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Vet Medicine > Bandaging and Wound Care > Flashcards

Bandaging and Wound Care Flashcards

1
Q

When casting a limb, for optimal effectiveness, which joints must the cast immobilize?

A

The joints proximal and distal to the injury

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2
Q

What are the disadvantages of second intention wound healing?

A

Length of time required
Cost associated with prolonged treatment
Fragility of new wound
Loss of function as a result of scarring or contraction
Poor cosmetic results

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3
Q

A traction splint constructed of rods used for stabilizing long bone fractures in large animals

A

Modified Thomas Splint

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4
Q

A surgical wound that enters the GI tract would be considered:

A

Clean-Contaminated

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5
Q

What is the preferred solution for lavaging a wound?

A

Warm isotonic crystalloid

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6
Q

Why should care be taken not to get an antiseptic such as iodine or chlorhexidine in a wound?

A

They are cytotoxic to wound cells

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7
Q

A sling used in puppies after repair of distal femoral fractures to prevent quadriceps tie-down or contracture:

A

90/90 Flexion Sling

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8
Q

How are ‘clean wounds’ classified?

A

Autramatic and surgically created under sterile conditions

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9
Q

Define ‘laceration’

A

A sharp cut or tear of skin

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10
Q

What type of debridement can convert a small, contaminated wound into a clean wound?

A

En Bloc Debridement

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11
Q

Give an example of biological debridement:

A

Maggots

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12
Q

What type of wound closure is accomplished by apposing the skin over new, healthy granulation tissue?

A

Secondary Closure

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13
Q

An area of skin that has been superficially scraped off would be considered what type of wound?

A

Abrasion

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14
Q

A surgical wound with a major break in sterile technique would be considered:

A

Contaminated

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15
Q

What type of environment promotes wound healing by enhancing cell migration and cleanup?

A

Moist wound environment

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16
Q

Which sling is meant to internally rotate and abduct the femur to maintain reduction?

A

Ehmer

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17
Q

A teflon pad is an example of this wound dressing:

A

non-adherent

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18
Q

A splint that maintains the limb in full extension; includes a lateral splint that reaches over the shoulder or hip.

A

Spica Splint

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19
Q

When should wound drains typically be removed?

A

3-5 days

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20
Q

No closure of a wound will lead to:

A

Second Intention Healing

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21
Q

A natural wound with minor contamination would be considered:

A

Contaminated

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22
Q

A device used to immobilize fractures that is most often made of fiberglass material:

A

Cast

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23
Q

A surgical wound with a minor break in sterile technique would be considered:

A

Clean-contaminated

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24
Q

Define ‘hypotonic’

A

Having an osmotic pressure lower than that of blood plasma

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25
Q

Why might a head bandage be applied?

A

After surgery to absorb drainage
To provide compression against dead space
To protect ear from injury caused by head shaking

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26
Q
A

Ehmer Sling

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27
Q

How often should a support bandage be changed and checked for complications?

A

every 7 days

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28
Q

What factors might reduce an animals ability to heal?

A

Endocrinopathies
Chronic Viral Infections
Diabetes Melitus
Hyperglycemia
Orthopedic or Neurologic Problems
Poor Nutritional Status
Low protein and albumen levels
Obesity

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29
Q

What is the term for removal of foreign matter and dead tissue from a wound?

A

Debridement

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30
Q

How do active drains function?

A

By creating a vacuum within the wound and allowing the fluid to be removed via a rigid fenestrated drain into an external collection container.

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31
Q

Give at least one example of a secondary layer material:

A

Cotton Sheets
Cast Padding
Military Field Bandage
Rolled Cotton
Quilted Leg Wraps

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32
Q

After how many days does contraction of the wound begin?

A

7

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33
Q

What type of closure is appropriate for failed primary wound closure?

A

Secondary Closure

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34
Q

Why can penetrating wounds be difficult to assess?

A

They often cause extensive injury to deeper tissues that is not apparent on inspection of the skin

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35
Q

After how many days does epithelization begin?

A

4-5

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36
Q

Give at least one example of a Primary Layer Adherent material

A

Sterile wide-mesh gauze

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37
Q

During which stage of wound healing is dehiscence most likely to occur?

A

Inflammatory

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38
Q

A device used to prevent abduction of the pelvic limbs, used after reduction of ventral hip luxations.

A

Hobbles

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39
Q

In terms of contamination, an open traumatic wound would be considered:

A

Contaminated

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40
Q

How are ‘clean contaminated’ wounds classified?

A

Created by controlled, surgical entry into contaminated areas (GI tract, resp tract, urogenital tract)

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41
Q

Describe the difference between healthy wound exudate and infected wound discharge

A

Healthy wounds may exude clear, serosanguinous fluid
Infected wounds discharge can be copious with varying consistency, color, and odor

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42
Q

What is the name for cells that are recruited during the proliferative phase that help to form granulation tissue?

A

Fibroblasts

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43
Q

What is the name for the vascularized fibrous tissue that covers a wound if left to heal by second intention?

A

Granulation Tissue

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44
Q

What degree of burn is described as a burn that involves tissues deep to the skin?

A

Fourth-Degree Burn

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45
Q

Which cell has contractile properties and is responsible for wound contraction?

A

Myofibroblast

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46
Q

When removing an equine distal limb cast, which surfaces should be split?

A

Medial and Lateral

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47
Q

A surgical wound into the respiratory tract would be considered:

A

Clean-Contaminated

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48
Q

What bandage type causes nonselective debridement?

A

Wet-to-dry

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49
Q

Give at least one example of a Primary Layer nonadherent, semiocclusive material:

A

Curagel Hydrogel
Hydrosorb Plus Foam
Ultec Hydrocolloid Dressing
Bioclusive Polyurethane Film

50
Q

How are ‘contaminated’ wounds classified?

A

Recent traumatic wound with bacterial contamination (ie: soil, saliva) or major contamination by bacteria during surgical procedures (GI or urogenital tract)

51
Q

Forelimb splints should be applied to which surface of the limb?

A

Caudal

52
Q

What bandage is most frequently used for small animal patients?

A

Modified Robert Jones

53
Q

Skin that may appear yellow-white, black, or charred can be classified as what degree of burn?

A

Second-Degree

54
Q

Secondary closure of a wound will lead to:

A

Third Intention Healing

55
Q

What signs might warn of a pressure sore beginning to form?

A

Redness of the skin and hair loss

56
Q

When a wound heals by granulation tissue formation, epithelialization, and contraction, it has healed by _____ intention.

A

Second Intention

57
Q

Primary closure of a wound will lead to:

A

First Intention Healing

58
Q

What type of dressing allows moisture and air to move through?

A

Semi-occlusive.

59
Q

Define ‘hydrophilic’

A

Having an affinity for water.

60
Q

Skin that is thick, leathery, and often black can be classified as what degree of burn?

A

Third-Degree Burn

61
Q

A wound with a high bacterial count would be considered:

A

Dirty and Infected

62
Q

Give at least one example of a Primary Layer nonadherent, nonocclusive material:

A

Teflon Pads
Petrolium-Impregnated Gauze

63
Q

Give at least one example of a tertiary layer material:

A

Elastikon adhesive tape
Vetwrap Elastic Bandage
Flannel Track Wrap
Kling Conforming Gauze
Ace Bandage

64
Q

After how many days does granulation begin to form?

A

3-5

65
Q

Define ‘inguinal’

A

Pertaining to the groin area

66
Q

Give at least one example of a Primary Layer nonadherent occlusive material:

A

NU-GEL hydrogel
Tegaderm Transparent Dressing
Tegaderm hydrocolloid

67
Q
A

Carpal Flexion Sling

68
Q

How often should a bandage covering a wound with a lot of exudate be replaced?

A

3 times a day

69
Q

Give at least one example of a Primary Layer hypertonic or hyperosmolar material:

A

Honey
Granulated Sugar
20% Sodium Chloride Dressing

70
Q

Skin that is red and painful can be classified as what degree of burn?

A

First-Degree Burn

71
Q

Why is appropriate management of dead space important?

A

Because fluid accumulation increases risk of infection and can further separate tissue plains

72
Q

What is the name for the mesh-like substance in a wound that is attached to the outer cell surface, that provides support and anchorage?

A

Extracellular Matrix

73
Q

Define ‘eschar’

A

Thick, leathery, black layer of dead tissue

74
Q

This is deposited into a wound by fibroblasts during the proliferative phase of healing:

A

Collagen

75
Q

A wound that has healed by secondary closure after allowing granulation tissue to form has healed by ____ intention

A

Third Intention

76
Q

How much of it’s original strength does wound tissue regain?

A

80%

77
Q

What is the name for the space between two tissues that allows accumulation of fluid?

A

Dead Space

78
Q

A wound healed across a surgically closed incision is healed by ____ intention.

A

Primary Intention

79
Q
A

Robert Jones Bandage

80
Q

What makes a bandage ‘occlusive’?

A

The bandage is impermeable to moisture and air.

81
Q

Which intention of healing is most often used on a distal limb in situations where there is little available skin?

A

Second Intention

82
Q

How many organisms per gram of tissue must be present for a wound to be considered ‘infected’?

A

100,000 (10^5) organisms per gram of tissue

83
Q

What type of closure is appropriate for wounds with some contamination, to eliminate infection?

A

Delayed Primary Closure

84
Q
A

Velpeau Sling

85
Q

What does it mean when a cast is ‘bivalved’?

A

The cast has been cut on both sides to create a top and bottom half

86
Q

In terms of contamination, an old traumatic wound would be considered:

A

Dirty and Infected

87
Q

The most commonly used distal limb bandage in small animals; also known as a soft-padded bandage:

A

Modified Robert Jones Bandage

88
Q
A

Modified Robert Jones

89
Q

An immobilization device with a rigid metal frame (no longer recommended)

A

Shroeder-Thomas Splint

90
Q

Which closure is defined as surgical closure of a wound?

A

Primary Closure

91
Q

How are ‘dirty’ wounds classified?

A

Older wounds with obvious infection. More than 10^5 bacterial organisms per gram of tissue.

92
Q

Define ‘hypertonic’

A

Having an osmotic pressure greater than that of blood plasma

93
Q

Rear limb splints should be applied to which surface of the limb?

A

Lateral

94
Q

A very bulky bandage used to immobilize a limb distal to the elbow or stifle joint:

A

Robert Jones Bandage

95
Q

Define ‘isotonic’

A

Having an osmotic pressure equivalent to that of blood plasma

96
Q

Why is healthy granulation tissue pink?

A

Because of an abundance of capillaries

97
Q

Give an example of Mechanical Debridement:

A

Wet-to-dry Bandage

98
Q

When is a tie-over bandage used?

A

On locations where traditional limb bandages cannot be used or would be impractical, such as the inguinal areas

99
Q
A

Hobbles

100
Q

In what phase of healing can you use a wet-to-dry bandage for debridement?

A

Inflammatory

101
Q

Define ‘en bloc resection’

A

A small wound that has been excised completely and closed primarily

102
Q

This tissue is also known as ‘proud flesh’ in horses:

A

Exuberant Granulation Tissue

103
Q

What material is preferred to use for casts?

A

Fiberglass

104
Q

During what phase is wound strength the lowest?

A

Inflammatory

105
Q

A sling used for the forelimb in any situation where weight beating should be avoided, but some movement of the elbow and shoulder is acceptable.

A

Carpal Flexion Sling

106
Q

A device that prevents weight bearing of the pelvic limb; frequently used after closed reduction of craniodorsal hip luxations

A

Ehmer Sling

107
Q

What causes ‘decubitus ulcers’?

A

Pressure on skin over bony prominences.

108
Q
A

90/90 Flexion Sling

109
Q

What is the name for the process in which skin cells advance in a single layer across the wound?

A

Epithelialization

110
Q

How do passive drains function?

A

By allowing fluid to flow along the drain surface as the result of capillary action.

111
Q

What type of injury features a large section of skin torn off the underlying tissue?

A

Degloving Injury

112
Q

Why is water soluble lubricant applied to a wound before the hair around the wound is clipped?

A

To catch the hair falling into the wound and to allow it to be flushed out after clipping

113
Q

To be considered primary closure, the wound closure must occur before what type of tissue is formed?

A

Granulation

114
Q

Define ‘contralateral’

A

The opposite side.

115
Q

For how long can a patient use a non-weight bearing sling?

A

2-3 weeks

116
Q

What makes up wound exudate?

A

White blood cells and fluid leaked from vessels and lymphatics

117
Q

What is the other term for excessive granulation tissue?

A

Proud Flesh

118
Q

In terms of contamination, a surgical wound would be considered:

A

Clean

119
Q

Describe ‘re-epithelialization’

A

Epithelial cells migrating across healthy granulation tissue to re-establish a barrier between wound and enviornment

120
Q

If the correct antimicrobial was selected, how long should it take an infection to resolve after initiation of treatment?

A

2-3 days

121
Q

A device that prevents weight bearing of the thoracic limb; primarily used after reduction of medial shoulder luxations:

A

Velpeau Sling

Vet Medicine (2 decks)

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