Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Alimentary - Vomiting and Regurgitation > Small Animal > Flashcards

Small Animal Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three most common causes of oesophageal disease?

A

Oesophagitis

Oesophageal foreign body

Mega-oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the main clinical sign shown in oesophageal disease?

A

Regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are oesophageal disorders characterised by?

A

Failure of transport and/or reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some other clinical signs that present with regurgitation?

A

Hypersalivation

Odynophagia (eating pain)

Anorexia

Dysphagia (swallowing difficulty)

Nasal discharge

Coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the differences between regurgitation and vomiting

A

Vomiting

  • Abdominal effort
  • Prodromal nausea
  • Usually digested food
  • No swallowing pain
  • Alkaline or acidic pH

Regurgitation

  • Passive event
  • No prodromal nausea
  • Undigested food
  • Possibly painful
  • Alkaline pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the first thing that should be done when presented with vomiting?

A

Define/refine the problem

Is it actually vomiting or regurgitation?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What would you find during a physical examination in oesophageal disease?

A

Nothing - usually normal

Could have aspiration pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the main things to be done when investigating oesophageal disease?

A

Diagnostic imaging - plain and contrast radiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What 4 groups do the differential diagnoses for regurgitation fall into?

A

Anatomic

Obstruction

Oesophagitis

Motility Disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe aspiration pneumonia

A

No reflex closure of the larynx with regurgitation

Airway unprotected

Causes aspiration pneumonia

Can be life threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the 3 ways oesophagitis can be caused

A

Chemical injury

  • Corrosive agents
  • Medications

Gastro-oesophageal reflux

  • Anaesthesia
  • Hiatal hernia
  • Vomiting
  • Feeding tubes

Oesophageal foreign bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the ways in which you can treat oesophagitis?

A

Dietary

  • Small meals
  • High protein-low fat food to minimise reflux

Sucralfate liquid

  • Chemical bandage

Inhibitors of gastric acid secretion

  • Protein pump inhibitors (omeprazole)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is needed to investiage an oesophageal foreign body?

A

Endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should be done with an oesophageal foreign body?

A

Endoscopic retrieval

Push to stomach

Potential for mucosal damage/perforation

Consider referral!

Should be considered an emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe vomiting

A

Forceful expulsion of GI contents from mouth

Not a disease but a symptom

Associated with a variety of diseases

Primitive mechanism to eliminate toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the two things that should be defined/refined with a vomiting problem?

A

Chronicity

  • Acute
  • Chronic

Lesion

  • Primary
  • Secondary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the primary causes of vomiting, which are acute/chronic?

A

Acute

  • Dietary
  • Infection
  • Obstruction
  • Motility disorders
  • Gastric volvulus

Chronic

  • Inflammatory disease
  • Neoplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the secondary causes of vomiting?

A

Uraemia

Addison’s disease

Hepatic disease

Pancreatitis

Toxin ingestion

Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the four things that could be done when working up animals with chronic vomiting?

A

Bloodwork - identify organ diseases

Urinalysis - kidney function

Imaging - obstructions or other involvements

Possibly endoscope if no other answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 6 problems that result in gastric ulceration and what are their causes?

A

Neoplasia

  • Lymphoma
  • Carcinoma
  • Leiomyoma/sarcoma

Inflammation

  • Gastritis

Iatrogenic

  • NSAIDs

Systemic

  • Hypoadrenocorticism
  • Liver dysfunction
  • Uraemia
  • Mast cell tumour
  • Gastrinoma

Hypotension

  • Shock
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation
  • Sepsis

Other

  • Stress
  • Spinal surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the problems associated with small intestinal partial obstruction?

A

Vomiting

  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte loss

Diarrhoea

  • Weight loss
  • Hypoalbumninaemia

Bacterial proliferation

Nutrient metabolism

  • Maldigestion
  • Malabsorption causing intestinal mucosal damage
22
Q

What problems can be caused by gastrointestinal bleeding?

A

Haematemesis

Melaena

23
Q

Describe the history and clinical signs associated with gastric foreign bodies

A

More common in younger animals

Previous/known foreign body ingestion

Vomiting

Lethargy

Abdominal pain

Depression

Anorexia

Dehydration

Abdominal pain

Gastric distension

Melaena/haematemesis

Dyspnoea

24
Q

Describe the history and clinical exam of intestinal foreign bodies

A

History - persistent vomiting (frequently projectile)

Anorexia

Depression

No defecation

Clinical exam - dehydration

Depression

Abdominal pain

Intrabdominal mass

String around tongue

25
Q

What are the five types of intestinal neoplasia?

A

Andenoma/adenocarcinoma

Lymphoma

Leiomyoma/leiomyosarcoma

Mast cell

Duodenal polyps

26
Q

What are the presenting signs with intestinal neoplasia?

A

Partial obstruction

Chronic intermittent vomiting

Diarrhoea

Weight loss

27
Q

What is intussusception?

A

Invagination of one portion of the GI tract into the lumen of an adjoining segment

28
Q

What are the presenting signs of intussusception?

A

Palpable tumour mass

Dehydration

Depression

Abdominal pain

Protusion of intussusceptum from anus

29
Q

How can intussusception be determined?

A

Ultrasound

  • Parallel lines
  • Concentric rings

Radiography

  • Gas distension of loops of small intestine
30
Q

When should intussusception be resected?

A

Irreducible

Ischaemic/injured intestines

Mass present

31
Q

What are further treatments for intussusception?

A

Enteroplication

Treatment of underlying disease

32
Q

What is the prognosis for intussusception treatment?

A

Good in young animals

6-27% recurrence in 3 days to 3 weeks post-op

33
Q

What are the clinical signs of septic peritonitis?

A

Vomiting

Anorexia

Depression

Abdominal pain

Abdominal enlargement

Hypovolaemic shock

Pyrexia

Discharge from abdominal wound

Diarrhoea

Haematochezia, melaena and haematemesis

34
Q

What is the single most important test for septic peritonitis?

A

Abdominocentesis

35
Q

What is the treatment of septic peritonitis?

A

Pre-op stabilisation via antibiosis

Exploratory laporotomy - find and correct leak

Peritoneal lavage/drainage

Intensive post-op care with maintenance and nutrition

36
Q

What should be done to gain more information about oral swellings?

A

Fine needle aspirations

37
Q

What is the diagnosis when presented with an oral swelling and stringy serosanguineous fluid upon fine needle aspirate?

A

Salivary mucocoele - usually involves the salivary gland chains

38
Q

Why must the mandibular salivary gland be removed with the sublingual salivary glands?

A

They form a chain and often share a duct system

39
Q

Name the salivary glands

A

Parotid

  • Opens adjacent to upper PM4

Mandibular

  • Opens adjacent to frenulum

Sublingual

  • Opens adjacent to frenulum and in sublingual recess

Zygomatic

  • Opens caudal to parotid gland

Molar

  • Opens in adjacent mucous membrane
40
Q

When do salivary mucocoeles form?

A

When disruption of the gland and duct anatomy lead to saliva leaking into the tissues

Underlying cause not often known

41
Q

What is the most common gland responsible for salivary mucocoeles?

A

Sublingual salivary glands

42
Q

What clinical signs present with salivary mucocoeles and what do they depend on?

A

Painless swelling

Difficulty eating

Dyspnoea

Depend on location of swelling

43
Q

What is a salivary mucocoele that forms under the tongue called?

A

Ranula

44
Q

What are the three places in which large foreign bodies can lodge?

A

Thoracic inlet

Heart base

Caudal oesophagus

45
Q

What is vascular ring anomaly?

A

Developmental anomaly of great vessels

Results in encircling of the oesophagus and trachea

46
Q

What breeds is vascular ring anomaly most commonly seen in?

A

German Shepherds

Irish Setters

Persian cats

Siamese cats

47
Q

What is the advised treatment for vascular ring anomalies?

A

Surgery to release oesophagus

Intercostal thoracotomy

48
Q

What is hypomotility usually accompanied by?

A

Dilatation

49
Q

What is general dilatation usually a result of?

A

Intestinal hypomotility

  • Acute viral enteritis
  • Electrolyte imbalance
  • Drugs
50
Q

What occurs with partial obstruction?

A

Some material retained while some water is absorbed

Some areas have large amount of material other areas not much

51
Q

What is food remaining in the stomach 24h after ingestion evidence of?

A

Delayed gastric emptying

Alimentary - Vomiting and Regurgitation (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions