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M11 > Slide Show M11 > Flashcards

Slide Show M11 Flashcards

1
Q

When Are autopilot upper modes available

A

When the autopilot is engaged to the CMD (command)

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2
Q

Which mode of thrust rating system provides the maximum thrust value for permenant operation

A

Max Continuous Thrust (MCT)

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3
Q

What does the autopilot engage interlock monitor

A

It monitors all signals the AP needs for the inner loop in CMD and CWS

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4
Q

Why is an antenna coupler used on an HF comms system

A

To make sure the antenna length is electronically matched to the frequency

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5
Q

Which statement correctly represents the relationship between frequency and antenna size

A

The higher the frequency the shorter the antenna

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6
Q

What is true about ACARS

A

It it used for manual and automatic data transferres between aircraft and ground

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7
Q

What is the purpose of two antennas fitted to the ADF system

A

Two antenna signals are required to determine the correct direction

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8
Q

What do the different colours indicate on the weather radar screen

A

Red shows the worst weather conditions, yellow and green are less severe

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9
Q

What is automatic VOR

A

The bearing is automatically indicated on the RMI or ND

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10
Q

Why is a band pass filter fitted in the yaw damper computer

A

To filter out any steady state signal

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11
Q

Which auto throttle mode is automatically selected when the autopilot is in the vertical speed mode during climb

A

Thrust mode

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12
Q

How can heading on the control panel be selected

A

By using the heading select

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13
Q

Why are RF lines used

A

To transport a radio signal without disturbances

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14
Q

What is the frequency 121.5MHz used for

A

VHF emergency transmissions

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15
Q

Which method is used by the ILS receiver to determine which marker beacon the aircraft is flying over

A

Each beacon has its own characteristic modulation and morse code

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16
Q

How does DME measure distance

A

The time between the interrogation and reply is proportional to the distance of the station

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17
Q

What is the purpose of the TA setting on the TCAS control panel

A

It gives traffic advisories and shows the white and amber traffic lights on the ND, RAs are not available

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18
Q

What is the purpose of FANS

A

To improve aircraft communication, navigation and ATC surveillance

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19
Q

What is flight director used for

A

It assists to fly the aircraft manually

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20
Q

What is required to create a lateral flight plan in the FMC

A

The company route number tells the FMC how to create the flight plan from the Nav database

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21
Q

What happens when the auto throttle is engaged and the throttle is moved manually

A

The throttle lever can only be moved with an increased force, auto throttle remains engaged

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22
Q

When can autopilot control the speed of the aircraft

A

During decent

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23
Q

Which frequencies does the portable Emergency Locator Transmitter transmit on

A

121.5MHz, 243 MHz and 403MHz

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24
Q

How can the Emergency Locator Transmitter be activated

A

Automatically activated when an acceleration of 5G in the longitudinal axis is exceeded

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25
Q

Which statement is correct about TCAS

A

TCAS detects other traffic if they have active transponders

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26
Q

What is the maximum height indicated on a rad alt

A

2500ft

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27
Q

What height is measured by the radio altimeter

A

Height above ground

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28
Q

Which is the voltage level for an under voltage condition

A

100V

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29
Q

What is turn coordination

A

Rudder moves along with ailerons to achieve a turn

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30
Q

Why are some control surfaces on some aircraft fitted with balance weights

A

To prevent flutter or vibration on the surface

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31
Q

What can spoilers not be used for

A

To assist the flap system

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32
Q

What is the flash point of Jet A1

A

38 degrees C

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33
Q

Which mode of refuelling can be carried out from the flight deck

A

Automatic

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34
Q

During an override refuel of a particular tank the override plunger of the solenoid controlled fuel valve is released when…

A

The valve will close if the solenoid is de energised

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35
Q

What happens to the fuel that enters the fuel tank venting system and is not immediately drained back into the tank

A

It goes into the vent surge tank and then back into the main tanks when conditions allow

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36
Q

How is a fuel leak in an aircraft centre tank indicated

A

By a leak monitor connected to a drain valve

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37
Q

A fuel scavenge system uses jet pumps. When are these jet pumps operated

A

Whenever the main booster pumps are running

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38
Q

Which fuel has a freezing point of -40C

A

Jet A

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39
Q

Which form of drag is reduced by boundary layer control

A

Wave drag

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40
Q

What is the increase in lift provided by a slat

A

35%

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41
Q

When does the boundary layer loose contact with the surface

A

When kinetic energy inside the boundary layer is too low

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42
Q

What is done to prevent extreme pressures and temperatures at the engine compressor during high speed flight

A

One normal shock wave followed by up to three oblique shock waves

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43
Q

How is the skin reinforced in semi monococque airframe construction

A

Longitudinal members

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44
Q

What is a body station

A

A plane passing vertically through the fuselage and measured from a reference point in front of the aircraft

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45
Q

What is the main function of the passenger door torque tube

A

Rotate the door to the cocked position

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46
Q

What are the main structural components in an aircraft wing

A

Ribs, spars, stringers, skin

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47
Q

What is the primary function of the fuselage frames

A

To maintain shape of the fuselage and to carry/distribute shear and tension loads

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48
Q

Which loads are transmitted by the pylon bearings

A

Lateral and longitudinal loads between wing and pylon

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49
Q

How does the ozone converter work

A

Catalytic action

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50
Q

How does the coalecer type water separator work

A

By encouraging the water to form large droplets that can be centrifuged out of the air

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51
Q

In which part of the vapour cycle machine is the heat energy discharged to atmosphere

A

The condenser

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52
Q

How is the pressure in the aircraft’s cabin regulated

A

Outflow valves regulate how much air is leaving the cabin

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53
Q

What happens in the event of excessive cabin positive pressure

A

Safety valves open to allow pressure to bleed away

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54
Q

What happens when the cabin pressure exceeds 15k feet

A

Outflow valves close

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55
Q

What is the purpose of the bleed valve

A

To regulate engine bleed air supply

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56
Q

How is the quantity of air entering the cabin modulated

A

By the pack valve

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57
Q

How is the cooling of the air achieved in the air cycle machine

A

By heat exchangers and turbine

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58
Q

What is true about cabin pressure controllers

A

There are two controllers, one active and one is standby at all times

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59
Q

What pressure is the cabin raised to during leak test

A

4psi higher than ambient pressure

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60
Q

In what condition is air arriving at the air conditioning packs normally

A

200c and 45psi

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61
Q

Which climb mode of operation is usually more comfortable for passengers

A

External mode

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62
Q

Which devices are installed to prevent damage to the structure in the event of sudden depressurisation of one part of the aircraft

A

Equalisation valves allow the pressure in the various zones to equalise

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63
Q

Which flight deck indications occur if the pitot tubes are completely blocked

A

The air speed indicators act like altimeters

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64
Q

What parameter has the greatest effect on Static Source Error

A
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65
Q

Why does a vertical gyro require an erection system

A

To ensure the gyro is vertical with reference to the surface of the earth

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66
Q

What happens when the disconnect solenoid is energised whilst the engine is stopped

A

The disconnect device is triggered and the clutch is damaged when the engine is started

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67
Q

How is a CSD disconnect reset performed

A

The reset ring is pulled when the engine is completely stopped

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68
Q

What is the function of the voltage regulator of the GCU

A

To control the voltage at the point of regulation to 115v by influencing exciter current

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69
Q

What is the voltage level for an under voltage condition

A

100v

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70
Q

What happens with a generator working in isolated operation when it receives more exciter current than necessary

A

The output voltage increases

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71
Q

When does the differential protection circuit trip the generator

A

When the generator current in one phase differs from the current that is measured in the same phase at the generator power relay

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72
Q

What happens when you exchange two phase connections at the generator terminals

A

All connected three phase AC motors run in the wrong direction because of the wrong phase sequence

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73
Q

How can you check the charging of a Ni-Cd battery

A

You must measure the charging current. If it is nearly zero, the battery is fully charged

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74
Q

What happens when a Ni-Cd battery overheats during charging

A

The charging current increases and would start thermal runaway

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75
Q

Which of the following methods are used to charge a battery in an electrical power system

A

The batteries can be charged by a TR unit using the constant voltage charging method

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76
Q

How is an open phase in a generator detected

A

By comparing the generator load current in each phase

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77
Q

How are the engine driven generators in a multi engine aircraft (3 or 4 engines) usually operated

A

In parallel

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78
Q

How many resets are permitted after a circuit breaker has tripped

A

One, to prevent contacts from welding if a short circuit has occurred

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79
Q

What does the abbreviation RCCB mean

A

Remote Controlled Circuit Breaker

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80
Q

Which is the principle operation of the CSD disconnect

A

Electrically disconnected, mechanically reconnected

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81
Q

What is the maximum permitted time for operating the CSD disconnect button

A

3 seconds

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82
Q

Which protective functions are built in to the aircraft’s TR units

A

Low current and high temperature protection

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83
Q

Why are there two shorting pins in the external power receptacle

A

They ensure the external power can only be applied if the plug is located correctly in the power receptacle

84
Q

How can CSD disconnect be reliably confirmed

A

Zero volt and zero frequency is indicated

85
Q

What are the main components of a static inverter

A

Solid state switches and a transformer

86
Q

What happens if the bus tie switching is set to off during operation with only one ground power available

A

The main bus bars operate but separate from each other

87
Q

What is the main advantage of parallel operation of main AC buses over isolated operation

A

All engine driven generators are loaded equally and there is no power loss when one generator fails

88
Q

Why are trip free circuit breakers used on aircraft

A

Because they can open an overloaded circuit even with the control knob jammed in

89
Q

Which statement accurately describes the bus tie switching operation in a multi engined aircraft

A

The bus tie switching is normally closed. This is also known as parallel operation

90
Q

Consider the function of the GCU, which one of these statements is correct

A

The GCUs of the engine driven generators are identical and interchangeable

91
Q

How are the engine driven generators of twin engined aircraft usually operated

A

Isolated operation

92
Q

What is the purpose of the two minute delay before resetting a circuit breaker

A

To allow the bi metallic strip in the circuit breaker to cool down

93
Q

Which statement is correct concerning the input speed of the generators producing voltage with a frequency of 400Hz

A

The speed depends on the number of pole pairs. 24000rpm with one pole pair, 8000 with 3 pole pairs

94
Q

How does a static inverter generate the correct output frequency

A

With a beat generator

95
Q

What happens when the disconnect solenoid is energised while the engine is stopping

A

The clutch is damaged immediately

96
Q

Why are ionisation type smoke detectors not allowed to be open

A

Because the contain harmful radioactive materials

97
Q

Where is the portable fire extinguisher fitted with a hose and nozzle assembly used

A

The cargo compartment

98
Q

During an override refuel of a particular tank the over ridge plunger of the solenoid controlled valve is released

A

The valve will close if the solenoid is de energised

99
Q

Where can fixed displacement hyd pumps be found on modern aircraft

A

On service panels and to open cargo doors

100
Q

Some of the hydraulic fluid is used to cool the pump itself, where does it then go

A

Case drain

101
Q

Which of the following components of a multi plunger hydraulic pump does not rotate when the pump is running

A

The wobble plate

102
Q

Why are hydraulic reservoirs pressurised

A

To prevent cavitation of the pumps

103
Q

What are the backup rings in hydraulic components made of

A

Teflon or nylon

104
Q

How does the reservoir ensure a constant fluid supply at different flight altitudes and accelerations

A

By the use of a sheet metal baffle in the reservoir

105
Q

How is the output of a variable displacement pump varied

A

By changing the stroke of the pistons

106
Q

Some hydraulic pumps are driven by hydraulic motors. How are the motors kept cool during operation

A

Hydraulic fluid

107
Q

Is it possible to mix different type of hydraulic fluids together

A

Synthetic yes, Mineral no

108
Q

What is a static hydraulic seal

A

A seal that is designed to withstand steady or pulsating pressure loads

109
Q

How is an air driven hydraulic pump powered

A

Via a gearbox by pneumatic system air

110
Q

What is the main disadvantage of synthetic hydraulic fluids compared to mineral oils

A

They absorb water

111
Q

Which kind of ice forms in a layer on the whole wing surface and gets thicker as the aircraft carries on in icing conditions

A

Clear ice

112
Q

How is ice removed from the electric ice detector to reset itself in flight

A

The ice detector is electrically heated

113
Q

If the auto brake system is set to auto, when does it start to operate

A

As soon as the auto speed brake system extends the spoilers

114
Q

What is the purpose of the body or centre gear of an aircraft

A

To help spread the weight over a greater area

115
Q

How is it ensured that the nose leg is correctly positioned before retraction

A

A set of cams centre the wheels

116
Q

Which statement is correct about nose wheel steering

A

The rudder pedals give less deflection than the tiller

117
Q

Why are tungsten filaments in incandescent lamps wound into a spiral

A

To minimise heat loss

118
Q

Under normal conditions how is pneumatic system bleed air valve operated

A

By a switch on the flight deck

119
Q

What type of valve is the pneumatic bleed valve

A

Electrically signalled and pneumatically actuated

120
Q

What is the source of cooling air for the pneumatic pre cooker

A

Engine fan air

121
Q

If an overheat switch on the lavatory water heater is tripped by excessive temperature, which action must be taken

A

The switch must be reset manually

122
Q

Where in the lavatory water system is the water heater located

A

Upstream/ before the mixer valve

123
Q

How is an inoperative flush circuit indicated in a waste tank vacuum system

A

By a lav inop light on the flight attendant panel

124
Q

What are water tanks made of

A

Glass fibre reinforced plastic

125
Q

Which electrical supply is used by the toilet flush motors

A

Three phase AC

126
Q

Which could be controlled by lenses and reflective sensors

A

Infrared sink taps/ faucets

127
Q

How is the toilet bowl rinsed during the flush cycle in a vacuum toilet

A

By water from the portable water system

128
Q

Which backup is available in the event of a failure in a CMC normal Chanel

A

The CMC backup Chanel is available in interactive mode only

129
Q

Which was the disadvantage of older generation aircraft maintenance systems

A

The associated switches were in varied locations

130
Q

How are faults reported with reporting mode selected and when on the ground

A

They are listed in the MCDU or the ground report print out

131
Q

How is the maintenance menu selected on the MCDU

A

By pressing the CMC key on the MCDU

132
Q

What is the MCDU mainly used for

A

During flight to control FMS

133
Q

Which is the function of the reporting mode in CMCS

A

To scan the aircraft systems that are connected to it and to memorise and transmit fault information

134
Q

What types of signals are used by CPIOM input output board

A

Analogue, digital and discreet

135
Q

Which of the following is true about IOMs

A

There is only 1 type and they don’t host applications

136
Q

Which transmission technology is employed, by modular avionics, to communicate with the Aircraft Data Communications Network (ADCN)

A

Full duplex switched Ethernet

137
Q

Which CPIOM software affects the memory, CPU and input output allocations

A

Configuration table software

138
Q

Where does the DAU transmit the video signal to within the cabin video monitoring system

A

FAPS via Ethernet

139
Q

Which component does the SATCOM receive passenger communication data from

A

High speed data unit (HSDU)

140
Q

How does the emergency lighting connect to the CIDS directors

A

Via the DEU B

141
Q

Which of the following controls data transfer in the cabin domain

A

Cabin router unit (CRU)

142
Q

How does the automatic dependant surveillance system send data

A

Automatically and manually

143
Q

What is a securing interface router used for

A

Validate ACARS messages coming from the ground

144
Q

What is the purpose of the automatic defendant surveillance system

A

To enable aircraft to send condition information to the ground when it gets out of range of radar

145
Q

How does battery charge protection work

A

Bimetallic switch cuts power at 60C and let’s it cool down

146
Q

What voltage should you not discharge a battery below

A

22V

147
Q

Over Voltage

A

Over voltage exceeds 130v - stops generator output to main bus - normally takes a while unless it’s a large voltage

148
Q

When must IDG disconnect be carried out

A

At idle or above

149
Q

Contactors

A

When power drops off it will revert to the closed position

150
Q

What are the range of circuit breakers

A

0.5 to 125 amp

151
Q

What colour CBs are essential systems

A

Green

152
Q

Pole pairs

A

24000 - 1 pole pair
12000 - 2 pole pairs
8000 - 3 pole pairs
6000 - 4 pole pairs

153
Q

Rise indication

A

Rise indication is normally in range of 20C and a too high indication means too much heat is being generated

154
Q

How much of aircraft energy as used up by AC consumers

A

95%

155
Q

What must be done before power source switching

A

Large loads must be turned off

156
Q

How is the autopilot normally disengaged

A

The red button

157
Q

What is the purpose of a band pass filter

A

Prevents constant rudder deflection

158
Q

Is yaw damper input added or taken away from pilot input

A

Added

159
Q

What does auto throttle control in cruise

A

Speed of aircraft

160
Q

Speed mode

A
  • must be selected
  • be done in Mach or speed
  • data from ADC
161
Q

When does speed mode become active

A

When pilot selects V nav in cruise

162
Q

What determines the light colour in gas lamps

A

The type of gas

163
Q

GPS distance

A

15-25m but improved to 3m with differential GPS

164
Q

Which engine mount must have float and which should not

A

Fwd no float

Aft float

165
Q

What does the normal hinge on a flight control allow for

A

End flow but the primary hinge is fixed

166
Q

What is a class E fire

A

Freighter. Detection system required by no extinguishing

167
Q

What is class C cargo compartment

A

Lower or upper deck cargo

Requires both extinguishing and detection same as D

168
Q

What is class F fire

A

Oils and Fat

169
Q

What is a class B fire

A

Flammable liquids like oil and fuel

170
Q

Why must you be careful when changing a filament on a squib panel

A

A filament that carries more load may blow the squib

171
Q

How far must fuellers be away from WXR

A

200-300m

People at least 10-15m

172
Q

What are the ATC transponder test frequencies

7500
7600
7700

A

7500 - Hijacking
7600 - Radio failure
7700 - emergency

173
Q

What are the ATC modes

A
c
s

A

A - aircraft’s ident
C - altitude
S - selective

174
Q

What is the signal that the DME sends to the ground called

A

Interrogation

175
Q

What is the shock strut made from

A

Steel

176
Q

Where does the gear sit

A

Behind the rear spa

177
Q

What is amber indication on gear doors

A

Open or in transit

178
Q

What is another name for summing leaver

A

Steering bypas

179
Q

What pulls the leg down into place in free fall

A

Springs

180
Q

How is each tank vented to the NACA

A

Each tank has its each individual vent to the NACA

181
Q

Which type of fuelling has no high level protection

A

Override

182
Q

What are the 3 tank access categories

A

1 - head and shoulders only + direct access door

2 - complete body + direct access door

3 - no direct access door but internal openings for full entry and rescue

183
Q

What is used to measure fuel temp

A

Thermistor

184
Q

What mode is crew oxygen left in

A

100%

185
Q

Which door activates oxygen and mic cut off

A

Left

186
Q

What type of ice is associated with extreme cold temp

A

Rime ice

187
Q

Where does centre of lift go when you go supersonic

A

Backwards

188
Q

Cabin climbs rate is

A

Invertly proportional

189
Q

Which fire warning can you cancel

A

You can cancel central warning not local warning

190
Q

Which fire detect system has 2 electrodes

A

Kiddie

191
Q

In fire detection what temp for isolated spot

A

400c or 200 complete loop

192
Q

Crew alerting levels

A

Boeing
A WARNING 3
B. CAUTION 2
C. ADVISORY. 1

193
Q

What type of grounding is required for fuel tank areas

A

Double ground

194
Q

Do AC, DC, Shields require different grounds

A

Yes

195
Q

What measurement and over is considered a high intensity lightning strike

A

Quarter inch and over

196
Q

The tape recorder holds how long of a dress messages

A

150 seconds

197
Q

What type of hydraulic fluid is used

A

Phosphate Esther based

198
Q

What is in the NACA duct to prevent fire

A

Flame arrestor

199
Q

What is a rear loaded wing

A

Transonic profile

200
Q

What is ISA

A

1013.25 HPA @ 15C

201
Q

What altitude is used during climb

A

Transition altitude

202
Q

For navigation proposes what type of airspeed is required

A

True air speed

203
Q

What is VNE warning

A

Max airspeed must never exceed

204
Q

What is VFE warning

A

Flaps down

205
Q

What can FDR withstand

A

1000G and 1000 degrees c

206
Q

HF frequency

A

3MHZ to 30MHZ

207
Q

VHF frequency

A

30MHZ to 300mhz

M11 (12 decks)

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