Slide Show M11 Flashcards
When Are autopilot upper modes available
When the autopilot is engaged to the CMD (command)
Which mode of thrust rating system provides the maximum thrust value for permenant operation
Max Continuous Thrust (MCT)
What does the autopilot engage interlock monitor
It monitors all signals the AP needs for the inner loop in CMD and CWS
Why is an antenna coupler used on an HF comms system
To make sure the antenna length is electronically matched to the frequency
Which statement correctly represents the relationship between frequency and antenna size
The higher the frequency the shorter the antenna
What is true about ACARS
It it used for manual and automatic data transferres between aircraft and ground
What is the purpose of two antennas fitted to the ADF system
Two antenna signals are required to determine the correct direction
What do the different colours indicate on the weather radar screen
Red shows the worst weather conditions, yellow and green are less severe
What is automatic VOR
The bearing is automatically indicated on the RMI or ND
Why is a band pass filter fitted in the yaw damper computer
To filter out any steady state signal
Which auto throttle mode is automatically selected when the autopilot is in the vertical speed mode during climb
Thrust mode
How can heading on the control panel be selected
By using the heading select
Why are RF lines used
To transport a radio signal without disturbances
What is the frequency 121.5MHz used for
VHF emergency transmissions
Which method is used by the ILS receiver to determine which marker beacon the aircraft is flying over
Each beacon has its own characteristic modulation and morse code
How does DME measure distance
The time between the interrogation and reply is proportional to the distance of the station
What is the purpose of the TA setting on the TCAS control panel
It gives traffic advisories and shows the white and amber traffic lights on the ND, RAs are not available
What is the purpose of FANS
To improve aircraft communication, navigation and ATC surveillance
What is flight director used for
It assists to fly the aircraft manually
What is required to create a lateral flight plan in the FMC
The company route number tells the FMC how to create the flight plan from the Nav database
What happens when the auto throttle is engaged and the throttle is moved manually
The throttle lever can only be moved with an increased force, auto throttle remains engaged
When can autopilot control the speed of the aircraft
During decent
Which frequencies does the portable Emergency Locator Transmitter transmit on
121.5MHz, 243 MHz and 403MHz
How can the Emergency Locator Transmitter be activated
Automatically activated when an acceleration of 5G in the longitudinal axis is exceeded
Which statement is correct about TCAS
TCAS detects other traffic if they have active transponders
What is the maximum height indicated on a rad alt
2500ft
What height is measured by the radio altimeter
Height above ground
Which is the voltage level for an under voltage condition
100V
What is turn coordination
Rudder moves along with ailerons to achieve a turn
Why are some control surfaces on some aircraft fitted with balance weights
To prevent flutter or vibration on the surface
What can spoilers not be used for
To assist the flap system
What is the flash point of Jet A1
38 degrees C
Which mode of refuelling can be carried out from the flight deck
Automatic
During an override refuel of a particular tank the override plunger of the solenoid controlled fuel valve is released when…
The valve will close if the solenoid is de energised
What happens to the fuel that enters the fuel tank venting system and is not immediately drained back into the tank
It goes into the vent surge tank and then back into the main tanks when conditions allow
How is a fuel leak in an aircraft centre tank indicated
By a leak monitor connected to a drain valve
A fuel scavenge system uses jet pumps. When are these jet pumps operated
Whenever the main booster pumps are running
Which fuel has a freezing point of -40C
Jet A
Which form of drag is reduced by boundary layer control
Wave drag
What is the increase in lift provided by a slat
35%
When does the boundary layer loose contact with the surface
When kinetic energy inside the boundary layer is too low
What is done to prevent extreme pressures and temperatures at the engine compressor during high speed flight
One normal shock wave followed by up to three oblique shock waves
How is the skin reinforced in semi monococque airframe construction
Longitudinal members
What is a body station
A plane passing vertically through the fuselage and measured from a reference point in front of the aircraft
What is the main function of the passenger door torque tube
Rotate the door to the cocked position
What are the main structural components in an aircraft wing
Ribs, spars, stringers, skin
What is the primary function of the fuselage frames
To maintain shape of the fuselage and to carry/distribute shear and tension loads
Which loads are transmitted by the pylon bearings
Lateral and longitudinal loads between wing and pylon
How does the ozone converter work
Catalytic action
How does the coalecer type water separator work
By encouraging the water to form large droplets that can be centrifuged out of the air
In which part of the vapour cycle machine is the heat energy discharged to atmosphere
The condenser
How is the pressure in the aircraft’s cabin regulated
Outflow valves regulate how much air is leaving the cabin
What happens in the event of excessive cabin positive pressure
Safety valves open to allow pressure to bleed away
What happens when the cabin pressure exceeds 15k feet
Outflow valves close
What is the purpose of the bleed valve
To regulate engine bleed air supply
How is the quantity of air entering the cabin modulated
By the pack valve
How is the cooling of the air achieved in the air cycle machine
By heat exchangers and turbine
What is true about cabin pressure controllers
There are two controllers, one active and one is standby at all times
What pressure is the cabin raised to during leak test
4psi higher than ambient pressure
In what condition is air arriving at the air conditioning packs normally
200c and 45psi
Which climb mode of operation is usually more comfortable for passengers
External mode
Which devices are installed to prevent damage to the structure in the event of sudden depressurisation of one part of the aircraft
Equalisation valves allow the pressure in the various zones to equalise
Which flight deck indications occur if the pitot tubes are completely blocked
The air speed indicators act like altimeters
What parameter has the greatest effect on Static Source Error
Why does a vertical gyro require an erection system
To ensure the gyro is vertical with reference to the surface of the earth
What happens when the disconnect solenoid is energised whilst the engine is stopped
The disconnect device is triggered and the clutch is damaged when the engine is started
How is a CSD disconnect reset performed
The reset ring is pulled when the engine is completely stopped
What is the function of the voltage regulator of the GCU
To control the voltage at the point of regulation to 115v by influencing exciter current
What is the voltage level for an under voltage condition
100v
What happens with a generator working in isolated operation when it receives more exciter current than necessary
The output voltage increases
When does the differential protection circuit trip the generator
When the generator current in one phase differs from the current that is measured in the same phase at the generator power relay
What happens when you exchange two phase connections at the generator terminals
All connected three phase AC motors run in the wrong direction because of the wrong phase sequence
How can you check the charging of a Ni-Cd battery
You must measure the charging current. If it is nearly zero, the battery is fully charged
What happens when a Ni-Cd battery overheats during charging
The charging current increases and would start thermal runaway
Which of the following methods are used to charge a battery in an electrical power system
The batteries can be charged by a TR unit using the constant voltage charging method
How is an open phase in a generator detected
By comparing the generator load current in each phase
How are the engine driven generators in a multi engine aircraft (3 or 4 engines) usually operated
In parallel
How many resets are permitted after a circuit breaker has tripped
One, to prevent contacts from welding if a short circuit has occurred
What does the abbreviation RCCB mean
Remote Controlled Circuit Breaker
Which is the principle operation of the CSD disconnect
Electrically disconnected, mechanically reconnected
What is the maximum permitted time for operating the CSD disconnect button
3 seconds
Which protective functions are built in to the aircraft’s TR units
Low current and high temperature protection
Why are there two shorting pins in the external power receptacle
They ensure the external power can only be applied if the plug is located correctly in the power receptacle
How can CSD disconnect be reliably confirmed
Zero volt and zero frequency is indicated
What are the main components of a static inverter
Solid state switches and a transformer
What happens if the bus tie switching is set to off during operation with only one ground power available
The main bus bars operate but separate from each other
What is the main advantage of parallel operation of main AC buses over isolated operation
All engine driven generators are loaded equally and there is no power loss when one generator fails
Why are trip free circuit breakers used on aircraft
Because they can open an overloaded circuit even with the control knob jammed in
Which statement accurately describes the bus tie switching operation in a multi engined aircraft
The bus tie switching is normally closed. This is also known as parallel operation
Consider the function of the GCU, which one of these statements is correct
The GCUs of the engine driven generators are identical and interchangeable
How are the engine driven generators of twin engined aircraft usually operated
Isolated operation
What is the purpose of the two minute delay before resetting a circuit breaker
To allow the bi metallic strip in the circuit breaker to cool down
Which statement is correct concerning the input speed of the generators producing voltage with a frequency of 400Hz
The speed depends on the number of pole pairs. 24000rpm with one pole pair, 8000 with 3 pole pairs
How does a static inverter generate the correct output frequency
With a beat generator
What happens when the disconnect solenoid is energised while the engine is stopping
The clutch is damaged immediately
Why are ionisation type smoke detectors not allowed to be open
Because the contain harmful radioactive materials
Where is the portable fire extinguisher fitted with a hose and nozzle assembly used
The cargo compartment
During an override refuel of a particular tank the over ridge plunger of the solenoid controlled valve is released
The valve will close if the solenoid is de energised
Where can fixed displacement hyd pumps be found on modern aircraft
On service panels and to open cargo doors
Some of the hydraulic fluid is used to cool the pump itself, where does it then go
Case drain
Which of the following components of a multi plunger hydraulic pump does not rotate when the pump is running
The wobble plate
Why are hydraulic reservoirs pressurised
To prevent cavitation of the pumps
What are the backup rings in hydraulic components made of
Teflon or nylon
How does the reservoir ensure a constant fluid supply at different flight altitudes and accelerations
By the use of a sheet metal baffle in the reservoir
How is the output of a variable displacement pump varied
By changing the stroke of the pistons
Some hydraulic pumps are driven by hydraulic motors. How are the motors kept cool during operation
Hydraulic fluid
Is it possible to mix different type of hydraulic fluids together
Synthetic yes, Mineral no
What is a static hydraulic seal
A seal that is designed to withstand steady or pulsating pressure loads
How is an air driven hydraulic pump powered
Via a gearbox by pneumatic system air
What is the main disadvantage of synthetic hydraulic fluids compared to mineral oils
They absorb water
Which kind of ice forms in a layer on the whole wing surface and gets thicker as the aircraft carries on in icing conditions
Clear ice
How is ice removed from the electric ice detector to reset itself in flight
The ice detector is electrically heated
If the auto brake system is set to auto, when does it start to operate
As soon as the auto speed brake system extends the spoilers
What is the purpose of the body or centre gear of an aircraft
To help spread the weight over a greater area
How is it ensured that the nose leg is correctly positioned before retraction
A set of cams centre the wheels
Which statement is correct about nose wheel steering
The rudder pedals give less deflection than the tiller
Why are tungsten filaments in incandescent lamps wound into a spiral
To minimise heat loss
Under normal conditions how is pneumatic system bleed air valve operated
By a switch on the flight deck
What type of valve is the pneumatic bleed valve
Electrically signalled and pneumatically actuated
What is the source of cooling air for the pneumatic pre cooker
Engine fan air
If an overheat switch on the lavatory water heater is tripped by excessive temperature, which action must be taken
The switch must be reset manually
Where in the lavatory water system is the water heater located
Upstream/ before the mixer valve
How is an inoperative flush circuit indicated in a waste tank vacuum system
By a lav inop light on the flight attendant panel
What are water tanks made of
Glass fibre reinforced plastic
Which electrical supply is used by the toilet flush motors
Three phase AC
Which could be controlled by lenses and reflective sensors
Infrared sink taps/ faucets
How is the toilet bowl rinsed during the flush cycle in a vacuum toilet
By water from the portable water system
Which backup is available in the event of a failure in a CMC normal Chanel
The CMC backup Chanel is available in interactive mode only
Which was the disadvantage of older generation aircraft maintenance systems
The associated switches were in varied locations
How are faults reported with reporting mode selected and when on the ground
They are listed in the MCDU or the ground report print out
How is the maintenance menu selected on the MCDU
By pressing the CMC key on the MCDU
What is the MCDU mainly used for
During flight to control FMS
Which is the function of the reporting mode in CMCS
To scan the aircraft systems that are connected to it and to memorise and transmit fault information
What types of signals are used by CPIOM input output board
Analogue, digital and discreet
Which of the following is true about IOMs
There is only 1 type and they don’t host applications
Which transmission technology is employed, by modular avionics, to communicate with the Aircraft Data Communications Network (ADCN)
Full duplex switched Ethernet
Which CPIOM software affects the memory, CPU and input output allocations
Configuration table software
Where does the DAU transmit the video signal to within the cabin video monitoring system
FAPS via Ethernet
Which component does the SATCOM receive passenger communication data from
High speed data unit (HSDU)
How does the emergency lighting connect to the CIDS directors
Via the DEU B
Which of the following controls data transfer in the cabin domain
Cabin router unit (CRU)
How does the automatic dependant surveillance system send data
Automatically and manually
What is a securing interface router used for
Validate ACARS messages coming from the ground
What is the purpose of the automatic defendant surveillance system
To enable aircraft to send condition information to the ground when it gets out of range of radar
How does battery charge protection work
Bimetallic switch cuts power at 60C and let’s it cool down
What voltage should you not discharge a battery below
22V
Over Voltage
Over voltage exceeds 130v - stops generator output to main bus - normally takes a while unless it’s a large voltage
When must IDG disconnect be carried out
At idle or above
Contactors
When power drops off it will revert to the closed position
What are the range of circuit breakers
0.5 to 125 amp
What colour CBs are essential systems
Green
Pole pairs
24000 - 1 pole pair
12000 - 2 pole pairs
8000 - 3 pole pairs
6000 - 4 pole pairs
Rise indication
Rise indication is normally in range of 20C and a too high indication means too much heat is being generated
How much of aircraft energy as used up by AC consumers
95%
What must be done before power source switching
Large loads must be turned off
How is the autopilot normally disengaged
The red button
What is the purpose of a band pass filter
Prevents constant rudder deflection
Is yaw damper input added or taken away from pilot input
Added
What does auto throttle control in cruise
Speed of aircraft
Speed mode
- must be selected
- be done in Mach or speed
- data from ADC
When does speed mode become active
When pilot selects V nav in cruise
What determines the light colour in gas lamps
The type of gas
GPS distance
15-25m but improved to 3m with differential GPS
Which engine mount must have float and which should not
Fwd no float
Aft float
What does the normal hinge on a flight control allow for
End flow but the primary hinge is fixed
What is a class E fire
Freighter. Detection system required by no extinguishing
What is class C cargo compartment
Lower or upper deck cargo
Requires both extinguishing and detection same as D
What is class F fire
Oils and Fat
What is a class B fire
Flammable liquids like oil and fuel
Why must you be careful when changing a filament on a squib panel
A filament that carries more load may blow the squib
How far must fuellers be away from WXR
200-300m
People at least 10-15m
What are the ATC transponder test frequencies
7500
7600
7700
7500 - Hijacking
7600 - Radio failure
7700 - emergency
What are the ATC modes
A
c
s
A - aircraft’s ident
C - altitude
S - selective
What is the signal that the DME sends to the ground called
Interrogation
What is the shock strut made from
Steel
Where does the gear sit
Behind the rear spa
What is amber indication on gear doors
Open or in transit
What is another name for summing leaver
Steering bypas
What pulls the leg down into place in free fall
Springs
How is each tank vented to the NACA
Each tank has its each individual vent to the NACA
Which type of fuelling has no high level protection
Override
What are the 3 tank access categories
1 - head and shoulders only + direct access door
2 - complete body + direct access door
3 - no direct access door but internal openings for full entry and rescue
What is used to measure fuel temp
Thermistor
What mode is crew oxygen left in
100%
Which door activates oxygen and mic cut off
Left
What type of ice is associated with extreme cold temp
Rime ice
Where does centre of lift go when you go supersonic
Backwards
Cabin climbs rate is
Invertly proportional
Which fire warning can you cancel
You can cancel central warning not local warning
Which fire detect system has 2 electrodes
Kiddie
In fire detection what temp for isolated spot
400c or 200 complete loop
Crew alerting levels
Boeing
A WARNING 3
B. CAUTION 2
C. ADVISORY. 1
What type of grounding is required for fuel tank areas
Double ground
Do AC, DC, Shields require different grounds
Yes
What measurement and over is considered a high intensity lightning strike
Quarter inch and over
The tape recorder holds how long of a dress messages
150 seconds
What type of hydraulic fluid is used
Phosphate Esther based
What is in the NACA duct to prevent fire
Flame arrestor
What is a rear loaded wing
Transonic profile
What is ISA
1013.25 HPA @ 15C
What altitude is used during climb
Transition altitude
For navigation proposes what type of airspeed is required
True air speed
What is VNE warning
Max airspeed must never exceed
What is VFE warning
Flaps down
What can FDR withstand
1000G and 1000 degrees c
HF frequency
3MHZ to 30MHZ
VHF frequency
30MHZ to 300mhz
