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Healthy Pop Exam 4 > Small Animal > Flashcards

Small Animal Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the portions of your medical records is an unbiased, impartial assessment of the animal you are examining?

A

(Objective)

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2
Q

Where within your medical record would you include your differentials?

A

(Assessment)

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3
Q

Where within your medical record would you put client history?

A

(Subjective)

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4
Q

Where within your medical record would you put what you are going to do with a patient in a month from today’s visit?

A

(Plan)

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5
Q

Where within your medical record would you include information about the lifestage, behavior, and/or diet of a patient?

A

(Subjective)

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6
Q

What is the most important part of your wellness appointments?

A

(History)

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7
Q

Compare and contrast the grading of BCS versus MCS.

A

(BCS is a scale from 1-9, MCS is normal, mild loss, moderate loss, or severe loss, although Dr. Persons mentions she still grades out of 1-9 for MCS so you do you)

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8
Q

What are the four locations you should evaluate muscle mass over?

A

(Spine, shoulder blades, skull, and hips)

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9
Q

(T/F) Regardless of vaccine status, high risk cats should be tested for FeLV/FIV annually or even biannually.

A

(T)

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10
Q

(T/F) Regardless of vaccine status, dogs should be tested with a 4DX test annually.

A

(T)

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11
Q

What dental disease grade is described: mild to moderate tartar and gingivitis are present on multiple teeth, gingivitis is usually reversible after professional scaling and polishing.

A

(Grade 2)

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12
Q

What is the typical dental disease grade of young, healthy dogs and cats between 6 and 12 months of age?

A

(Grade 0)

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13
Q

With which dental disease grade is tooth loss imminent?

A

(Grade 4)

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14
Q

What life stage is a dog that is still growing and reproductively mature?

A

(Junior)

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15
Q

What life stage is a dog that is finished growing and who is structurally and socially mature?

A

(Adult)

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16
Q

What is the difference between sterilizing and protective immunity?

A

(Sterilizing → disease cannot develop i.e. rabies vaccine; protective → reduces severity of disease i.e. COVID-19 vaccine, hopefully everyone knows that bc they received one if not, bombastic side eye)

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17
Q

What are therapeutic biologics such as cytopoint?

A

(Non conventional vaccines that are intended to support TREATMENT instead of prevention like typical vaccines)

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18
Q

Ideally, vaccines should be given prior to or after (choose one) immunosuppressive therapies.

A

(Prior to)

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19
Q

Preferentially, immunocompromised patients should receive MLV or killed (choose one) vaccines.

A

(Killed)

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20
Q

What are the four core diseases vaccinated against in dogs?

A

(Rabies, canine distemper, canine parvovirus, and canine adenovirus-2)

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21
Q

You are presented with a 6 month old dog who has never had vaccines before. The owner only wants to pursue core vaccines. You consider the dog a low risk for distemper.
A. What vaccines should be given?
B. When should they be revaccinated?
C. How often should revaccination occur after the initial revaccination?

A

A. (You should give a single dose of rabies and distemper)
B. (Both should be boostered one year later)
C. (Rabies → 1-3 years depend on laws, life style, and vaccine label instruction; distemper → every 3 years)

22
Q

What are the five core diseases vaccinated against in cats?

A

(Rabies, feline panleukopenia virus, feline herpesvirus-1, calicivirus, and feline leukemia virus)

23
Q

FVRCP should be boostered every how many weeks in kittens until what age in weeks?

A

(Boostered every 3-4 weeks until 16-20 weeks of age)

24
Q

(T/F) Cats vaccinated for FeLV will be positive on a SNAP test.

A

(F, cats vaccinated for FIV will be positive on a SNAP test, not FeLV)

25
Q

(T/F) In the state of Virginia, all domesticated feline and canine patients must have a rabies vaccination by the age of 16 weeks old.

A

(T)

26
Q

Rabies vaccines should not be given earlier than what age in puppies and kittens?

A

(12 weeks/3 months)

27
Q

(T/F) An animal is not considered immunized against rabies until 28 days after their most recent vaccination.

A

(T)

28
Q

As the levels of maternally derived antibodies varies significantly among litters, the vaccination guidelines group recommends the administration of how many vaccines doses to puppies and kittens, with the final dose of these being delivered at what age or above?

A

(3 vaccine doses with the final dose of these being delivered at 14-16 weeks of age or above)

29
Q

(T/F) The parenteral bordetella vaccine can be administered as early as 2-3 weeks of age in dogs.

A

(F, the intranasal can be administered that early; parenteral cannot be started until 8 weeks of age)

30
Q

Does the intranasal/oral or parenteral bordetella vaccine need two doses given 2-4 weeks apart?

A

(Parenteral)

31
Q

(T/F) Two initial doses, 2-4 weeks apart, are required regardless of a dog’s age for the leptospirosis vaccine.

A

(T, can start it as early as 8-9 weeks in babies but if an owner bring you their 10 year old dog wanting lepto after reading an article about it, they also need two doses 2-4 weeks apart)

32
Q

How early can you start the two dose lyme vaccine series in dogs?

A

(8-9 weeks of age. Second dose should be given 2-4 weeks later. Any dog of any age getting lyme for the first time should get a two dose series)

33
Q

The canine influenza vaccine series should begin how many weeks prior to an expected exposure such as boarding or travel?

A

(4 weeks)

34
Q

How early can you start the two dose canine influenza vaccine series in dogs?

A

(6-8 weeks of age. Second dose should be given 2-4 weeks later. Any dog of any age getting canine influenza for the first time should get a two dose series)

35
Q

How much feces is needed for a centrifugal fecal floatation?

A

(At least 3 grams of feces)

36
Q

The American Heartworm Society recommends annual screening for heartworm in all dogs over what age with both an antigen and microfilaria test?

A

(7 months of age)

37
Q

(T/F) Most microfilaria positive dogs can be detected by direct smears so direct smears can be used with asymptomatic patients known to be on regular HW preventative.

A

(T)

38
Q

What microfilaria test should be used under situations of increased possibility of heartworm such as symptomatic dogs, previous heartworm preventative hx unknown, dog not on year-round preventive, dog older than 6 months and never on preventative, and anytime you suspect heartworm?

A

(The microfilaria knotts test)

39
Q

What tick says f**k all of you and your assumptions that ticks are a summer pest and has peak activity in the winter, which is an argument for why flea and tick prevention should continue in winter months?

A

(Ixodes scapularis aka the fricking carrying of lyme disease)

40
Q

Which of the following does not tolerate freezing temperatures?
A. Toxocara
B. Ancylostoma
C. Trichuris

A

(B, the eggs of the other two are not killed by freezing)

41
Q

(T/F) You do not need to start kittens on dewormer as soon as possible like in puppies because hookworms are not a concern in pet cats.

A

(T, should tx them every 3 weeks until 12 weeks of age)

42
Q

(T/F) Broad spectrum end of life care only pertains to hospice-supported natural death.

A

(F, broad spectrum end of life care also includes death by euthanasia → it entails providing physical, emotional, and social needs of animals from their terminal diagnosis to death whether it be euthanasia or natural)

43
Q

What is the goal of palliative care?

A

(Relieve suffering through treatment that supports or improves quality of life)

44
Q

What are the cons to CO/CO2 for euthanasia? Three answers.

A

(It is challenging, expensive, and there is a risk to personnel)

45
Q

What agents are unacceptable for use as euthanasia agents in conscious vertebrate animals? Three answers.

A

(Magnesium sulfate, potassium chloride, and neuromuscular blocking agents)

46
Q

(T/F) It is best for the veterinarian to bring up euthanasia first.

A

(T)

47
Q

What are the exceptions to the VA laws saying euthanasia can only be performed by or under direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian?

A

(Shelters and animal control officers)

48
Q

Injection of what agent is the only approved method for routine and emergency companion animal euthanasia in VA besides anything approved by the AVMA guidelines?

A

(Sodium pentobarbital)

49
Q

What sign of death is the only sign of death that confirms death when it is alone i.e. no other signs need to be present?

A

(Rigor mortis)

50
Q

What are the eight assessments that must be performed 5 and 30 minutes after administration of sodium pentobarbital to a patient for the purpose of euthanasia in the state of VA?

A

(Auscultation and palpation of no heartbeat, auscultation, palpation and visual confirmation of no respiration, no corneal reflex, no toe-pinch reflex, and no CRT)

51
Q

When do you need to check the 8 parameters of death confirmation (as set per VA) after administration of sodium pentobarbital? Two answers.

A

(5 and 30 minutes after giving the injection)

Healthy Pop Exam 4 (3 decks)

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