Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IQT > SMA HH60G MQF 15 AUG 2021 > Flashcards

SMA HH60G MQF 15 AUG 2021 Flashcards

1
Q

(T/F): Medical evacuation flights may be operated to transport seriously ill or injured persons, and/or to transport medical personnel, equipment, or supplies under emergency conditions when other means are not suitable or readily available. Ensure mission requests are coordinated through appropriate Rescue Coordination Center (RCC).

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In which of the following flights in a passenger never allowed, even if they are designated as MEP?

A. Any flight involving remote ops

B. Any flight involving NVG air refueling

C. Any flight involving practice water operations

D. Any flight involving practice emergency procedures

A

D. Any flight involving practice emergency procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Aircraft that remain on alert for more than ___ hours require a preflight by maintenance personnel in addition to a full preflight by a qualified crewmember.

A. 72

B. 24

C. 36

D.96

A

A. 72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hoist equipped alert aircraft will plan for a/an _____ in the event of a hoist malfunction/failure.

A. Primary insertion

B. Hoist quick splice kit

C. Raft

D. Alternate insertion/extraction

A

D. Alternate insertion/extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

(T/F): Once aircraft is accepted for alert, make the following entry in the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) FORM 781A, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document: “INFO NOTE: Aircraft accepted for alert (time/date). HIT, Hover and Hoist checks completed”.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

To ensure integrity of the preflight, no maintenance (aircraft or weapons) will be performed without approval of the AC. A _____ will be present whenever maintenance is performed, or at the completion of the maintenance to check the area(s) in which maintenance was performed, to include the appropriate cockpit configuration.

A. Flight engineer

B. Aircraft commander

C. Qualified HH-60 aircrew member

D. Aerial Gunner

A

C. Qualified HH-60 aircrew member

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who may direct arming of crewmembers as deemed necessary by mission threat analysis?

A. Aircraft commanders

B. Group commanders

C. Squadron commanders

D. Wing commanders

A

C. Squadron commanders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

With _____ approval, civilian law enforcement or medical personnel may be transported to mishap/disaster sites when responding under immediate response authority (IRA) as outlined in AFI 10-801. Under imminent, serious conditions, when unable to make contact for approval or time does not permit approval, the military commander may approve civilian law enforcement/medical personnel to aboard the aircraft to save lives, prevent human suffering, or mitigate great property damage within the United States.

A. Wing/CC

B. OG/CC

C. SQ/CC

D. MAJCOM A3

A

A. Wing/CC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The responsibility for mission planning/preparation is shared jointly by the individual _____, and the operations and intelligence functions of the organization.

A. Copilots

B. Flight Leads

C. Aircrew members

D. Aircraft commanders

A

C. Aircrew members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

While over featureless terrain or water, limit _____ to those necessary for mission accomplishment.

A. Formation maneuvers

B. Communications

C. Climbs and descents

D. None of the above

A

A. Formation maneuvers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The ______ ensures all passengers are briefed IAW applicable flight manuals and MAJCOM guidance.

A. Aerial Gunner

B. Flight engineer

C. Aircraft commander or flight lead

D. Squadron/CC

A

C. Aircraft commander or flight lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The following minimum weather weather criteria (ceiling/visibility) apply during VFR training operations: Day training ____, Night unaided and emergency procedures ____, NVG ____.

A. 1000/3, 700/1, 700/3

B. 1000/3, 700/2, 800/2

C. 700/1, 1000/3, 700/2

D. 700/1, 700/2, 700/3

A

C. 700/1, 1000/3, 700/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For all flights, VFR or IFR, plan to land at the destination with no less than ____ pounds of usable fuel.

A. 300

B. 400

C. 500

D. 600

A

C. 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Helicopters may be authorized by the squadron commander to operate into prepared/unlighted areas unaided, provided the crew is aware of all ____, and aircraft lighting provides sufficient illumination to clearly see the ____, landing surface, and obstacles.

A. Obstacles/wind sock

B. Lighting/approach path

C. Obstacles/approach path

D. Training rules/survivor location

A

C. Obstacles/approach path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Conduct all operations at or above ____ feet AGL except when lower altitudes are required for takeoff, departure, arrival, landing, operational missions, exercise/training flights in approved areas or approved exercise missions.

A. 200

B. 400

C. 500

D. 1000

A

C. 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(T/F): When the route of flight is beyond autorotational distance from land, all occupants will wear life preservers, aircrew members will wear approved underwater breathing devices, a life raft will be carried onboard the aircraft, and anti-exposure suits will be worn IAW AFI 11-301, Aircrew flight Equipment series and MAJCOM instructions.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A publication kit ____ be onboard the aircraft prior to departure.

A. May

B. Should

C. Must

D. Will not

A

C. Must

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

TOLD will be computed and briefed _____.

A. Prior to crew show

B. Prior to crew brief

C. Prior to preflight

D. Prior to takeoff

A

D. Prior to takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Flying units will maintain a _____ weight and balance book within flight planning areas.

A. Digital

B. Reference only

C. Hardcopy

D. None of the above

A

C. Hardcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A _____ device and V-blade knife will be readily available during hoist operations.

A. Hoist Cable Cleaning

B. Hoist Cable Quicksplice

C. Hoist Cable Snatch Block

D. Hoist Cable Weight Check

A

B. Hoist Cable Quicksplice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The _____ will ensure aircrew and deploying personnel are aware of the length of the devices.

A. Safetyman

B. Flight engineer

C. Deploying team

D. Aircraft commander

A

D. Aircraft commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Regarding the maintenance debriefing, the _____ will debrief maintenance personnel on the condition of the aircraft and equipment.

A. Flight lead

B. Enlisted aircrew

C. Aircraft commander (or designated crewmember)

D. Other aircraft commander

A

C. Aircraft commander (or designated crewmember)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Operations will not be conducted with any malfunction in the _____, quantity or warning systems, except on life or death missions.

A. Hydraulic fluid

B. Main fuel tank

C. Spare fuel tank

D. Auxiliary fuel tank

A

B. Main fuel tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Accomplish all flight manual checklists using the Challenge - Response (C-R) method for _____ checklist procedures.

A. Normal

B. Refueling

C. Weapons

D. Emergency

A

A. Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A restraint device will be worn by _____.

A. All personnel

B. Anyone not an evaluator

C. Anyone not an instructor

D. Mission essential personnel

A

A. All personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Secondary restraint device attachment points will be the cabin cargo tiedown fittings or Crew Overhead Restraint System (CORS) cable. A maximum of _____ restraint devices will be attached per cargo tiedown ring.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

A

B. 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Aircraft may be flown with ___ strobe light(s) inoperative.

A. One

B. Two

C. Both

D. All

A

A. One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Aircraft may operate in restricted areas and warning areas with _____ lighting IAW AFI 11-202V3 and Federal Aviation Administration exemptions.

A. All

B. Some

C. Reduced

D. No

A

C. Reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Without wing walkers, aircrew will abide by taxi distances and restrictions per AFI 11-218, Aircraft Operations and Movement on the Ground, and will not taxi an aircraft within ____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers and no closer than ____ feet with wing walkers unless exempt or waived.

A. 25, 5

B. 25, 10

C. 100, 5

D. 100, 10

A

B. 25, 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The maximum ground taxi speed is ____ knots ground speed.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

A

B. 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Rotor turning crew changes are authorized. The new crew will review aircraft ____, weight and balance, ____ and completed asterisk items of the “Before Takeoff” checklist.

A. Forms, fuel quantity

B. Form 70, Pax manifest

C. Forms, TOLD

D. Fuel Quantity, TOLD

A

C. Forms, TOLD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If a situation is encountered where the aircraft is on a Red X and qualified maintenance personnel are not available, home station maintenance supervision may authorize the ____ to clear the red x condition.

A. Chief of Maintenance

B. SQ/CC

C. Aircraft Commander

D. Flight Engineer

A

D. Flight Engineer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When not directly involved in the refueling operation, personnel will remain clear of the fuel servicing safety zone (FSSZ), with the exception of ____.

A. VIPs (General Officers, High ranking foreign nationals)

B. Large Force exercises/General Aviation FBOs

C. Approved Hot Refueling/FARP/Contingency Operations

D. None of the above

A

C. Approved Hot Refueling/FARP/Contingency Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In the event a forced or precautionary landing occurs at a location where communications are not available, the following procedures apply: If the aircraft is safe for flight, the _____ may authorize a one time flight to a suitable location for a corrective maintenance accessibility or to a location where communication can be established.

A. Aircraft Commander

B. Evaluator Flight Engineer

C. Instructor Flight Engineer

D. Maintenance Qualified Pilot

A

A. Aircraft Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When conducting multiple approaches to the same area, power available/required will be briefed for the maneuver that provides the _____ power margin.

A. Smallest

B. Greatest

C. Wind corrected

D. Out of ground effect

A

A. Smallest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When the anticipated power margin is 10% or less, a second aircrew member will reconfirm power computations. One crewmember will utilize the ____ and the other will utilize flight manual performance charts or ____ to provide two sources of TOLD.

A. Last knows TOLD/Best guess based on fuel burn

B. Pre-mission brief TOLD/CDU

C. CDU/approved automated programs

D. None of the above

A

C. CDU/approved automated programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The landing zone power available requirement for training approaches to a site with a clear escape route is; power available must be equal to or greater than power required for:

A. OGE hover power

B. The intended hover height

C. OGE hover power (no greater than 50ft) +5%

D. The intended hover height (no less than 10 feet) +5%

A

D. The intended hover height (no less than 10 feet) +5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The landing zone power available requirement for training approaches to a site with a restricted escape route is: power available must be equal to or grater than ______.

A. OGE power hover

B. The intended hover height

C. OGE hover power +5%

D. The intended hover height +5%

A

C. OGE hover power +5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When landing to a surface area smaller than your rotor diameter, such as a pinnacle, or ridgeline, power for an ____ hover must be available (training and operational)

A. IGE

B. OGE

C. IGE +5%

D. OGE +5%

A

B. OGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The use of contingency power for pre-mission and in-flight planning purposes is _____.

A. Mandatory

B. Advisable

C. Prohibited

D. Normal

A

C. Prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Except during operational/exercise CSAR missions, landings to a non-surveyed/unprepared landing zones require a ____ and ____ recon.

A. Thorough/Hasty

B. High/Low

C. Map Data/On the approach

D. Obstacle/Route

A

B. High/Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When training/re-currency is being conducted in the cabin, the instructor/flying supervisor _____ be used as a primary scanner on the opposite side of the aircraft.

A. Will

B. May

C. Should

D. Will Not

A

D. Will Not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which one of the following may be practiced in the aircraft during emergency procedure sortie:

A. Power Settling

B. Single DEC malfunctions

C. Dual DEC malfunctions

D. Actual engine shutdown in flight

A

B. Single DEC malfunctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Accomplish all emergency procedures to runways, taxiways, helipads, or other areas approved by the ____ and listed in the local chapter 8.

A. Group Commander

B. Aircraft Commander

C. Squadron Commander

D. MAJCOM commander

A

C. Squadron Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When torque available is limited by actual throttle manipulation the landing area should be a/an ____ and must provide ample room for a/an ____.

A. Runway/Go-around

B. Auxiliary field/autorotation

C. Prepared area/roll-on landing

D. Low-level area/autorotation

A

C. Prepared area/roll-on landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Do not initiate a stabilator malfunction when aircraft attitude is greater than ____ nose low.

A. 10 degrees

B. 15 degrees

C. 20 degrees

D. 25 degrees

A

A. 10 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

All practice autorotations will be terminated no lower than ___ feet AGL, and a maximum ground speed of ___ knots.

A. 10, 30

B. 15, 30

C. 10, 80

D. 15, 80

A

B. 15, 30

48
Q

During rope ladder operations, the maximum number of personnel on the ladder is limited to ___.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

A

B. 3

49
Q

If any flight member/element calls “Blind”, then the other flight member/element will acknowledge will ___ and an informative position call or acknowledge with “Blind”

A. Acknowledged

B. Visual

C. Contact

D. Tally

A

B. Visual

50
Q

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury and/or loss of life if not carefully followed.

A. Note

B. Hazard

C. Caution

D. Warning

A

D. Warning

51
Q

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damaged to equipment if not carefully followed.

A. Note

B. Hazard

C. Caution

D. Warning

A

C. Caution

52
Q

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize.

A. Note

B. Hazard

C. Caution

D. Warning

A

A. Note

53
Q

Words used when application of a procedure is mandatory.

A. May

B. Might

C. Should

D. Shall and will

A

D. Shall and Will

54
Q

Words used when application of a procedure is recommended.

A. Will Not

B. Might

C. Should

D. Shall and will

A

C. Should

55
Q

Words used to indicate an acceptable or suggested means of accomplishment.

A. May

B. Won’t

C. Should

D. Shall and will

A

A. May

56
Q

Control of fuel to the engine combustion system is done by the ___.

A. Boost Pumps

B. Prime pumps

C. Mechanical Pumps

D. Hydromechanical Unit

A

D. Hydromechanical Unit

57
Q

The ___ supplies power to the engine ignition exciter.

A. Auxiliary Generator

B. Engine Alternator

C. Main Generator

D. Main Alternator

A

B. Engine Alternator

58
Q

Complete loss of the engine ___ will result in a loss of Ng signal (with corresponding ENG OUT warning audio and light) as airframe power will continue to sustain the DEC.

A. Alternator

B. Fuel Pump

C. Scavenge Pump

D. Hydromechanical Unit

A

A. Alternator

59
Q

The ___ controls the electrical function of the engine and transmits information to the cockpit.

A. Overspeed Drain Valve (ODV)

B. Digital Electric Control (DEC) Unit

C. Engine Alternator

D. Both A and B

A

B. Digital Electric Control (DEC) Unit

60
Q

The engine ignition system is a ___ AC powered, capacitor discharge, low voltage system.

A. Continuous

B. Noncontinuous

C. Continuously cycling

D. Continuously Non-cycling

A

B. Noncontinuous

61
Q

Two sensors are installed on the exhaust frame of the engine. One sensor provides the ___ signal to the DEC. The other sensor feeds the torque computation circuit and ___ overspeed protection system.

A. Nr

B. Nf

C. Ng

D. TGT

A

B. Nf

62
Q

When either CONT PWR switch is activated, it provides bias to both DECs to increase the TGT limiter of both engines from the 10 minute limiting value (857-875 Degrees C) to the 2.5 minute limiting value (___ - ___),

A. 0 - 810 Degrees C

B. 903 - 949 Degrees C

C. 881 - 901 Degrees C

D. 886 - 896 Degrees C

A

C. 881 - 901 Degrees C

63
Q

To perform a cross bleed start, operating engine must be at least ___ percent Ng, 100 percent Nr, APU Off, and Air Source Heat/Start switch placed to ENG, with engine ant-ice off.

A. 90

B. 95

C. 100

D. 100

A

A. 90

64
Q

Power turbine speed is not governed until the throttle is advanced from ___.

A. Fly

B. Off

C. Idle

D. Lockout

A

C. Idle

65
Q

With throttle at DEC LOCKOUT, ___ system is deactivated and TGT must be manually controlled.

A. Load Demand

B. Manual TGT limiting

C. Overspeed protection

D. Automatic TGT limiting

A

D. Automatic TGT limiting

66
Q

What are the two mechanical inputs from the cockpit to the HMU?

A. Collective output and engine throttle

B. Collective output and fuel selector

C. Cyclic output and engine throttle

D. Cyclic output and fuel selector

A

A. Collective output and engine throttle

67
Q

The Engine Trim switch is located on the copilot’s overhead panel and controls the speed of both engines ____.

A. Individually

B. Involuntary

C. Mechanically

D. Simultaneously

A

D. Simultaneously

68
Q

If the throttle is placed in LOCKOUT, the engine will still increase/decrease power in response to ____ changes.

A. DEC

B. Nf governing

C. Collective (LDS)

D. Load sharing

A

C. Collective (LDS)

69
Q

Overspeed protection protects the power turbine from destructive overspeeds by triggering at ____.

A. 110% +/- 2% Ng

B. 110% +/- 2% Nf

C. 120% +/- 1% Ng

D. 120% +/- 1% Nf

A

D. 120% +/- 1% Nf

70
Q

With the No. 1 or No. 2 starter circuit breakers pulled, the engine will ____ when the overspeed test is performed.

A. Restart

B. Flameout

C. Continue to operate

D. Continuously reignite

A

B. Flameout

71
Q

If Ng increases above ___ +/- 2% due to Nf overspeed protection failure, the HMU will cutoff fuel flow and the engine will flameout with no automatic relight or capability of restart.

A. 106% Ng

B. 110% Ng

C. 120% Ng

D. 110% Nf

A

B. 110% Ng

72
Q

A/An ____ provides automatic fuel flow, ignition, and operation of the APU.

A. Digital Electronic Unit (DEU)

B. Electronic Control Unit (ECU)

C. Electronic Starting Unit (ESU)

D. Electronic Sequence Unit (ESU)

A

D. Electronic Sequence Unit (ESU)

73
Q

An APU accumulator may be recharged by these methods: An electric ground cart which powers the ____ hydraulic pump or a hydraulic ground cart connected to the ____ hydraulic system, the ground test quick disconnects, or by use of the hand pump.

A. APU

B. Backup

C. No. 1

D. No. 2

A

B. Backup

74
Q

If during an APU start attempt using the override switch, with a GTC-P-36-150 APU installed, if the APU control switch is not placed on while ____ activating the manual override lever, it is likely the APU will fail to start.

A. Simultaneously

B. Waiting 10 seconds to begin

C. Continuously

D. Waiting 30 seconds to begin

A

A. Simultaneously

75
Q

The blades have a built-in negative ___ degree twist to provide equal lift across the blade span. The tip cap is swept back ___ degrees to decrease noise and tip vortices while increasing airspeed.

A. 10, 20

B. 20, 10

C. 18, 20

D. 20, 18

A

C. 18, 20

76
Q

Rotor break modified aircraft are ____ from performing any engine operations with the gust lock engaged. Use rotor break instead of gust lock for rotor stopped engine runs on rotor break installed aircraft.

A. Limited

B. Prohibited

C. Restricted

D. Controlled

A

B. Prohibited

77
Q

Aircraft modified by the -142 Plus Chip Detector System: Helicopter equipped with BIT chip detectors will automatically test for a continuous circuit from the caution/advisory panel lights to the chip detector once the BATT switch is turned ON. All transmission CHIP caution lights, with the exception of the CHIP MAIN MDL SUMP, will illuminate immediately and stay on for ___ seconds and then go out, indicating a continuous circuit exists (checks good).

A. 30 - 45

B. 60

C. 45 - 70

D. 45

A

C. 45 - 70

78
Q

If the 200 Gallon Internal Auxiliary Fuel Tank contains more than ___ pounds of fuel, the lower cargo rings structure securing the left and right restraint beams may fail on impact with the ground, causing the tank to dislodge.

A. 550 +/- 50

B. 172

C. 538

D. 650

A

D. 650

79
Q

When the thermistor in the bent line detects an overflow the OVERFLOW indicator on the fuel management panel will go on. Holding the MAIN switch to ____ (Fuel Mgmt Panel) will close the shutoff valve to the main tanks and cause the indicator to go off.

A. SHUTOFF

B. OFF

C. XFER

D. ON

A

A. SHUTOFF

80
Q

If flow rate through the utility module to the APU accumulator becomes excessive, a ____ shuts off flow.

A. Shutoff valve

B. Logic Module

C. Pressure switch

D. Velocity fuse

A

D. Velocity fuse

81
Q

____ servos (collective, yaw, and pitch) installed between the cockpit controls and the mixing unit reduce cockpit control forces.

A. SAS 1

B. SAS 2

C. Boost

D. FPS

A

C. Boost

82
Q

A ____ failure advisory may not automatically cause a Flight Bite Code (FBC) to appear on the AFCC ETI/BITE DISPLAY. This is normal and is designed to reduce nuisance error codes.

A. SAS 1

B, SAS 2

C. boost

D. trim

A

D. trim

83
Q

If the ground BITE Check is inadvertently initiated, ____ to ensure the FPS authority has been reenabled. The FPS authority will be disabled for approximately 1 minute upon initiation of this check.

A. do not takeoff for approximately 2 minutes

B. initiate takeoff after approximately 30 seconds

C. immediately takeoff

D. you should perform hover check

A

A. do not takeoff for approximately 2 minutes

84
Q

The ____ enhances dynamic stability in the pitch, roll, and yaw axis.

A. stability augmentation system (SAS)

B. turn coordination

C. boost

D. trim

A

A. stability augmentation system (SAS)

85
Q

As the vertical gyro comes up to speed or when system is shutdown, derived pitch/roll rate signal which feeds SAS-1 will cause small oscillations in pitch and ross SAS actuators. This is a temporary situation and can be eliminated by pressing ____ switch off.

A. SAS 2

B. SAS 1

C. boost

D. trim

A

B. SAS 1

86
Q

When trim is disengaged and SAS-1 or SAS-2 are engaged; drift of the cyclic stick in the fore and/or aft direction after a slight bump of the grip is ____.

A. Normal

B. Grounds to return aircraft to maintenance for corrective action

C. Abnormal

D. Not allowed

A

A. Normal

87
Q

The collective friction lock must fully ____ for proper operation of the IAHHS system.

A. raised

B. Lowered

C. Tightened

D. Loosened

A

D. Loosened

88
Q

When operationally checking the hoist on the ground, the backup pump control switch must be placed in the ____ for the CCB to function normally.

A. OFF

B. ON

C. AUTO

D. NORMAL

A

C. AUTO

89
Q

Concerning hoist operations, a/an ____ is not provided in the backup mode. Do not seat the hook against the roller housing when reeling cable in.

A. Up limit switch

B. Down limit switch

C. Cable centering switch

D. Cable shear switch

A

A. Up limit switch

90
Q

On the GAU-18/A the bolt is locked to the barrel extension assembly by the ____ lock cam.

A. Bolt

B. Breech

C. Barrel

D. Elliptical

A

B. Breech

91
Q

On the GAU-18/A, the ____ cams the firing pin extension to its rearward position, allowing the sear to engage the sear notch and hold it in the cocked position.

A. firing pin tang

B. bolt switch

C. cocking lever

D. extractor

A

C. cocking lever

92
Q

Concerning the GAU-18/A, the barrel and barrel extension travel rearward a total distance of ____ inches, until they are stopped and locked by the oil buffer body.

A. 1/2

B. 1 1/8

C. 2 3/4

D. 7 1/8

A

B. 1 1/8

93
Q

The GAU-18/A receiver assembly and barrel jacket assembly support and protect the ____.

A. rod assembly

B. slide assembly

C. cover assembly

D. barrel assembly

A

D. Barrel assembly

94
Q

On the GAU-18/A, the ____ applies operating voltages to the .50 caliber booster drive assembly and provides a through connection for the gun ICS switch.

A. CEU

B. DEC

C. ECU

D. GCU

A

C. ECU

95
Q

Concerning the GAU-18/A electrical harness, the AC output interfaces the ____ with the ____.

A. ICS/booster motor

B. booster motor/ECU

C. triggers/master arm override

D. booster/last round switch

A

B. Booster motor/ECU

96
Q

The minigun weapons system uses a/an ____ motor to provide drive for the mechanical operation of the minigun.

A. DC

B. AC

C. Hydroelectric

D. Hydromechanical

A

B. AC

97
Q

On the GAU-2, the ____ is the main structural component of the gun and is supported in the gun housing by front annular ball bearings and supports the barrel cluster.

A. the bolt assembly

B. Rotor assembly

C. Clutch assembly

D. Removable tracks

A

B. Rotor assembly

98
Q

On the GAU-2 ____ provide(s) a bearing surface on the bolt assemby’s side.

A. Gun housing

B. Rotor assembly

C. Removable tracks

D. Elliptical cam path

A

C. Removable tracks

99
Q

On the GAU-2, the inner surface of the safing blade contains the ____ of the cam path which brings the bolt assemblies into battery position and allows the firing pins to be cocked.

A. cover

B. triggering elliptical

C. segment

D. Bearing surface

A

C. segment

100
Q

When the safing blade is lifted up in the ____ position, the firing pins are unable to be released in the rotor assembly proving a mechanical safety that functions as a cycling sector.

A. Open

B. Closed

C. Locked

D. Unlocked

A

A. Open

101
Q

On the GAU-2 the clutch solenoid remains energized for ____ msecs upon release of the triggers.

A. 40

B. 80

C. 400

D. 30

A

A. 40

102
Q

On the GAU-2, the booster drive remains energized for ___ msecs upon release of the triggers.

A. 40

B. 80

C. 400

D. 30

A

B. 80

103
Q

After flight, fluid in the hydraulic system will be hot. Piston movement of up to ____ inch into the blue (black on some pumps) overfill zone is acceptable. When piston is beyond this limit, bleed off enough fluid to bring the piston back to ____ inch above the fill limit.

A. 1 / 4

B. 3 / 8

C. 2

D. 1/2

A

B. 3 / 8

104
Q

The thru-flight checklist should be accomplished when the helicopter is assigned missions which require intermediate stops, including shutdown, when flown by the same crew that does not take a crew rest and ____ maintenance has been performed during the stop.

A, No

B, Some

C. Ground

D. Adjustment

A

A. No

105
Q

Do not preflight until ____ systems are safe, switches off, safety pins installed, and safing bars installed.

A. Hoist

B. Hydraulic

C. Armament

D. Secure communication

A

C. Armament

106
Q

Re-accomplish the applicable numbered item of the exterior inspection checklist when maintenance has been performed in that area after the following conditions: 1. the flight crew has initiated the EXTERIOR INSPECTION (and subsequent) checklist and remain at the aircraft during maintenance corrective action. 2. after a precautionary landing and ____.

A. FE clears the red X

B. Emergency is terminated

C. Safe to do so

D. Maintenance has been performed

A

D. Maintenance has been performed

107
Q

Regarding the hoist anti-chaff bar, cuts and pits in the bar could cut or damage the hoist cable. Damage ____ be repaired and marks ____ be painted over prior to hoist operation.

A. should, should

B. should, will

C. will, will

D. will, should

A

B. should, will

108
Q

Ensure ICS cord does not extend between the ____ and the seat frame. Excessive cord length may inhibit collective movement.

A. lower console

B. cyclic friction grip

C. collective friction grip

D. seat adjustment lever

A

C. collective friction grip

109
Q

Use care when opening the nose avionics compartment door during high wind conditions. Wind gusts may damage the ____.

A. Inspector and the support arm

B. Door assembly and support arm

C. Door assembly and the inspector

D. Door assembly and the APR receivers

A

B. Door assembly and support arm

110
Q

AN/AAR-47 plume detector elements contain nickelous sulfate, a ____.

A. probably carcinogen

B. Potential burn hazard

C. Valuable, pilferable mineral resource

D. Potential eye hazard

A

A. probably carcinogen

111
Q

If a BIM indicator shows half ____ color or more on all three bands, when viewed 90 degrees perpendicular to the indicator, the aircraft will not be flown until that blade is replaced or checked for structural integrity.

A. Red

B. Gray

C. Black

D. Yellow

A

A. Red

112
Q

During fuel breakaway valve inspection, if the breakaway valve groove shows and gold/yellow, the aircraft will not be flown until the valve has been ____ by maintenance.

A. repaired

B. replaced

C. signed off

D. inspected

A

B. replaced

113
Q

When using the engine cowling/work platform, do not exceed ____ pounds total weight on platform. Individual on platform will not exceed 250 pounds.

A. 500

B. 400

C. 600

D. 300

A

B. 400

114
Q

Operation of the refueling system with the ventilation ball valve at the bulkhead connection in the ____ position could cause damaged to the auxiliary tanks and possible fuel leaks.

A. Dual

B. Open

C. Closed

D. Intermediate

A

C. Closed

115
Q

If the APU does not start, wait ____ minutes before attempting to restart, to allow fuel to drain.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 8

A

B. 2

IQT (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions