conforming stretch gauze are typically used for the tertiary layer.

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15
Q

How does medical-grade honey assist in wound healing?

A

Medical-grade honey has bacteriostatic and bacteriocidal properties that help with antimicrobial resistance, aiding in wound healing.

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16
Q

List some reasons for bandaging in the head and neck area.

A

Bandaging is used post-ocular surgery, repair of an aural hematoma, ear surgery, and to secure a jugular catheter or pharyngostomy tube.

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17
Q

What precautions should be taken when applying a bandage postoperatively in animals?

A

Bandages should be checked frequently for edema, ensure respiration and mucous membrane color are monitored closely, and two fingers should fit under the bandage.

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18
Q

What are some reasons for bandaging in the thorax region?

A

Bandaging is used to secure chest drains, protect large thoracic wounds, and after spinal surgery in the thorax region.

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19
Q

List some reasons for bandaging in the abdomen area.

A

Abdominal bandaging is used to secure a gastrostomy tube and after a radical surgical procedure in the abdomen.

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20
Q

How is chemotherapy used in cancer treatment?

A

Chemotherapy is used to produce remission, prevent metastasis, improve quality of life, decrease neoplasm size, and decrease pain.

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21
Q

What breeds have a genetic mutation called MDR1 or ABCB1?

A

Many herding breeds have a genetic mutation called MDR1 or ABCB1.

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22
Q

Why is a combination of chemotherapeutic drugs preferred?

A

A combination is preferred for different toxicities, mechanisms, and efficacies.

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23
Q

What are examples of chemotherapeutic drugs?

A

Examples include hormones, antibiotics, alkylating agents, and more.

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24
Q

What side effects can result from chemotherapeutic agents?

A

Side effects may include alopecia, cardiotoxicity, vomiting, diarrhea, and others.

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25
Q

How should technical staff protect themselves when administering chemotherapy?

A

They should use personal protective equipment like gloves, masks, and eyewear.

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26
Q

What should be done with biomedical waste from chemotherapy administration?

A

Biomedical waste should be placed in sealable bags for pickup.

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27
Q

What is the most harmful waste from animals that received cytotoxic drugs?

A

Waste from animals that received cytotoxic drugs within the previous 48 hours is most harmful.

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28
Q

How is radiation therapy used in cancer treatment?

A

Radiation therapy kills cells by disrupting DNA and can shrink tumors.

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29
Q

What is the purpose of administering radiation in frequent small doses?

A

To minimize toxic effects and maximize therapeutic effects.

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30
Q

Why should the prepuce be carefully managed when bandaging male dogs?

A

To avoid interfering with urination.

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31
Q

What are the reasons for bandaging limbs?

A

Immobilization of fractures, wound protection, and stabilization for fluid therapy.

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32
Q

What is the most common type of pressure bandage for limbs?

A

Robert Jones or Modified Robert Jones bandage.

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33
Q

How should a pressure bandage (eg. Robert jones) be applied to a limb to ensure proper venous return?

A

Bandage the entire limb to maintain even pressure distribution and venous return from the paw.

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34
Q

Why should the bandage on a limb never be restricted to just the upper portion?

A

Allows even pressure distribution and maintains venous return from the paw.

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35
Q

What precautions should be taken regularly for the toes when bandaging limbs?

A

Check for swelling, coldness, and pallor of nail beds to monitor venous return.

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36
Q

How loose should the bandage on a limb be to ensure proper circulation?

A

Loose enough to allow two fingers to slip under at all times.

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37
Q

What is a method to keep the bandage clean and dry when walking the animal?

A

Attaching a small bag or glove to the distal end of the limb, removing it after exercise.

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38
Q

What are the reasons stated for bandaging paws?

A

Declawing of cats, dewclaw removal in dogs, and repair of lacerations.

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39
Q

What precautions should be taken when bandaging paws?

A

Include the accessory pad and provide cotton layers underneath to prevent irritation.

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40
Q

Why may sedation be necessary after tail amputation?

A

To manage bleeding from excessive tail wagging or hitting the tail on a hard surface.

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41
Q

What is the purpose of a specialized Ehmer sling?

A

To support the hind limb after reduction of hip luxation.

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42
Q

What is the Velpeau sling used for?

A

To support the shoulder joint as a non-weight-bearing sling-type bandage after surgery.

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43
Q

How is a carpal flexion sling described?

A

A non-weight-bearing sling applied with the carpus flexed to allow shoulder and elbow movement.

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44
Q

What are hobbles used for?

A

To prevent excessive abduction, such as after hip reduction, in hind limbs.

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45
Q

What are common allergens for small animals?

A

Common allergens include flea bites, food, mold, pollen, grass, soaps, shampoos, and insect stings.

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46
Q

Where are flea allergies most commonly seen on dogs?

A

Flea allergies are most common dorsally near the base of the tail.

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47
Q

How can contact allergies be identified?

A

Contact allergies are seen in areas with the least hair coverage such as armpits, chin, elbows, hocks, foot pads, and genitals.

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48
Q

What is a possible treatment for allergic reactions in small animals?

A

Treatment may involve drugs like antihistamines or corticosteroids, allergen avoidance, or immunotherapy.

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49
Q

How are hormonal skin conditions diagnosed?

A

Hormonal skin conditions are diagnosed through blood tests to check hormone levels.

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50
Q

What are some signs of seborrhea sicca?

A

Signs include dry skin with diffuse scaling, white to gray scales, alopecia, and inflammation.

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51
Q

What breeds are predisposed to seborrhea oleosa?

A

Breeds like Cocker Spaniels, Shar-Peis, West Highland White Terriers, and Basset Hounds are predisposed.

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52
Q

What treatments are recommended for seborrheic skin conditions?

A

Treatment involves medicated shampoos, corticosteroids, antibiotics for infections, dietary supplements, and vitamin A.

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53
Q

Why are eye ointments necessary before bathing?

A

Eye ointments are necessary to prevent irritation from shampoo during the bath.

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54
Q

How should the neck be prepped for tracheostomy tube placement?

A

The neck should be prepped and clipped aseptically.

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55
Q

What position should the patient be in for tracheostomy tube placement?

A

The patient should be anesthetized and in dorsal position.

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56
Q

What is the cleaning frequency recommended for the tracheostomy tube?

A

The tube should be cleaned at least twice per day or every 2 to 3 hours.

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57
Q

What steps are involved in the cleaning of the tracheostomy tube?

A

Steps include administering oxygen, wearing gloves, cleaning the site, rinsing the inner tube with hot water, and replacing it.

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58
Q

When should feeding begin after esophageal feeding tube placement?

A

Feeding can begin as soon as the patient recovers from anesthesia.

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59
Q

How should the surgical site be cleaned after esophageal feeding tube placement?

A

The surgical site should be cleaned with surgical scrub on a daily basis.

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60
Q

Why should the esophageal feeding tube not pass the lower esophageal sphincter?

A

Passing the sphincter causes irritation, reflux, and esophagitis.

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61
Q

What method can be used to unclog the esophageal feeding tube if needed?

A

The tube can be flushed with warm water if it clogs.

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62
Q

What actions are recommended when the esophageal feeding tube is no longer needed?

A

Remove sutures and pull the tube out when no longer required.

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63
Q

What structures contribute to an animal’s ability to see objects clearly?

A

Structures like the conjunctiva, lens, cornea, retina, iris, and more.

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64
Q

What are the key differences in feline eyes compared to canine eyes?

A

Feline eyes have a tapetum lucidum, oval pupil, and no true eyelashes.

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65
Q

Where is the preferred skin location for subcutaneous fluid administration?

A

Dorsally, between the scapulas

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66
Q

What method of administration is preferred for moderate to severe dehydration and shock?

A

Intravenous

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67
Q

What are the common veins used for intravenous fluid administration via catheter?

A

Cephalic, saphenous, or jugular veins

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68
Q

How is the fluid rate adjusted in gravity-fed administration?

A

Manually adjusted by the roller clamp on the administration set

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69
Q

What are Buretrols used for in fluid administration?

A

For precise dosing and to prevent fluid overload while using gravity-fed method

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70
Q

Where is an intraosseous catheter typically injected in small or young patients?

A

Through the head of the femur or humerus

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71
Q

What is the purpose of venipuncture?

A

For clinical pathology tests or to administer medications/fluids

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72
Q

How is an animal positioned for jugular vein venipuncture?

A

In sternal recumbency on a table or sitting on the floor

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73
Q

How is the cephalic vein accessed in venipuncture?

A

Animal should be in sternal recumbency; extend the front leg

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74
Q

How should an animal be positioned for lateral saphenous vein venipuncture?

A

In lateral recumbency

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75
Q

What is proptosis?

A

Forward displacement or bulging of the eye.

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76
Q

Define epiphora.

A

Overflow of tears.

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77
Q

Explain conjunctivitis.

A

Inflammation of the conjunctiva or tissue lining the eyelid.

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78
Q

What does a miotic drug do?

A

It makes pupils decrease in size.

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79
Q

Describe a mydriatic drug.

A

It makes pupils increase in size.

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80
Q

Where is the medial canthus located?

A

Area of the eye closest to the nose at the junction of the eyelids.

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81
Q

Locate the lateral canthus on the eye.

A

It is the area of the eye closest to the ears at the junction of the eyelids.

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82
Q

Differentiate ophthalmic drops from ointments.

A

Ophthalmic drops are aqueous solutions lasting shortly on the eye; ointments are thicker and last longer.

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83
Q

What are artificial tears typically made of?

A

They are generally made of a solution of methylcellulose to lubricate the eye.

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84
Q

Why is the Schirmer tear test performed?

A

To diagnose keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) and assess tear production.

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85
Q

What is the importance of using a topical ophthalmic anesthetic during certain eye tests?

A

To numb the cornea for patient comfort and easier examination.

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86
Q

What abnormal sounds should you auscultate the lungs for?

A

Crackles, wheezes, and stridor

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87
Q

What should you note about breathing during auscultation?

A

Pattern, rate, depth, effort

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88
Q

What should you watch for in breathing examination?

A

Dyspnea

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89
Q

What should be observed during musculoskeletal examination?

A

Gait, symmetry, muscle tone

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90
Q

How should you evaluate joint mobility?

A

Flexing the limbs at each joint

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91
Q

What should be noted during cardiovascular palpation?

A

Femoral and dorsal pedal pulses

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92
Q

What pulse characteristics should be evaluated during palpation?

A

Strength, rate, and pulse pressure

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93
Q

How is pulse pressure calculated?

A

Difference between systolic and diastolic pressures

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94
Q

What subjective measurements are used for pulse pressure?

A

Weak, moderate, or strong

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95
Q

What should be noted when auscultating the heart?

A

Irregularities between pulse rate and heart rate
Heart murmurs

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96
Q

How are heart murmurs graded?

A

Using a system from I to VI

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97
Q

Where is the major lymph node location ‘submandibular’ found?

A

Cranial to the angle of the mandible

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98
Q

What should be noted when examining external genitalia?

A

Redness, irritation, abnormal discharge

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99
Q

What are the major lymph node locations?

A

Submandibular, prescapular, axillary, popliteal, inguinal

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100
Q

What should be checked in the neurological examination?

A

Pupil size, responses, ataxia, weakness, proprioception

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101
Q

What does knuckling when walking indicate in a neurological exam?

A

Proprioception issues

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102
Q

What are the potential consequences of repetitive ventricular firing?

A

Ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and decreased cardiac output.

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103
Q

What length will the P-R interval be in atrial premature contractions?

A

The P-R interval may be short, normal, or long, depending on the origin of the premature beat.

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104
Q

How are first-degree AV blocks characterized?

A

First-degree AV blocks have a longer than normal P-R interval.

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105
Q

Describe the ECG appearance in ventricular fibrillation.

A

The ECG shows a bizarre baseline with prominent undulations, no recognizable P waves or QRS complexes.

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106
Q

What characterizes second-degree AV block Type I?

A

Progressive lengthening of the P-R interval on successive beats followed by P waves without QRS complexes.

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107
Q

What is a key feature of third-degree AV block?

A

No relationship between P waves and QRS complexes; atria and ventricles beat independently.

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108
Q

What is the equipment required for orogastric intubation?

A

Stomach tube, speculum, adhesive tape, lubricant, saline syringe, syringe/funnel for drugs/materials.

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109
Q

When is atropine use cautioned during tranquilization for orogastric intubation?

A

Atropine slows intestinal motility and should not be given before a barium study.

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110
Q

When should a cuffed tight-fitting endotracheal tube be used during orogastric intubation?

A

During anesthesia to prevent aspiration of administered material.

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111
Q

How long does the antimicrobial effect of Povidone-iodine solution last?

A

Approximately 4 to 6 hours.

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112
Q

Why is the detergent form of Povidone-iodine solution not recommended for wounds?

A

It causes irritation and potentiates wound infections.

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113
Q

Define debridement.

A

Debridement is the removal of necrotic tissue from a wound.

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114
Q

What is necrotic tissue considered a growth medium for?

A

bacterial growth.

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115
Q

When is debridement considered complete?

A

Debridement is complete when the wound is free of necrotic tissue.

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116
Q

What is mechanical debridement in wound care?

A

It includes the use of surgical instruments, dressings, and irrigation.

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117
Q

Why is drainage necessary in wound management?

A

Drainage helps relieve the buildup of air or fluid in a wound.

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118
Q

What are drains implanted in wounds primarily used for?

A

Drains are used to reduce the formation of seromas, hematomas, or dead space.

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119
Q

What is the most common type of drain used in wound management?

A

Penrose drains made of soft, latex rubber.

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120
Q

What is the fastest route of absorption for large volumes of medication?

A

The intravenous (IV) route.

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121
Q

When should IV administration be preferred for certain solutions?

A

IV administration is preferred if solutions are caustic, irritating, or hypertonic.

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122
Q

For how many days can IV catheters be inserted for long-term administration of medications or fluids?

A

IV catheters can be inserted for 2-3 days for long-term administration of medications or fluids.

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123
Q

Which animals are intraosseous routes most commonly used for?

A

Intraosseous routes are commonly used for neonatal and smaller animals, as well as animals with circulatory problems.

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124
Q

What sites on the body are commonly used for intraosseous administration?

A

Sites like the femur, humerus, tibia, and sometimes the ilial wing or ischium are commonly used.

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125
Q

What must be used to prepare the skin for needle placement in intraosseous routes?

A

A sterile technique must be used to prepare the skin for needle placement in intraosseous routes.

126
Q

What is the topical route of medication administration?

A

Topical route involves applying medications directly to the skin, often on top of lesions.

127
Q

What factors affect the absorption rate of medications in the topical route?

A

Absorption rate in the topical route varies based on the amount applied and how quickly it is absorbed.

128
Q

What preservative maintains cells in packed RBCs without needing reconstitution?

A

The preservative ADSOL maintains cells in packed RBCs without having to reconstitute them.

129
Q

What is the alternative to packed RBCs?

A

Oxyglobin solution (bovine hemoglobin) is an alternative to packed RBCs.

130
Q

How long can Oxyglobin solution be stored for?

A

Oxyglobin solution can be stored for up to 3 years.

131
Q

What is plasma mainly used for?

A

Plasma is mainly used for volume expansion, hypoproteinemia, pancreatitis, sepsis, and liver toxicities.

132
Q

What are platelet-concentrated or platelet-rich plasma mainly used for?

A

Platelet-concentrated or platelet-rich plasma are mainly used for thrombocytopenia cases.

133
Q

What does ECG stand for?

A

ECG stands for electrocardiography.

134
Q

What does the ECG recording represent in terms of heart activity?

A

The ECG recording represents the amplitude and duration of electrical activity in the heart.

135
Q

What does the P wave on an ECG represent?

A

The P wave on an ECG represents the depolarization of right and left atria.

136
Q

What does the QRS complex on an ECG represent?

A

The QRS complex on an ECG represents ventricular depolarization.

137
Q

What does the T wave on an ECG represent?

A

The T wave on an ECG represents repolarization of the ventricules.

138
Q

Why are dogs with DEA 4 antigen considered universal donors?

A

Dogs with DEA 4 antigen are considered universal donors as DEA 4 blood type is found in 98% of dogs.

139
Q

How often can blood be collected from a dog donor?

A

A maximum of 450 mL can be collected from a dog once every 4 weeks.

140
Q

What are the requirements for canine donors’ weight?

A

Canine donors should ideally weigh more than 25 kg (55 lb).

141
Q

What should be done before donating blood to decrease lipemic samples?

A

Donors should be fasted before donation to decrease lipemic samples of blood.

142
Q

What is the recommended frequency for testing donors for parasites?

A

Donors should be tested every 6 months for parasites.

143
Q

Why should blood not be donated for 11 to 12 days post-vaccination?

A

Blood should not be donated for 11 to 12 days post-vaccination due to vaccine effects on platelets and endothelial functions.

144
Q

What are the required health checks for canine donors?

A

Donors must be in excellent health with yearly normal blood chemistry, CBC, and urinalysis.

145
Q

What sedative is recommended for blood collection in dogs?

A

The sedative of choice is oxymorphone given approximately 15 to 20 minutes before blood collection.

146
Q

How long should pressure be applied to the jugular vein after blood collection?

A

Pressure should be applied to the jugular vein for 2 minutes after blood collection to minimize hematoma formation.

147
Q

What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected per donation?

A

A total of 450 mL of blood constitutes one entire blood collection.

148
Q

What is hidden by ventricular depolarization on an ECG?

A

The atrial repolarization is hidden by ventricular depolarization or the QRS complex.

149
Q

What supplies are needed for ECG in large animals to prevent electricity conductivity?

A

Protective padding, blanket, or mat for steel tables (stainless steel conducts electricity).

150
Q

Why should alcohol not be used in an emergency situation for ECG?

A

Alcohol should not be used if defibrillation is a possibility during an emergency.

151
Q

How should ECG machines for human use be modified?

A

They may need to change the snap end to an alligator clip and file or bend clips slightly.

152
Q

What position is ideal for animal during ECG recording?

A

Ideally right lateral recumbency; standing acceptable for large animals.

153
Q

What should be done for continuous monitoring during ECG?

A

Pads or wires may be used, and fur should be clipped for direct skin contact.

154
Q

What leads are used in a three-lead ECG for animals?

A

RA (right front), LA (left front), and LL (left hind) labeled as leads.

155
Q

What information should be recorded after completing all lead tracings?

A

The date of ECG, patient name, client name, species, recumbency, drugs used, technician.

156
Q

What does normal electrocardiographic interpretation include?

A

Normal heartbeat with P, Q, R, S, and T segments, P wave for every QRS complex, and constant P-R interval.

157
Q

What are examples of isotonic electrolyte solutions?

A

Examples include lactated Ringer solution, 0.9% saline, Plasmalyte 148, and Normosol-R.

158
Q

What is the purpose of hypertonic solutions?

A

Hypertonic solutions have an osmolality greater than blood and are used to replenish deficits effectively.

159
Q

Why are colloids useful in patients with cerebral or pulmonary edema?

A

Colloids are useful as they are designed to stay in the vascular space and expand volume.

160
Q

When are synthetic colloids like hydroxyethyl starch used?

A

They are used when crystalloids are not effectively improving blood volume, as in large fluid loss cases.

161
Q

What is the initial approach for emergency fluid therapy in severely dehydrated dogs?

A

Begin by administering isotonic crystalloid fluids at 80 to 90 mL/kg intravenously.

162
Q

What is the dosing recommendation for colloids in dogs during shock?

A

The dose for colloids in dogs is 20 mL/kg/hr, to be divided into 5-mL/kg boluses and reassessed.

163
Q

How is daily fluid requirement calculated for a patient over 24 hours?

A

Daily fluid requirement = replacement + maintenance + ongoing losses, with replacement requirement at % dehydration × body weight (kg) × 10.

164
Q

What is the recommended rate for maintenance fluids in dogs?

A

The rate is 2 to 6 mL/kg/hr, with fluids like Normosol-M indicated for patients not eating or drinking.

165
Q

Define oncology.

A

Oncology is the study of cancer.

166
Q

Explain metastasis in cancer.

A

Metastasis is the process where cancer cells spread from the primary to a secondary location.

167
Q

What does the term ‘benign neoplasm’ refer to?

A

A benign neoplasm is localized, does not infiltrate other areas, and can be easily excised.

168
Q

Differentiate between benign and malignant neoplasms.

A

Benign neoplasms do not invade other tissues, while malignant neoplasms can metastasize.

169
Q

How are carcinomas classified?

A

Carcinomas are malignant tumors that arise from epithelial tissues.

170
Q

What suffix generally indicates a benign tumor?

A

The suffix -oma generally indicates a benign tumor.

171
Q

List some early warning signs of cancer

A

Bleeding, difficulty eating, abnormal swelling, weight loss, and abnormal odor are early signs.

172
Q

Explain how surgery is used in cancer treatment.

A

Surgery involves removing the entire tumor, often used for localized neoplastic disease.

173
Q

What is cryosurgery and when is it used?

A

Cryosurgery involves freezing cancerous tissue and is used for small lesions on external epithelium.

174
Q

Describe chemotherapy as a treatment for cancer.

A

Chemotherapy involves treating cancer with cytotoxic agents, generally used for systemic or metastatic cases.

175
Q

What is the purpose of delayed primary closure for wounds?

A

To allow for drainage and reduction of infection before surgical closure.

176
Q

When is secondary closure (third-intention healing) typically used?

A

For wounds older than 6 to 8 hours, infected or necrotic, or failed primary closure.

177
Q

What characterizes second-intention wound healing?

A

Healing by granulation tissue formation and epithelialization without closure.

178
Q

Why is control of hemorrhaging a priority in wound evaluation?

A

To manage bleeding before assessing for contamination and infection.

179
Q

How should outer wound edges be treated during wound lavage?

A

Gently scrubbed using a detergent or antimicrobial surgical scrub.

180
Q

What type of pressure is effective for wound lavage?

A

At least 8 to 12 pounds per square inch (psi) with warm isotonic crystalloid fluid.

(300mmgh pressure slam bag + extension line + catheter without stylet)

181
Q

What type of solutions are recommended for wound lavage?

A

Isotonic saline, LRS, Ringer solution, and chlorhexidine diacetate solution.

182
Q

Why should hydrogen peroxide be used cautiously for wound irrigation?

A

It can damage tissues and is not antimicrobial, suitable only for first-time use on dirty wounds.

183
Q

What are the indications for orogastric intubation?

A

To administer medications, fluids, or nutrients, or remove stomach contents.

184
Q

Describe the procedure for canine male urinary catheterization.

A

Insert catheter into the urethra, advance into the bladder, and secure in place.

185
Q

What are the types of fluids used in fluid therapy for small animals?

A

Crystalloids (Isotonic hypertonic hypotonic) and colloids are commonly used in fluid therapy.

186
Q

Describe the precautions involved in cystocentesis.

A

Use aseptic technique to avoid introducing bacteria into the urinary bladder.

187
Q

What are the common dermatological conditions seen in small animals?

A

Conditions like allergies, infections, and parasites are common in dermatology.

188
Q

Describe the procedure for blood collection for transfusion in felines.

A

Collect blood from the jugular vein and transfuse as needed.

189
Q

What is the procedure for performing a basic physical examination in small animals?

A

Assess general appearance, vital signs, and individual body systems for abnormalities.

190
Q

What equipment is needed for preparing a site for surgical procedures?

A

Bulb syringe, syringe, cleansing solution, warm water or saline, waste bowls, ceruminolytic agents, mild soap.

191
Q

When using a ceruminolytic agent, how should it be administered?

A

By dropper or syringe if the eardrum is intact.

192
Q

What should be examined in the ear canal using an otoscope?

A

Redness, ulceration, odor, exudates, parasites, and integrity of the tympanic membrane.

193
Q

What steps are involved in cleaning the ear canal?

A

Add fluid, massage, empty the ear, remove debris using cotton swabs, and repeat as needed until clean.

194
Q

What are some possible causes of otitis externa?

A

Parasites (Otodectes cynotis), bacteria (Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp.), fungi (Candida albicans, Malassezia pachydermatis), foreign bodies, tumors.

195
Q

Where are the anal sacs located in an animal’s anatomy?

A

On either side of the animal’s anus at the 4 and 8 o’clock positions.

196
Q

What is the purpose of expressing an animal’s anal sacs?

A

To decrease irritation caused by distention or inflammation, to instill medication, and to remove material.

197
Q

How can anal sac expression be performed externally?

A

By applying pressure with rolled cotton over the dog’s anus in a medial and slightly dorsal direction.

198
Q

What are the characteristics of abrasions?

A

Dermal wounds with preserved dermis; prefer moist environment for healing.

199
Q

Describe lacerations.

A

Skin and deeper tissue tearing with minimal trauma; can be cleaned and closed primarily.

200
Q

What defines degloving injuries?

A

Wounds where a large section of tissue is removed in a glove-like manner.

201
Q

How are degloving wounds typically caused?

A

Evident in dogs dragged by a car; severe tissue loss in distal limbs.

202
Q

What is important in the treatment of degloving injuries?

A

Requires aggressive lavage, debridement, and months to heal.

203
Q

What is unique about puncture and bite wounds?

A

May appear minor on the skin surface but extend subdermally and require exploration, lavage, and debridement.

204
Q

What is essential in managing bite wounds?

A

Exploration, lavage, and debridement needed; drains are commonly used.

205
Q

How are burns classified based on the depth of the wound?

A

First-degree (superficial), second-degree (partial dermis), third-degree (full thickness), fourth-degree (extensive).

206
Q

Define pressure sores and explain how they are treated

A

Sores caused by skin compression, treated with clean, soft bedding, frequent position changes, and hydrotherapy.

207
Q

What characterizes clean wounds in wound classification?

A

Nontraumatic, noninfected operative wounds not entering hollow organs.

208
Q

Explain second-intention healing in wound healing processes.

A

Wounds heal from internal to external areas; examples include larger and infected wounds.

209
Q

Describe third-intention healing in wound healing processes.

A

Initial open wound healing followed by surgical repair; used for severely contaminated or very large wounds.

210
Q

What is involved in primary wound closure?

A

Primary closure with stitches immediately after injury.

211
Q

What is a third-degree heart block also known as?

A

Complete heart block

212
Q

How do cells of the heart spread depolarization?

A

Quickly from SA node to AV node onto Bundle of His, Bundle Branch Blocks (left and right) into purkinji fibers

213
Q

What can fluorescein stain be used to diagnose?

A

Corneal ulcers

214
Q

In which procedure is gonioscopy used?

A

Examining iris angle and anterior chamber

215
Q

What are the two genera of fungi that generally cause ringworm?

A

Microsporum canis and Trichophyton spp.

216
Q

How is a surgical wound defined in terms of contamination?

A

Contaminated by microbes on tissue and surrounding area

217
Q

What is the term used for a wound invaded by microorganisms eliciting an immune response?

A

Infection

218
Q

Where should examination be performed for skin lesions?

A

In a well-illuminated area

219
Q

How should the hair be treated to see underlying skin lesions?

A

Part or clip fur

220
Q

Where should the patient be checked for hidden lesions?

A

The mouth, sides of the mouth, and foot pads

221
Q

What type of lesions arise from normal skin?

A

Primary lesions

222
Q

What type of lesions always develop from preexisting skin lesions?

A

Secondary lesions

223
Q

What are the two most common causes of ringworm in dogs?

A

Microsporum canis and Trichophyton spp.

224
Q

What is a common sign of bacterial infections on canine skin?

A

Yellow pustules

225
Q

What type of test can be used to diagnose Microsporum spp. of the ringworm fungi?

A

Wood’s lamp test (ultraviolet, short wave)

226
Q

How should hair and skin debris be collected for fungal culture?

A

Using sterile forceps from an area at the margin of the suspected lesion

227
Q

Why should the cap of the fungal culture bottle be slightly loose?

A

To allow for aerobic conditions

228
Q

What equipment is needed for a necropsy?

A

Scalpel handle, blades, scissors, forceps, knife, chisel, mallet, saw, shears.

229
Q

What protective clothing may be required for a necropsy?

A

Gloves, mask, goggles, overalls, boots, apron.

230
Q

What should be confirmed before starting a necropsy?

A

Correct animal, clinical history, possible causes of death.

231
Q

How should vials or collection tubes be labeled during a necropsy?

A

Animal’s name, date, technician’s name.

232
Q

How should the animal be positioned during a necropsy?

A

Left lateral recumbency.

233
Q

What findings should be noted during a necropsy?

A

Fluid color, hemorrhage, edema, joint conditions, organ placement and condition.

234
Q

What should be checked in the thoracic organs during a necropsy?

A

Lungs (color, firmness), heart (pericardium, vessels), major blood vessels.

235
Q

What organs should be examined in the abdominal area during a necropsy?

A

Liver, spleen, kidneys, urinary bladder.

236
Q

What samples are taken for histopathology during a necropsy?

A

Tissue (10% buffered formalin fixative, 1 cm thick).

237
Q

What is the most common fixative used for histopathology samples?

A

10% buffered formalin.

238
Q

How can you check the placement of a feeding tube in an animal’s trachea?

A

Instill 1 mL of sterile saline. If the animal coughs, the tube is in the trachea.

239
Q

How long can a feeding tube typically remain in place in an animal?

A

The tube can remain in place for approximately 1 week or until the animal tolerates force feeding or eats on its own.

240
Q

What should be done before each feeding regarding the feeding tube?

A

Aspirate the tube before each feeding and instill 1 mL of sterile saline to check for coughing.

241
Q

What precautions should be taken when using a feeding tube in animals?

A

Possible administration of materials into the respiratory tract, esophageal trauma, gastric irritation, stress to patients, contraindicated in certain conditions, possible epistaxis, tube obstruction.

242
Q

What are the indications for canine male urinary catheterization?

A

To collect urine for analysis, measure urine output, relieve a urethral obstruction, administer medication, or perform pneumocystography.

243
Q

What equipment is needed for canine male urinary catheterization?

A

Mild soap, sterile catheter, sterile lubricant, sterile syringe or container, disposable gloves.

244
Q

How can the appropriate size of a sterile catheter be selected for canine male urinary catheterization?

A

Based on the dog’s weight: 3.5- or 5-Fr for dogs <12 kg, 8-Fr for 12-35 kg dogs, 10- or 12-Fr for >35 kg dogs.

245
Q

What is the procedure for canine male urinary catheterization?

A

Clip area, cleanse prepuce, select catheter size, estimate length needed, open package, lubricate catheter, advance carefully from urethra into bladder, inflate

246
Q

When is oral medication contraindicated?

A

Oral medication is contraindicated when the patient is vomiting or has decreased swallowing reflex, injuries to the oral cavity or esophagus, or a disease prohibiting oral intake.

247
Q

How are tablets or capsules administered to animals?

A

Tablets or capsules are administered by placing them at the base of the tongue, then closing the animal’s mouth and observing them swallow.

248
Q

Name at least three common routes for parenteral drug administration.

A

Common parenteral routes include subcutaneous, intramuscular, and intravenous routes.

249
Q

How is an intramuscular injection administered to an animal?

A

An intramuscular injection is usually administered using a 22- to 25-gauge needle into the lumbar or epaxial muscles.

250
Q

What is the purpose of restraining or using a tourniquet during intravenous injections?

A

Restraining or using a tourniquet helps apply proximal pressure to the vein and ensures correct placement of the injection.

251
Q

How should orphaned puppies be fed in the first 3 days?

A

About 15% of the current body weight divided into several feedings.

252
Q

What weight gain should puppies have in relation to milk intake?

A

Puppies should gain 1g for every 2 to 5g of milk intake.

253
Q

At what age do a dog’s eyes typically open?

A

7 to 12 days.

254
Q

What is the best time for dewclaw and tail docking in puppies?

A

Best at 3 to 5 days of age.

255
Q

What is the recommended treatment for extreme hypothermia in neonates?

A

Slowly increasing the body temperature by reheating with a heat source.

256
Q

What fluid rate is recommended for dehydrated puppies?

A

Warm fluids at the rate of 3.3mL/100g of weight over 5-10 minutes.

257
Q

What clinical signs are associated with fading puppy or kitten syndrome?

A

Clinical signs include anorexia, lethargy, and death.

258
Q

What precaution should be taken during anal sac expression?

A

Be cautious to avoid rupturing abscessed anal sacs.

259
Q

What is the normal content of anal sac material during expression?

A

Granular, brown, malodorous material.

260
Q

When are enemas used in veterinary procedures?

A

To prepare for radiographs, remove fecal material, and relieve constipation.

261
Q

What kind of patient may require sedation or anesthesia for an enema procedure?

A

Cases of severe blockage or fractious animals.

262
Q

Why should hyperphosphate enema solutions not be used in cats or small dogs?

A

These solutions may cause hypocalcemia and acute collapse.

263
Q

What precautions should be taken to avoid colon rupture during enema administration?

A

Watch for signs of perforation or obstruction.

264
Q

Why are enemas contraindicated in cases of ulcerative colitis?

A

They may lead to increased bleeding.

265
Q

What is the size of a microchip typically used for pet identification?

A

Size of a grain of rice.

266
Q

Where on the body is a microchip typically implanted in pets?

A

Between the shoulder blades or lateral shoulders.

267
Q

What should be checked before implanting a microchip in a pet?

A

Scan for existing microchips in the patient.

268
Q

What is the purpose of cystocentesis?

A

To obtain an uncontaminated sample of urine for analysis or culture.

269
Q

How is the approximate puncture site prepared for cystocentesis?

A

Clipped and swabbed with isopropyl alcohol.

270
Q

What technique is used to immobilize the bladder during cystocentesis?

A

Try to immobilize and hold the bladder in place with one hand.

271
Q

What precautions should be taken during cystocentesis?

A

Avoid bladder squeezing, urine leakage, peritonitis, and contamination.

272
Q

When is cystocentesis contraindicated?

A

In patients with suspected pyometra, bladder neoplasms, or bleeding disorders.

273
Q

What is a potential risk of manual compression of the urinary bladder?

A

Bladder rupture if excessive force is applied.

274
Q

What can be examined using urine collected by manual compression?

A

Solute concentration, physical properties, and chemical constituents.

275
Q

What should be avoided during manual bladder compression?

A

Excessive force, especially in cases of urethral blockage.

276
Q

How much blood volume indicates the completion of collection from cats?

A

60 mL

277
Q

What should be done to minimize hematoma formation after blood collection?

A

Apply pressure to the vein

278
Q

How are refrigerated blood products advised to be administered?

A

Using an in-line filter to remove debris and clots

279
Q

What temperature should frozen plasma be thawed to before use?

A

30° to 37°C

280
Q

Why are IV lines flushed only with sodium chloride solutions during blood product transfusions?

A

To prevent clumping, swelling, or hemolysis of RBCs

281
Q

What is the recommended initial rate of platelet administration?

A

Slow at 0.35 mL/kg for the first 15 to 20 minutes

282
Q

What are the signs of an acute immunological transfusion reaction?

A

Hypotension, vomiting, salivation, muscle tremors, and tachycardia

283
Q

How should fresh-frozen plasma be thawed before administration?

A

Thaw to 98.6°F (37°C) in a warm water bath

284
Q

What is the goal of palliative care in veterinary medicine?

A

To improve the end-stage patient’s quality of life.

285
Q

How is the Quality of Life Scale utilized in palliative care?

A

To evaluate criteria like hurt, hunger, hydration, hygiene, happiness, mobility on a scale of 0 to 10.

286
Q

What factors are considered before euthanasia to minimize client emotional trauma?

A

Completing forms, minimizing wait times, maintaining decorum, confirming decisions with clients.

287
Q

Why is euthanasia of healthy pets particularly challenging?

A

It is upsetting for veterinary staff and clients due to various reasons like behavioral problems or financial issues.

288
Q

What factors should be considered when choosing a method of euthanasia?

A

Ensuring a quick, painless death with minimal stress, possibility of necropsy, and suitability for the animal’s size.

289
Q

What type of tumor is a thymoma?

A

A malignant tumor of the thymus

290
Q

Why are hospitals noting the location for vaccine administration?

A

It is easier to identify which vaccine was the possible source of a tumor.

291
Q

What is contraindicated when administering subcutaneous fluids?

A

there is evidence of chronic heart failure.

292
Q

What is recommended before performing an enema?

A

Abdominal radiographs

293
Q

Why is a hypotonic crystalloid solution used?

A

increase intravascular volume.

294
Q

What could moderate dehydration in a conscious patient be estimated at?

A

7-10%

295
Q

What should be the position of the bevel of the needle during venipuncture?

A

The bevel of the needle should be upward toward the venipuncturist.

296
Q

How far should the needle be inserted into the vein for medium- to large-sized dogs?

A

Approximately three fourths of its length.

297
Q

What should the restrainer do after the required amount of blood is collected during venipuncture?

A

The restrainer should stop the compression of the vein.

298
Q

Why should the restrainer apply light pressure over the venipuncture site for approximately 1 minute?

A

To promote hemostasis and prevent hematoma.

299
Q

How should a Vacutainer be filled during blood collection?

A

It should be completely filled for the sample to be viable.

300
Q

What should be done after placing the blood in the Vacutainer using sterile technique?

A

The Vacutainer should be gently rocked for all the blood to mix with anticoagulant.

301
Q

How are canine blood groups designated?

A

They are designated by the acronym DEA (dog erythrocyte antigen) and a number.

302
Q

How can DEA 1.1 be detected in canine blood typing?

A

Rapid blood typing cards or immunochromatographic test kits are used.

303
Q

What can happen if a recipient has anti-DEA 1.1 antibody and receives DEA 1.1-positive blood?

A

Agglutination and hemolysis can occur.

304
Q

Define the first-intention healing.

A

First-intention healing is the healing of a wound by primary intention with minimal tissue loss.

305
Q

Describe considerations for euthanasia.

A

Euthanasia considerations include assessing quality of life, involving the pet owner, and choosing a humane method.

306
Q

List essential data to include in a standardized physical examination form.

A

Signalment, body weight, body condition score, temperature, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are essential.

307
Q

How is corneal staining performed?

A

Moisten strip, place under eyelid, check with ophthalmoscope or Wood’s lamp.

308
Q

What does the presence of fluorescein dye in the eye indicate?

A

It indicates corneal ulcers or the patency of the nasolacrimal duct.

309
Q

What is the normal range for intraocular pressure in animals?

A

15 to 25 mm Hg.

310
Q

What does an intraocular pressure reading greater than 25 mm Hg indicate?

A

It indicates glaucoma.

311
Q

How is lacrimal flushing performed?

A

Inject sterile saline, allow it to exit via nasolacrimal duct.

312
Q

What equipment is required for lacrimal flushing?

A

Cannulas (21-22 gauge), sterile saline, gauze square, overhead lighting.

Vet Medicine (2 decks)

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