Small Animal Nursing Flashcards
Varied
1
Q
What can the T segment’s deflection in lead II D be?
A
Positive or negative
2
Q
What causes sinus arrhythmia from respiratory origin?
A
Influence of vagal tone, especially during respiration
3
Q
What is considered normal heart rate in dogs weighing 20 kg or less?
A
Less than 70 beats per minute
4
Q
What are some causes of sinus bradycardia?
A
Increased inspiratory effort, gastric irritation, hypothyroidism, among others
5
Q
What is the heart rate cut-off for sinus tachycardia in cats?
A
Greater than 240 beats per minute
6
Q
What is an evident characteristic of atrial flutter on an ECG?
A
A regular, sawtooth formation between QRS complexes
7
Q
What is the purpose of the primary layer in bandaging?
A
The primary layer is used to remove necrotic tissue and absorb wound exudates.
8
Q
Describe the application of dry-to-dry dressings in wound care.
A
Dry sterile gauze is placed over the wound, held in place by an absorbent wrap, used when loose necrotic tissue is present.
9
Q
How do wet-to-dry dressings function in wound management?
A
Wet-to-dry dressings absorb material from the wound, allowing exudate to adhere to the bandage and be removed.
10
Q
What is the purpose of using wet-to-wet dressings for wounds?
A
Wet-to-wet dressings are used on wounds with large amounts of exudates to absorb fluid easily and cause less pain on removal.
11
Q
What are the characteristics of a nonadherent primary layer in bandaging?
A
Nonadherent primary layers are used when granulation tissue is forming and minimize tissue injury during bandage changes.
12
Q
Explain the differences between semiocclusive and occlusive bandages as nonadherent primary layers.
A
Semiocclusive bandages allow air and fluid permeability, while occlusive bandages retain moisture and are impermeable to air.
13
Q
What is the role of the secondary layer in bandaging?
A
The secondary layer provides extra absorbency, draws fluids away from the wound, and adds padding for support.
14
Q
What materials are commonly used for the tertiary layer in bandaging?
A
Adhesive tapes, elastic bandages, Vetrap, and conforming stretch gauze are typically used for the tertiary layer.
15
Q
How does medical-grade honey assist in wound healing?
A
Medical-grade honey has bacteriostatic and bacteriocidal properties that help with antimicrobial resistance, aiding in wound healing.
16
Q
List some reasons for bandaging in the head and neck area.
A
Bandaging is used post-ocular surgery, repair of an aural hematoma, ear surgery, and to secure a jugular catheter or pharyngostomy tube.
17
Q
What precautions should be taken when applying a bandage postoperatively in animals?
A
Bandages should be checked frequently for edema, ensure respiration and mucous membrane color are monitored closely, and two fingers should fit under the bandage.
18
Q
What are some reasons for bandaging in the thorax region?
A
Bandaging is used to secure chest drains, protect large thoracic wounds, and after spinal surgery in the thorax region.
19
Q
List some reasons for bandaging in the abdomen area.
A
Abdominal bandaging is used to secure a gastrostomy tube and after a radical surgical procedure in the abdomen.
20
Q
How is chemotherapy used in cancer treatment?
A
Chemotherapy is used to produce remission, prevent metastasis, improve quality of life, decrease neoplasm size, and decrease pain.
21
Q
What breeds have a genetic mutation called MDR1 or ABCB1?
A
Many herding breeds have a genetic mutation called MDR1 or ABCB1.
22
Q
Why is a combination of chemotherapeutic drugs preferred?
A
A combination is preferred for different toxicities, mechanisms, and efficacies.
23
Q
What are examples of chemotherapeutic drugs?
A
Examples include hormones, antibiotics, alkylating agents, and more.
24
Q
What side effects can result from chemotherapeutic agents?
A
Side effects may include alopecia, cardiotoxicity, vomiting, diarrhea, and others.
25
How should technical staff protect themselves when administering chemotherapy?
They should use personal protective equipment like gloves, masks, and eyewear.
26
What should be done with biomedical waste from chemotherapy administration?
Biomedical waste should be placed in sealable bags for pickup.
27
What is the most harmful waste from animals that received cytotoxic drugs?
Waste from animals that received cytotoxic drugs within the previous 48 hours is most harmful.
28
How is radiation therapy used in cancer treatment?
Radiation therapy kills cells by disrupting DNA and can shrink tumors.
29
What is the purpose of administering radiation in frequent small doses?
To minimize toxic effects and maximize therapeutic effects.
30
Why should the prepuce be carefully managed when bandaging male dogs?
To avoid interfering with urination.
31
What are the reasons for bandaging limbs?
Immobilization of fractures, wound protection, and stabilization for fluid therapy.
32
What is the most common type of pressure bandage for limbs?
Robert Jones or Modified Robert Jones bandage.
33
How should a pressure bandage (eg. Robert jones) be applied to a limb to ensure proper venous return?
Bandage the entire limb to maintain even pressure distribution and venous return from the paw.
34
Why should the bandage on a limb never be restricted to just the upper portion?
Allows even pressure distribution and maintains venous return from the paw.
35
What precautions should be taken regularly for the toes when bandaging limbs?
Check for swelling, coldness, and pallor of nail beds to monitor venous return.
36
How loose should the bandage on a limb be to ensure proper circulation?
Loose enough to allow two fingers to slip under at all times.
37
What is a method to keep the bandage clean and dry when walking the animal?
Attaching a small bag or glove to the distal end of the limb, removing it after exercise.
38
What are the reasons stated for bandaging paws?
Declawing of cats, dewclaw removal in dogs, and repair of lacerations.
39
What precautions should be taken when bandaging paws?
Include the accessory pad and provide cotton layers underneath to prevent irritation.
40
Why may sedation be necessary after tail amputation?
To manage bleeding from excessive tail wagging or hitting the tail on a hard surface.
41
What is the purpose of a specialized Ehmer sling?
To support the hind limb after reduction of hip luxation.
42
What is the Velpeau sling used for?
To support the shoulder joint as a non-weight-bearing sling-type bandage after surgery.
43
How is a carpal flexion sling described?
A non-weight-bearing sling applied with the carpus flexed to allow shoulder and elbow movement.
44
What are hobbles used for?
To prevent excessive abduction, such as after hip reduction, in hind limbs.
45
What are common allergens for small animals?
Common allergens include flea bites, food, mold, pollen, grass, soaps, shampoos, and insect stings.
46
Where are flea allergies most commonly seen on dogs?
Flea allergies are most common dorsally near the base of the tail.
47
How can contact allergies be identified?
Contact allergies are seen in areas with the least hair coverage such as armpits, chin, elbows, hocks, foot pads, and genitals.
48
What is a possible treatment for allergic reactions in small animals?
Treatment may involve drugs like antihistamines or corticosteroids, allergen avoidance, or immunotherapy.
49
How are hormonal skin conditions diagnosed?
Hormonal skin conditions are diagnosed through blood tests to check hormone levels.
50
What are some signs of seborrhea sicca?
Signs include dry skin with diffuse scaling, white to gray scales, alopecia, and inflammation.
51
What breeds are predisposed to seborrhea oleosa?
Breeds like Cocker Spaniels, Shar-Peis, West Highland White Terriers, and Basset Hounds are predisposed.
52
What treatments are recommended for seborrheic skin conditions?
Treatment involves medicated shampoos, corticosteroids, antibiotics for infections, dietary supplements, and vitamin A.
53
Why are eye ointments necessary before bathing?
Eye ointments are necessary to prevent irritation from shampoo during the bath.
54
How should the neck be prepped for tracheostomy tube placement?
The neck should be prepped and clipped aseptically.
55
What position should the patient be in for tracheostomy tube placement?
The patient should be anesthetized and in dorsal position.
56
What is the cleaning frequency recommended for the tracheostomy tube?
The tube should be cleaned at least twice per day or every 2 to 3 hours.
57
What steps are involved in the cleaning of the tracheostomy tube?
Steps include administering oxygen, wearing gloves, cleaning the site, rinsing the inner tube with hot water, and replacing it.
58
When should feeding begin after esophageal feeding tube placement?
Feeding can begin as soon as the patient recovers from anesthesia.
59
How should the surgical site be cleaned after esophageal feeding tube placement?
The surgical site should be cleaned with surgical scrub on a daily basis.
60
Why should the esophageal feeding tube not pass the lower esophageal sphincter?
Passing the sphincter causes irritation, reflux, and esophagitis.
61
What method can be used to unclog the esophageal feeding tube if needed?
The tube can be flushed with warm water if it clogs.
62
What actions are recommended when the esophageal feeding tube is no longer needed?
Remove sutures and pull the tube out when no longer required.
63
What structures contribute to an animal's ability to see objects clearly?
Structures like the conjunctiva, lens, cornea, retina, iris, and more.
64
What are the key differences in feline eyes compared to canine eyes?
Feline eyes have a tapetum lucidum, oval pupil, and no true eyelashes.
65
Where is the preferred skin location for subcutaneous fluid administration?
Dorsally, between the scapulas
66
What method of administration is preferred for moderate to severe dehydration and shock?
Intravenous
67
What are the common veins used for intravenous fluid administration via catheter?
Cephalic, saphenous, or jugular veins
68
How is the fluid rate adjusted in gravity-fed administration?
Manually adjusted by the roller clamp on the administration set
69
What are Buretrols used for in fluid administration?
For precise dosing and to prevent fluid overload while using gravity-fed method
70
Where is an intraosseous catheter typically injected in small or young patients?
Through the head of the femur or humerus
71
What is the purpose of venipuncture?
For clinical pathology tests or to administer medications/fluids
72
How is an animal positioned for jugular vein venipuncture?
In sternal recumbency on a table or sitting on the floor
73
How is the cephalic vein accessed in venipuncture?
Animal should be in sternal recumbency; extend the front leg
74
How should an animal be positioned for lateral saphenous vein venipuncture?
In lateral recumbency
75
What is proptosis?
Forward displacement or bulging of the eye.
76
Define epiphora.
Overflow of tears.
77
Explain conjunctivitis.
Inflammation of the conjunctiva or tissue lining the eyelid.
78
What does a miotic drug do?
It makes pupils decrease in size.
79
Describe a mydriatic drug.
It makes pupils increase in size.
80
Where is the medial canthus located?
Area of the eye closest to the nose at the junction of the eyelids.
81
Locate the lateral canthus on the eye.
It is the area of the eye closest to the ears at the junction of the eyelids.
82
Differentiate ophthalmic drops from ointments.
Ophthalmic drops are aqueous solutions lasting shortly on the eye; ointments are thicker and last longer.
83
What are artificial tears typically made of?
They are generally made of a solution of methylcellulose to lubricate the eye.
84
Why is the Schirmer tear test performed?
To diagnose keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) and assess tear production.
85
What is the importance of using a topical ophthalmic anesthetic during certain eye tests?
To numb the cornea for patient comfort and easier examination.
86
What abnormal sounds should you auscultate the lungs for?
Crackles, wheezes, and stridor
87
What should you note about breathing during auscultation?
Pattern, rate, depth, effort
88
What should you watch for in breathing examination?
Dyspnea
89
What should be observed during musculoskeletal examination?
Gait, symmetry, muscle tone
90
How should you evaluate joint mobility?
Flexing the limbs at each joint
91
What should be noted during cardiovascular palpation?
Femoral and dorsal pedal pulses
92
What pulse characteristics should be evaluated during palpation?
Strength, rate, and pulse pressure
93
How is pulse pressure calculated?
Difference between systolic and diastolic pressures
94
What subjective measurements are used for pulse pressure?
Weak, moderate, or strong
95
What should be noted when auscultating the heart?
Irregularities between pulse rate and heart rate
Heart murmurs
96
How are heart murmurs graded?
Using a system from I to VI
97
Where is the major lymph node location 'submandibular' found?
Cranial to the angle of the mandible
98
What should be noted when examining external genitalia?
Redness, irritation, abnormal discharge
99
What are the major lymph node locations?
Submandibular, prescapular, axillary, popliteal, inguinal
100
What should be checked in the neurological examination?
Pupil size, responses, ataxia, weakness, proprioception
101
What does knuckling when walking indicate in a neurological exam?
Proprioception issues
102
What are the potential consequences of repetitive ventricular firing?
Ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and decreased cardiac output.
103
What length will the P-R interval be in atrial premature contractions?
The P-R interval may be short, normal, or long, depending on the origin of the premature beat.
104
How are first-degree AV blocks characterized?
First-degree AV blocks have a longer than normal P-R interval.
105
Describe the ECG appearance in ventricular fibrillation.
The ECG shows a bizarre baseline with prominent undulations, no recognizable P waves or QRS complexes.
106
What characterizes second-degree AV block Type I?
Progressive lengthening of the P-R interval on successive beats followed by P waves without QRS complexes.
107
What is a key feature of third-degree AV block?
No relationship between P waves and QRS complexes; atria and ventricles beat independently.
108
What is the equipment required for orogastric intubation?
Stomach tube, speculum, adhesive tape, lubricant, saline syringe, syringe/funnel for drugs/materials.
109
When is atropine use cautioned during tranquilization for orogastric intubation?
Atropine slows intestinal motility and should not be given before a barium study.
110
When should a cuffed tight-fitting endotracheal tube be used during orogastric intubation?
During anesthesia to prevent aspiration of administered material.
111
How long does the antimicrobial effect of Povidone-iodine solution last?
Approximately 4 to 6 hours.
112
Why is the detergent form of Povidone-iodine solution not recommended for wounds?
It causes irritation and potentiates wound infections.
113
Define debridement.
Debridement is the removal of necrotic tissue from a wound.
114
What is necrotic tissue considered a growth medium for?
bacterial growth.
115
When is debridement considered complete?
Debridement is complete when the wound is free of necrotic tissue.
116
What is mechanical debridement in wound care?
It includes the use of surgical instruments, dressings, and irrigation.
117
Why is drainage necessary in wound management?
Drainage helps relieve the buildup of air or fluid in a wound.
118
What are drains implanted in wounds primarily used for?
Drains are used to reduce the formation of seromas, hematomas, or dead space.
119
What is the most common type of drain used in wound management?
Penrose drains made of soft, latex rubber.
120
What is the fastest route of absorption for large volumes of medication?
The intravenous (IV) route.
121
When should IV administration be preferred for certain solutions?
IV administration is preferred if solutions are caustic, irritating, or hypertonic.
122
For how many days can IV catheters be inserted for long-term administration of medications or fluids?
IV catheters can be inserted for 2-3 days for long-term administration of medications or fluids.
123
Which animals are intraosseous routes most commonly used for?
Intraosseous routes are commonly used for neonatal and smaller animals, as well as animals with circulatory problems.
124
What sites on the body are commonly used for intraosseous administration?
Sites like the femur, humerus, tibia, and sometimes the ilial wing or ischium are commonly used.
125
What must be used to prepare the skin for needle placement in intraosseous routes?
A sterile technique must be used to prepare the skin for needle placement in intraosseous routes.
126
What is the topical route of medication administration?
Topical route involves applying medications directly to the skin, often on top of lesions.
127
What factors affect the absorption rate of medications in the topical route?
Absorption rate in the topical route varies based on the amount applied and how quickly it is absorbed.
128
What preservative maintains cells in packed RBCs without needing reconstitution?
The preservative ADSOL maintains cells in packed RBCs without having to reconstitute them.
129
What is the alternative to packed RBCs?
Oxyglobin solution (bovine hemoglobin) is an alternative to packed RBCs.
130
How long can Oxyglobin solution be stored for?
Oxyglobin solution can be stored for up to 3 years.
131
What is plasma mainly used for?
Plasma is mainly used for volume expansion, hypoproteinemia, pancreatitis, sepsis, and liver toxicities.
132
What are platelet-concentrated or platelet-rich plasma mainly used for?
Platelet-concentrated or platelet-rich plasma are mainly used for thrombocytopenia cases.
133
What does ECG stand for?
ECG stands for electrocardiography.
134
What does the ECG recording represent in terms of heart activity?
The ECG recording represents the amplitude and duration of electrical activity in the heart.
135
What does the P wave on an ECG represent?
The P wave on an ECG represents the depolarization of right and left atria.
136
What does the QRS complex on an ECG represent?
The QRS complex on an ECG represents ventricular depolarization.
137
What does the T wave on an ECG represent?
The T wave on an ECG represents repolarization of the ventricules.
138
Why are dogs with DEA 4 antigen considered universal donors?
Dogs with DEA 4 antigen are considered universal donors as DEA 4 blood type is found in 98% of dogs.
139
How often can blood be collected from a dog donor?
A maximum of 450 mL can be collected from a dog once every 4 weeks.
140
What are the requirements for canine donors' weight?
Canine donors should ideally weigh more than 25 kg (55 lb).
141
What should be done before donating blood to decrease lipemic samples?
Donors should be fasted before donation to decrease lipemic samples of blood.
142
What is the recommended frequency for testing donors for parasites?
Donors should be tested every 6 months for parasites.
143
Why should blood not be donated for 11 to 12 days post-vaccination?
Blood should not be donated for 11 to 12 days post-vaccination due to vaccine effects on platelets and endothelial functions.
144
What are the required health checks for canine donors?
Donors must be in excellent health with yearly normal blood chemistry, CBC, and urinalysis.
145
What sedative is recommended for blood collection in dogs?
The sedative of choice is oxymorphone given approximately 15 to 20 minutes before blood collection.
146
How long should pressure be applied to the jugular vein after blood collection?
Pressure should be applied to the jugular vein for 2 minutes after blood collection to minimize hematoma formation.
147
What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected per donation?
A total of 450 mL of blood constitutes one entire blood collection.
148
What is hidden by ventricular depolarization on an ECG?
The atrial repolarization is hidden by ventricular depolarization or the QRS complex.
149
What supplies are needed for ECG in large animals to prevent electricity conductivity?
Protective padding, blanket, or mat for steel tables (stainless steel conducts electricity).
150
Why should alcohol not be used in an emergency situation for ECG?
Alcohol should not be used if defibrillation is a possibility during an emergency.
151
How should ECG machines for human use be modified?
They may need to change the snap end to an alligator clip and file or bend clips slightly.
152
What position is ideal for animal during ECG recording?
Ideally right lateral recumbency; standing acceptable for large animals.
153
What should be done for continuous monitoring during ECG?
Pads or wires may be used, and fur should be clipped for direct skin contact.
154
What leads are used in a three-lead ECG for animals?
RA (right front), LA (left front), and LL (left hind) labeled as leads.
155
What information should be recorded after completing all lead tracings?
The date of ECG, patient name, client name, species, recumbency, drugs used, technician.
156
What does normal electrocardiographic interpretation include?
Normal heartbeat with P, Q, R, S, and T segments, P wave for every QRS complex, and constant P-R interval.
157
What are examples of isotonic electrolyte solutions?
Examples include lactated Ringer solution, 0.9% saline, Plasmalyte 148, and Normosol-R.
158
What is the purpose of hypertonic solutions?
Hypertonic solutions have an osmolality greater than blood and are used to replenish deficits effectively.
159
Why are colloids useful in patients with cerebral or pulmonary edema?
Colloids are useful as they are designed to stay in the vascular space and expand volume.
160
When are synthetic colloids like hydroxyethyl starch used?
They are used when crystalloids are not effectively improving blood volume, as in large fluid loss cases.
161
What is the initial approach for emergency fluid therapy in severely dehydrated dogs?
Begin by administering isotonic crystalloid fluids at 80 to 90 mL/kg intravenously.
162
What is the dosing recommendation for colloids in dogs during shock?
The dose for colloids in dogs is 20 mL/kg/hr, to be divided into 5-mL/kg boluses and reassessed.
163
How is daily fluid requirement calculated for a patient over 24 hours?
Daily fluid requirement = replacement + maintenance + ongoing losses, with replacement requirement at % dehydration × body weight (kg) × 10.
164
What is the recommended rate for maintenance fluids in dogs?
The rate is 2 to 6 mL/kg/hr, with fluids like Normosol-M indicated for patients not eating or drinking.
165
Define oncology.
Oncology is the study of cancer.
166
Explain metastasis in cancer.
Metastasis is the process where cancer cells spread from the primary to a secondary location.
167
What does the term 'benign neoplasm' refer to?
A benign neoplasm is localized, does not infiltrate other areas, and can be easily excised.
168
Differentiate between benign and malignant neoplasms.
Benign neoplasms do not invade other tissues, while malignant neoplasms can metastasize.
169
How are carcinomas classified?
Carcinomas are malignant tumors that arise from epithelial tissues.
170
What suffix generally indicates a benign tumor?
The suffix -oma generally indicates a benign tumor.
171
List some early warning signs of cancer
Bleeding, difficulty eating, abnormal swelling, weight loss, and abnormal odor are early signs.
172
Explain how surgery is used in cancer treatment.
Surgery involves removing the entire tumor, often used for localized neoplastic disease.
173
What is cryosurgery and when is it used?
Cryosurgery involves freezing cancerous tissue and is used for small lesions on external epithelium.
174
Describe chemotherapy as a treatment for cancer.
Chemotherapy involves treating cancer with cytotoxic agents, generally used for systemic or metastatic cases.
175
What is the purpose of delayed primary closure for wounds?
To allow for drainage and reduction of infection before surgical closure.
176
When is secondary closure (third-intention healing) typically used?
For wounds older than 6 to 8 hours, infected or necrotic, or failed primary closure.
177
What characterizes second-intention wound healing?
Healing by granulation tissue formation and epithelialization without closure.
178
Why is control of hemorrhaging a priority in wound evaluation?
To manage bleeding before assessing for contamination and infection.
179
How should outer wound edges be treated during wound lavage?
Gently scrubbed using a detergent or antimicrobial surgical scrub.
180
What type of pressure is effective for wound lavage?
At least 8 to 12 pounds per square inch (psi) with warm isotonic crystalloid fluid.
(300mmgh pressure slam bag + extension line + catheter without stylet)
181
What type of solutions are recommended for wound lavage?
Isotonic saline, LRS, Ringer solution, and chlorhexidine diacetate solution.
182
Why should hydrogen peroxide be used cautiously for wound irrigation?
It can damage tissues and is not antimicrobial, suitable only for first-time use on dirty wounds.
183
What are the indications for orogastric intubation?
To administer medications, fluids, or nutrients, or remove stomach contents.
184
Describe the procedure for canine male urinary catheterization.
Insert catheter into the urethra, advance into the bladder, and secure in place.
185
What are the types of fluids used in fluid therapy for small animals?
Crystalloids (Isotonic hypertonic hypotonic) and colloids are commonly used in fluid therapy.
186
Describe the precautions involved in cystocentesis.
Use aseptic technique to avoid introducing bacteria into the urinary bladder.
187
What are the common dermatological conditions seen in small animals?
Conditions like allergies, infections, and parasites are common in dermatology.
188
Describe the procedure for blood collection for transfusion in felines.
Collect blood from the jugular vein and transfuse as needed.
189
What is the procedure for performing a basic physical examination in small animals?
Assess general appearance, vital signs, and individual body systems for abnormalities.
190
What equipment is needed for preparing a site for surgical procedures?
Bulb syringe, syringe, cleansing solution, warm water or saline, waste bowls, ceruminolytic agents, mild soap.
191
When using a ceruminolytic agent, how should it be administered?
By dropper or syringe if the eardrum is intact.
192
What should be examined in the ear canal using an otoscope?
Redness, ulceration, odor, exudates, parasites, and integrity of the tympanic membrane.
193
What steps are involved in cleaning the ear canal?
Add fluid, massage, empty the ear, remove debris using cotton swabs, and repeat as needed until clean.
194
What are some possible causes of otitis externa?
Parasites (Otodectes cynotis), bacteria (Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp.), fungi (Candida albicans, Malassezia pachydermatis), foreign bodies, tumors.
195
Where are the anal sacs located in an animal's anatomy?
On either side of the animal's anus at the 4 and 8 o'clock positions.
196
What is the purpose of expressing an animal's anal sacs?
To decrease irritation caused by distention or inflammation, to instill medication, and to remove material.
197
How can anal sac expression be performed externally?
By applying pressure with rolled cotton over the dog's anus in a medial and slightly dorsal direction.
198
What are the characteristics of abrasions?
Dermal wounds with preserved dermis; prefer moist environment for healing.
199
Describe lacerations.
Skin and deeper tissue tearing with minimal trauma; can be cleaned and closed primarily.
200
What defines degloving injuries?
Wounds where a large section of tissue is removed in a glove-like manner.
201
How are degloving wounds typically caused?
Evident in dogs dragged by a car; severe tissue loss in distal limbs.
202
What is important in the treatment of degloving injuries?
Requires aggressive lavage, debridement, and months to heal.
203
What is unique about puncture and bite wounds?
May appear minor on the skin surface but extend subdermally and require exploration, lavage, and debridement.
204
What is essential in managing bite wounds?
Exploration, lavage, and debridement needed; drains are commonly used.
205
How are burns classified based on the depth of the wound?
First-degree (superficial), second-degree (partial dermis), third-degree (full thickness), fourth-degree (extensive).
206
Define pressure sores and explain how they are treated
Sores caused by skin compression, treated with clean, soft bedding, frequent position changes, and hydrotherapy.
207
What characterizes clean wounds in wound classification?
Nontraumatic, noninfected operative wounds not entering hollow organs.
208
Explain second-intention healing in wound healing processes.
Wounds heal from internal to external areas; examples include larger and infected wounds.
209
Describe third-intention healing in wound healing processes.
Initial open wound healing followed by surgical repair; used for severely contaminated or very large wounds.
210
What is involved in primary wound closure?
Primary closure with stitches immediately after injury.
211
What is a third-degree heart block also known as?
Complete heart block
212
How do cells of the heart spread depolarization?
Quickly from SA node to AV node onto Bundle of His, Bundle Branch Blocks (left and right) into purkinji fibers
213
What can fluorescein stain be used to diagnose?
Corneal ulcers
214
In which procedure is gonioscopy used?
Examining iris angle and anterior chamber
215
What are the two genera of fungi that generally cause ringworm?
Microsporum canis and Trichophyton spp.
216
How is a surgical wound defined in terms of contamination?
Contaminated by microbes on tissue and surrounding area
217
What is the term used for a wound invaded by microorganisms eliciting an immune response?
Infection
218
Where should examination be performed for skin lesions?
In a well-illuminated area
219
How should the hair be treated to see underlying skin lesions?
Part or clip fur
220
Where should the patient be checked for hidden lesions?
The mouth, sides of the mouth, and foot pads
221
What type of lesions arise from normal skin?
Primary lesions
222
What type of lesions always develop from preexisting skin lesions?
Secondary lesions
223
What are the two most common causes of ringworm in dogs?
Microsporum canis and Trichophyton spp.
224
What is a common sign of bacterial infections on canine skin?
Yellow pustules
225
What type of test can be used to diagnose Microsporum spp. of the ringworm fungi?
Wood's lamp test (ultraviolet, short wave)
226
How should hair and skin debris be collected for fungal culture?
Using sterile forceps from an area at the margin of the suspected lesion
227
Why should the cap of the fungal culture bottle be slightly loose?
To allow for aerobic conditions
228
What equipment is needed for a necropsy?
Scalpel handle, blades, scissors, forceps, knife, chisel, mallet, saw, shears.
229
What protective clothing may be required for a necropsy?
Gloves, mask, goggles, overalls, boots, apron.
230
What should be confirmed before starting a necropsy?
Correct animal, clinical history, possible causes of death.
231
How should vials or collection tubes be labeled during a necropsy?
Animal's name, date, technician's name.
232
How should the animal be positioned during a necropsy?
Left lateral recumbency.
233
What findings should be noted during a necropsy?
Fluid color, hemorrhage, edema, joint conditions, organ placement and condition.
234
What should be checked in the thoracic organs during a necropsy?
Lungs (color, firmness), heart (pericardium, vessels), major blood vessels.
235
What organs should be examined in the abdominal area during a necropsy?
Liver, spleen, kidneys, urinary bladder.
236
What samples are taken for histopathology during a necropsy?
Tissue (10% buffered formalin fixative, 1 cm thick).
237
What is the most common fixative used for histopathology samples?
10% buffered formalin.
238
How can you check the placement of a feeding tube in an animal's trachea?
Instill 1 mL of sterile saline. If the animal coughs, the tube is in the trachea.
239
How long can a feeding tube typically remain in place in an animal?
The tube can remain in place for approximately 1 week or until the animal tolerates force feeding or eats on its own.
240
What should be done before each feeding regarding the feeding tube?
Aspirate the tube before each feeding and instill 1 mL of sterile saline to check for coughing.
241
What precautions should be taken when using a feeding tube in animals?
Possible administration of materials into the respiratory tract, esophageal trauma, gastric irritation, stress to patients, contraindicated in certain conditions, possible epistaxis, tube obstruction.
242
What are the indications for canine male urinary catheterization?
To collect urine for analysis, measure urine output, relieve a urethral obstruction, administer medication, or perform pneumocystography.
243
What equipment is needed for canine male urinary catheterization?
Mild soap, sterile catheter, sterile lubricant, sterile syringe or container, disposable gloves.
244
How can the appropriate size of a sterile catheter be selected for canine male urinary catheterization?
Based on the dog's weight: 3.5- or 5-Fr for dogs <12 kg, 8-Fr for 12-35 kg dogs, 10- or 12-Fr for >35 kg dogs.
245
What is the procedure for canine male urinary catheterization?
Clip area, cleanse prepuce, select catheter size, estimate length needed, open package, lubricate catheter, advance carefully from urethra into bladder, inflate
246
When is oral medication contraindicated?
Oral medication is contraindicated when the patient is vomiting or has decreased swallowing reflex, injuries to the oral cavity or esophagus, or a disease prohibiting oral intake.
247
How are tablets or capsules administered to animals?
Tablets or capsules are administered by placing them at the base of the tongue, then closing the animal's mouth and observing them swallow.
248
Name at least three common routes for parenteral drug administration.
Common parenteral routes include subcutaneous, intramuscular, and intravenous routes.
249
How is an intramuscular injection administered to an animal?
An intramuscular injection is usually administered using a 22- to 25-gauge needle into the lumbar or epaxial muscles.
250
What is the purpose of restraining or using a tourniquet during intravenous injections?
Restraining or using a tourniquet helps apply proximal pressure to the vein and ensures correct placement of the injection.
251
How should orphaned puppies be fed in the first 3 days?
About 15% of the current body weight divided into several feedings.
252
What weight gain should puppies have in relation to milk intake?
Puppies should gain 1g for every 2 to 5g of milk intake.
253
At what age do a dog's eyes typically open?
7 to 12 days.
254
What is the best time for dewclaw and tail docking in puppies?
Best at 3 to 5 days of age.
255
What is the recommended treatment for extreme hypothermia in neonates?
Slowly increasing the body temperature by reheating with a heat source.
256
What fluid rate is recommended for dehydrated puppies?
Warm fluids at the rate of 3.3mL/100g of weight over 5-10 minutes.
257
What clinical signs are associated with fading puppy or kitten syndrome?
Clinical signs include anorexia, lethargy, and death.
258
What precaution should be taken during anal sac expression?
Be cautious to avoid rupturing abscessed anal sacs.
259
What is the normal content of anal sac material during expression?
Granular, brown, malodorous material.
260
When are enemas used in veterinary procedures?
To prepare for radiographs, remove fecal material, and relieve constipation.
261
What kind of patient may require sedation or anesthesia for an enema procedure?
Cases of severe blockage or fractious animals.
262
Why should hyperphosphate enema solutions not be used in cats or small dogs?
These solutions may cause hypocalcemia and acute collapse.
263
What precautions should be taken to avoid colon rupture during enema administration?
Watch for signs of perforation or obstruction.
264
Why are enemas contraindicated in cases of ulcerative colitis?
They may lead to increased bleeding.
265
What is the size of a microchip typically used for pet identification?
Size of a grain of rice.
266
Where on the body is a microchip typically implanted in pets?
Between the shoulder blades or lateral shoulders.
267
What should be checked before implanting a microchip in a pet?
Scan for existing microchips in the patient.
268
What is the purpose of cystocentesis?
To obtain an uncontaminated sample of urine for analysis or culture.
269
How is the approximate puncture site prepared for cystocentesis?
Clipped and swabbed with isopropyl alcohol.
270
What technique is used to immobilize the bladder during cystocentesis?
Try to immobilize and hold the bladder in place with one hand.
271
What precautions should be taken during cystocentesis?
Avoid bladder squeezing, urine leakage, peritonitis, and contamination.
272
When is cystocentesis contraindicated?
In patients with suspected pyometra, bladder neoplasms, or bleeding disorders.
273
What is a potential risk of manual compression of the urinary bladder?
Bladder rupture if excessive force is applied.
274
What can be examined using urine collected by manual compression?
Solute concentration, physical properties, and chemical constituents.
275
What should be avoided during manual bladder compression?
Excessive force, especially in cases of urethral blockage.
276
How much blood volume indicates the completion of collection from cats?
60 mL
277
What should be done to minimize hematoma formation after blood collection?
Apply pressure to the vein
278
How are refrigerated blood products advised to be administered?
Using an in-line filter to remove debris and clots
279
What temperature should frozen plasma be thawed to before use?
30° to 37°C
280
Why are IV lines flushed only with sodium chloride solutions during blood product transfusions?
To prevent clumping, swelling, or hemolysis of RBCs
281
What is the recommended initial rate of platelet administration?
Slow at 0.35 mL/kg for the first 15 to 20 minutes
282
What are the signs of an acute immunological transfusion reaction?
Hypotension, vomiting, salivation, muscle tremors, and tachycardia
283
How should fresh-frozen plasma be thawed before administration?
Thaw to 98.6°F (37°C) in a warm water bath
284
What is the goal of palliative care in veterinary medicine?
To improve the end-stage patient's quality of life.
285
How is the Quality of Life Scale utilized in palliative care?
To evaluate criteria like hurt, hunger, hydration, hygiene, happiness, mobility on a scale of 0 to 10.
286
What factors are considered before euthanasia to minimize client emotional trauma?
Completing forms, minimizing wait times, maintaining decorum, confirming decisions with clients.
287
Why is euthanasia of healthy pets particularly challenging?
It is upsetting for veterinary staff and clients due to various reasons like behavioral problems or financial issues.
288
What factors should be considered when choosing a method of euthanasia?
Ensuring a quick, painless death with minimal stress, possibility of necropsy, and suitability for the animal's size.
289
What type of tumor is a thymoma?
A malignant tumor of the thymus
290
Why are hospitals noting the location for vaccine administration?
It is easier to identify which vaccine was the possible source of a tumor.
291
What is contraindicated when administering subcutaneous fluids?
there is evidence of chronic heart failure.
292
What is recommended before performing an enema?
Abdominal radiographs
293
Why is a hypotonic crystalloid solution used?
increase intravascular volume.
294
What could moderate dehydration in a conscious patient be estimated at?
7-10%
295
What should be the position of the bevel of the needle during venipuncture?
The bevel of the needle should be upward toward the venipuncturist.
296
How far should the needle be inserted into the vein for medium- to large-sized dogs?
Approximately three fourths of its length.
297
What should the restrainer do after the required amount of blood is collected during venipuncture?
The restrainer should stop the compression of the vein.
298
Why should the restrainer apply light pressure over the venipuncture site for approximately 1 minute?
To promote hemostasis and prevent hematoma.
299
How should a Vacutainer be filled during blood collection?
It should be completely filled for the sample to be viable.
300
What should be done after placing the blood in the Vacutainer using sterile technique?
The Vacutainer should be gently rocked for all the blood to mix with anticoagulant.
301
How are canine blood groups designated?
They are designated by the acronym DEA (dog erythrocyte antigen) and a number.
302
How can DEA 1.1 be detected in canine blood typing?
Rapid blood typing cards or immunochromatographic test kits are used.
303
What can happen if a recipient has anti-DEA 1.1 antibody and receives DEA 1.1-positive blood?
Agglutination and hemolysis can occur.
304
Define the first-intention healing.
First-intention healing is the healing of a wound by primary intention with minimal tissue loss.
305
Describe considerations for euthanasia.
Euthanasia considerations include assessing quality of life, involving the pet owner, and choosing a humane method.
306
List essential data to include in a standardized physical examination form.
Signalment, body weight, body condition score, temperature, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are essential.
307
How is corneal staining performed?
Moisten strip, place under eyelid, check with ophthalmoscope or Wood's lamp.
308
What does the presence of fluorescein dye in the eye indicate?
It indicates corneal ulcers or the patency of the nasolacrimal duct.
309
What is the normal range for intraocular pressure in animals?
15 to 25 mm Hg.
310
What does an intraocular pressure reading greater than 25 mm Hg indicate?
It indicates glaucoma.
311
How is lacrimal flushing performed?
Inject sterile saline, allow it to exit via nasolacrimal duct.
312
What equipment is required for lacrimal flushing?
Cannulas (21-22 gauge), sterile saline, gauze square, overhead lighting.
