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Small Animal Med > Small Animal Med final- old quizzes > Flashcards

Small Animal Med final- old quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

what is pica?

A

hunger for something abnormal

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2
Q

example of pica for a dog

A

rocks

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3
Q

How does an animal get rid of increased body temperature

A

sweating
panting
decreased muscle movement

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4
Q

Veterinary schools teach their students to work up cases using one of two methods. What are they?

A

POA: Problem Oriented Approach
SOAP: Subjective Objective Assessment Plan

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5
Q

define problem?

A

an activity or observation of something that is abnormal from typical behavior

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6
Q

what are 4 benefits from fever in an animal?

A

increased interferon
prevent growth of microorganisms
increased WBC motility
increased phagocytic activity

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7
Q

What are the characteristics that define F.U.O. ?

A

“fever of unknown origin”
duration of at least 2w
1.5 degrees above normal
unable to determine with PE

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8
Q

What are exogenous pyrogens?

A

fever inducing substances that come from outside the body

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9
Q

example of 4 exogenous pyrogens

A

gram + bacteria
tumor
viruses
bacterial endotoxins

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10
Q

What are the two categories of pyrexia?

A

pathologic
physiological

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11
Q

define endothermic vertebrate

A

an animal able to regulate temperature by using the controls of specific body systems

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12
Q

What are the 3 components of plan formulation?

A

observation/data collection
therapeutic
client education

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13
Q

A newborn kangaroo is the size of a

A

lima bean

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14
Q

what are some examples of primary anorexia?

A

headache
unpalatable diets
loss of smell

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15
Q

What are some examples of secondary anorexia?

A

hypercalcemia
stress
malnutrition with ketosis

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16
Q

What are some examples of pseudoanorexia?

A

mandibular paralysis
blindness

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17
Q

T/F: in normal animals. the accumulation of fat stores in the body tends to increase feeding desire

A

false

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18
Q

T/F: pain inhibits the hunger center

A

true

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19
Q

T/F: for most dogs, jumping up is a display of affection, however for some dogs, jumping up is the beginning of dominance

A

true

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20
Q

T/F: cats are easier to give a pill to due to their small size than dogs are

A

False

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21
Q

Which is the most resistant microorganism?

A

Protozoa

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22
Q

Which is not an example of direct contact transmission ?

A

brucellosis

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23
Q

T/F: Animals vomiting in recumbent positions usually results in aspiration

A

true

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24
Q

The gold standard for “ steam under pressure” sterilization

A

121 degrees C at 15lbs/in squared for 15 min

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25
Q

A nervous cat comes into the clinic and is “stressed out” while collecting blood for a screening test. Which WBC(s) is/are most likely to be elevated?

A

lymphocyte

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26
Q

A 6-year old, female dog in your care has an extremely high WBC count (22,000), high neutrophils, normal band, normal hemoglobin, low RBC’s and high monocytes. What is most likely disease that would elicit these blood results?

A

pyometra

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27
Q

T/F: when using radiographs and one view shows the fracture, it is unnecessary and a waste of time and money to take other views

A

false

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28
Q

T/F: a general physical examination of most animals takes 20 min or more if done in a complete, systematic manner

A

false

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29
Q

What 2 WBC’s will be elevated in a baby kitten with a severe, systemic flea infestation?

A

eosinophils
basophils

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30
Q

what is the TPR of a dog?

A

T= 101 degrees F
P= 120 bpm
R= 25 breaths/min

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31
Q

what is the TPR of a cat?

A

T=101 degrees F
P=120 bpm
R= 28 breaths/min

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32
Q

define sanitation

A

the destruction of the bacterial #’s of contaminants to a safe (acceptable, normal) level

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33
Q

define disinfection

A

the destruction of most pathogenic microorganisms

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34
Q

give an example of a small animal disease that has fungus antigen

A

ringworm

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35
Q

give an example of a small animals disease that has protozoa antigen

A

cryptospotidiosis

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36
Q

What is “vector borne transmission” and give an example”

A

illness/disease brought to animal via different species and could be transmitted by the bite
mosquitoes, heartworm

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37
Q

A cat has a low RBC count, a high PVC, low neutrophils, normal band cells, low WBC count and a high monocyte count. What is wrong with this cat?

A

anemic, dehydrated, viral disease

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38
Q

What is the technical term for the surgery to open up a bladder?

A

cystotomy

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39
Q

An acute, overhydrated dog with an overwhelming bacterial infection would show what on his CBC?

A

low PCV, low WBC, low segmented neutrophils, high bands

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40
Q

what is function of ethylene diamino tetraacetate or edetate?

A

to prevent blood from clotting

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41
Q

What is the most consistent, initial clinical sign of canine respiratory disease complex?

A

a dry, hacking cough and bringing up mucus while gagging

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42
Q

Which is not true about borreliosis?

A

10-65% of the common brown dog ticks harbor the spirochete

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43
Q

T/F: All 3 stages (larval, nymphal, adult) of the tick that causes borreliosis will feed on humans

A

true

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44
Q

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of borreliosis?

A

oxytetracycline

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45
Q

T/F: there is no rabies vaccine licensed for use in wild animals

A

true

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46
Q

T/F: dogs are more likely to experience the furious form of rabies

A

false

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47
Q

T/F: canine parvovirus is acute and contagious, and can be transmitted by both direct and indirect means

A

true

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48
Q

which 2 diseases can be spread through contaminated urine

A

parvo & leptospirosis

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49
Q

which disease contains a neurologic component to it?

A

canine distemper

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50
Q

T/F: canine distemper is a stable virus in the environment for years

A

false

51
Q

The rabid cat will most likely go through the

A

prodromal form, then the furious form

52
Q

Which scenario would be indicative of a cat with a current, active toxoplasmosis

A

increase IgM and decrease IgG

53
Q

T/F: feline toxoplasmosis is a different diagnosis for cats with FUO

A

true

54
Q

which virus a has reverse transcriptase enzyme?

A

feline leukemia virus

55
Q

T/F: FIV is a relatively new disease and is similar to the human immunodeficiency virus but is species specific

A

false

56
Q

T/F: FIP is tropic and cytotoxic for T-lymphocytes and thereby induces progressive and often fatal syndrome

A

false

57
Q

T/F: barn cats or any outdoor cat should be vaccinated for leptospirosis

A

false

58
Q

the etiology of FIP is a

A

corona virus

59
Q

T/F: clinical signs of FVR and FCV is are usually self limiting in a 10-14 days

A

true

60
Q

T/F: feline panleukopenia virus (FPV) is extremely stable as it can survive for years in the environment

A

true

61
Q

Which of the following breeds would be a poor choice with the most aggressive traits?

A

dalmation

62
Q

T/F: the positive response to anti-anxiety drug will support a neurological diagnosis

A

false

63
Q

What is the treatment for coprophagia?

A

forbid

64
Q

nippers older brother “psycho” was recently diagnosed with psychomotor aggression. You view a DVD of his latest brutal murder and quickly recommend_______ for his treatment

A

anticonvulsant

65
Q

T/F: inappropriate urination is the most common behavioral problem in cats

A

true

66
Q

T/F: cats prefer an increased population density

A

false

67
Q

T/F: copraphagia is an abnormal animal behavior

A

false

68
Q

T/F: “the mad itch” is a herpes viral infection that causes pyrexia, neuro signs and seizure

A

true

69
Q

T/F: you can expect a positive treatment outcome when treating aggressive dogs with clomicalm medication

A

false

70
Q

which breed of dog has the least amount of aggressive tendencies?

A

german short haired pointers

71
Q

4 reasons cats urinate outside their litter box

A

dirty litter
new litter box
trauma/pain
new type of litter

72
Q

what is the breed predilection and specific treatment for dogs with pancreatic exocrine insufficiency?

A

Breed predilection= german shepherds
specific treatment= viocase (sprinkle enzyme in feed

73
Q

define paresthesia

A

burning, itching sensation that is extremely uncomfortable

74
Q

aggressive behavior may be a result of an organic brain lesion, name 3 types

A

cancer
neuritis
trauma

75
Q

how would you diagnose the “guilty party when you have inappropriate urination in a multi-cat household

A

inject cat with sodium fluoroseen 0.3mLs and use the light to see if the urine will glow in the affected areas

76
Q

Where is aggressive behavior controlled

A

limbic system

77
Q

what is a behavior modification technique to use before leaving

A

give distracting toy or treat

78
Q

what is a behavior modification technique to use when returning

A

wait till the dog calms down before acknowledging

79
Q

when is a behavior modification technique to use when at home

A

diffuse keys and coat

80
Q

why would an adult dog hate other dogs

A

interactions as a puppy

81
Q

what are 4 consequences of copraphagia?

A

damage to teeth
chronic parasitism
impactions to teeth
blockage due to foreign body

82
Q

a 12 year old intact beagle is mutilating his right front foot. There is a raised mushrooming, quarter sized lesion on the dorsal aspect of the foot. Devise a diagnostic plan for this situation

A

CBC
Profile
U/A
PE
History
neuro exam, radiographs, ultrasound

83
Q

T/F: small animals usually have polyuria as their primary problem with a compensatory polydipsia

A

true

84
Q

T/F: animals with a urine specific gravity of > 1.035 are polyuric

A

false

85
Q

T/F: cancer causes PuPd by causing inhibition of ADH

A

true

86
Q

when the glomerular filtrate has a specific gravity equal to plasma which is 1.008 to 1.012, it is known as

A

isosthenuric

87
Q

which diuretic crosses the blood-brain barrier easily?

A

mannitol

88
Q

which causes Pd actually best anticipates water needs prior to actual deficiencies?

A

secondary thirst

89
Q

the concentration of _______ in the body is critical for normal muscle contraction

A

acetylcholine

90
Q

T/F: the antidiuretic hormone control center lies adjacent to the thirst center and is controlled by extracellular fluid osmolality

A

false

91
Q

T/F: organic disease of the nervous system usually creates consistent signs of weakness

A

true

92
Q

T/F: diabetes can be a cause of episodic weakness

A

true

93
Q

define acetylcholine

A

neurotransmitting agent that is sent between brain and muscle to allow muscle to contract

94
Q

T/F: with the loops of henle in the countercurrent system, water is reabsorbed along concentration gradients established in the renal medulla in order to decrease osmolality

A

false

95
Q

define atrophy

A

loss of muscle mass

96
Q

two causes of atrophy

A

destruction of neurons in muscle
not using muscle for various reasons

97
Q

how would heartworm disease cause episodic weakness?

A

located in right ventricle, blocks blood flow & decreases O2

98
Q

what are 2 reasons to terminate the water deprivation test

A

increases osmolality
concentration of urine

99
Q

4 clinical signs of episodic weakness

A

severe panting
collapsing
exhaustion
ataxia

100
Q

what is the water deprivation test primarily used to rule out

A

primary polydipsia

101
Q

T/F: aerobic glycolysis is the most effective way to produce energy in the skeletal muscle

A

true

102
Q

what are the two reasons why urine cannot be concentrated

A

ADH deficiency
medullary washout

103
Q

what is a diagnostic plan for episodic weakness

A

history
PE
Neuro exam
CBC, U/A, profile
EKG
ultrasound & radiographs

104
Q

what is the etiology of canine kennel cough

A

bordetella bronchiseptica

105
Q

define villi

A

fingerlike projections

106
Q

function of villi

A

nutritional absorbtion

107
Q

where anatomically are the popliteal lymph nodes located?

A

behind the knee

108
Q

pro for giving steroids to a dog with parvo

A

animal feels better (eats)

109
Q

con for giving steroids to a dog with parvo

A

suppresses immune system

110
Q

what oral tablet with no pesticide residue can kill fleas within 30 mins?

A

capstar

111
Q

vaccination plan for new puppy

A

8 weeks
-DHPPC
12 weeks
DHPPC
Bordetella
lyme
lepto
16 weeks
DHPPC
Bordetella
rabies
lyme
lepto

112
Q

DHPPC meaning

A

distemper, hepatitis, parvo, corona, parainfluenza

113
Q

etiology of rabies

A

rhabdovirus

114
Q

what should happen to your “vaccinated for rabies” cat that has just been bitten by a potential rabies suspect?

A

the cat should be re-vaccinated immediately, quarantined and observed for 10-45 days

115
Q

define stomatitis

A

an inflammation and/or infection of the tongue and/or mucous membranes

116
Q

a good client brings a stray cat in on an emergency for further evaluation. It is found to be FeLV positive with F.O.C.M.A, anorectic, lethargic, pyrectic, and in poor body condition. Give a summary of your discussion with these new owners

A

this cat is very sick with a (+) FeLV. the presence of FOCMA is a horrible sign and means that the cat will have a shortened lifespan. no tx, only supportive care

117
Q

why is outpatient management of feline respiratory disease complex preferred to in clinic hospitalization?

A

cats do better at home (less stress), dont spread disease all over hospital

118
Q

how do you tell if anemia is regenerative or not

A

cytology of the blood & look for reticulocytes or immature RBCs which indicate a regenerative condition

119
Q

name 4 properties in the fluid analysis of a FIP (+) peritoneal effusion

A

straw or golden colored
increase protein content
SG > 1.018
decreased cell count

120
Q

which disease are you most likely to find nasal commissure ulcers in?

A

calici cirus FCV

121
Q

FVR stands for

A

feline viral rhinotrachitis

122
Q

FVRCP-C stands for

A

feline viral rhinotrachitis, calici, pankeukopenia, chlamydia

123
Q

what are you hopes when treating a FIP positive cat with levamisole

A

stimulate the immune system for extra protection

124
Q

define spleenomegly

A

abnormally enlarged spleen or blood controlling organ

Small Animal Med (2 decks)

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