Slide Exam Prep Flashcards

1
Q

DISH main radiographic features

A
  • At least 4 contiguous vert. bodies with hyperostosis
  • Marginal syndesmophytes
  • Lucency btw ossification and vert body

Normal:

  • disc height
  • subchondral bone
  • facets

NO SMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis main radiographic features

A
  • Romanus lesions (corner erosion)
  • Shiny corner sign

Symmetrical BL sacroilitis

  • bead sign
  • sclerosis (+/- star sign)
  • ghost sign (complete fusion)

Marginal syndesmophytes

  • fine, multilevel
  • BL symmetrical
  • Bamboo spine
  • osteoporosis
  • carrot stick fracture
  • dagger sign
  • trolley track sign

NO SMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Psoriatic Arthritis

A

Syndesmophytes:

  • non-marginal
  • asymmetrical

Increased ADI

U/L or B/L Asymmetrical sacroilitis
-bead sign, sclerosis

** Same radiographic findings as Reactive Arthritis in the spine **

NO SMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Reactive Arthritis

A

** Same radiographic findings as Psoriatic Arthritis in spine **

+finger signs for next slide exam

NO SMT (double check?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Osteitis Condensans Ilii

A
  • isolated to SIJ
  • B/L triangle sclerosis in ilium subchondral bone
  • just ilium side
  • no erosions or joint space change
  • just sclerosis

CAN SMT but not useful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Osteitis Pubis

A
  • erosions, motheaten, wider pubic symphysis
  • local osteoporosis

** Can’t tell appart from Infection off radiograph only **

No SMT?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CPPD

A

Small linear horizontal calcification in disc at multiple levels

*meniscus calcification

Can SMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

HADD

A

Small calcification anterior to C2

Calcification of longus colli muscle

Can SMT?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy

A
  • long bone periostitis
  • digital clubbing
  • B/L symmetrical

SMT?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Differentials for B/L symmetrical sacroiliitis

A

AS
Enteropathic Arthritis
Osteitis Condensans Ilii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Differential for U/L sacroiliitis

A

Rheumatoid A.
Infection
DJD

Also Reactive / PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Differential for B/L asymmetrical sacroiliitis

A

PA / Reactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Differential for non-marginal syndesmophytes

A
  • DJD
  • DISH
  • PA / Reactive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Differential for Marginal syndesmophytes

A

-Ankylosing spondylitis

More?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Paget’s

A
Cortical thickening
Expansion
Coarsened trabeculae
Sclerosis / Ivory
Pahological fractures

Spine:
-picture frame vertebra

Pelvis:

  • lost kohlers teardrop
  • thick pubis
  • brim sign
  • acetabulae protrusio

Skull:

Long bones:

  • bade of grass defect-pseudofractures
  • more..

NO SMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Differential for Ivory vertebra

A

Pagets (+ expansion)
Bastic mets
Hodgkins (+ anterior erosio / scallop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fibrous Dyslasia

A

-rare in the spine

+ more on other areas
+add later

NO SMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Neurofibromatosis

A

Nerve sheath overgrowth (neoplasm)

  • cortex intact
  • no other changes
  • posterior scalloping
  • short angular scoliosis
  • kyphosis
  • IVF very large (means its in the IVF)

-scalloped ribs

No SMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Differential for posterior scalloping

A
Neurofibromatosis
Marfans
Ehlers Danlos
Achondroplasia
Osteogenesis imperfecta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Differential for sclerotic benign lesions

A

Osteoma
-gardner’s syndrome

Osteoid osteoma

Osteochondroma
-Hereditary multiple exostoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Differential for lucent benign lesions

A

Haemangiona

Non-ossifying fibroma
Fibrocortical defect

Simple bone cyst
Aneurysmal bone cyst
Giant cell tumour

Osteobastoma

Enchondroma

  • Ollier’s disease
  • Marfucci’s syndrome

Chondroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Differential for sclerotic malignant lesion

A

Osteosarcoma
-Parosteal osteosarcoma

Metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Differential for mixed sclerotic and lucent malignant lesion

A

Osteosarcoma

Mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Differential for lucent malignant lesion

A

Plasmacytoma
Chordoma

Ewing’s sarcoma
Malignant GCT

Chondrosarcoma
Fibrosarcoma

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma
Hodgkins Lymphoma

Multiple Myeloma
Mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Gardner’s Syndrome

A
  • multiple osteomas (skull + hands and feet)
  • multiple solid osseous growth off cortex

(Not really spine)

Can SMT?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hereditary Multiple Exostoses

A

Multiple osteochondromas

-not realy spine

Can SMT?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Osteoblastoma

A
  • sclerotic periosteal rim around lucent nidus >25mm diameter
  • expansive, thins cortex
  • posterior elements of spine
  • C1 SP

-scoliosis

DDx:

  • Osteoid osteoma (smaller)
  • ABC (more expansion + no sclerotic rim)

Can SMT?????

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ollier’s Disease

A

Multiple enchondromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Marfucci’s Syndrome

A

Very rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Chondroblastoma

A
  • epiphyseal

- not realy spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Parosteal Osteosarcoma

A
  • lobulated sessile mass
  • lytic portions
  • juxtacortical (bone surface)

DDx: osteoma (smoother)

Not really spine,
-posterior femur distal metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Plasmacytoma

A
  • geographic lucent soap bubbly
  • expansive
  • fades away bone areas

DDx:

  • chordoma
  • malignant GCT
  • mandible, ilium, vertebra, ribs
  • prox femur, scapula, sacrum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Chordoma

A
  • invades surrounding STs
  • large
  • crosses disc space

DDx: infection

  • rare
  • 85% sacrococcygeal or spheno-occipital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hodgkins Lymphoma

A

-vertebral body

  • anterior scalloping of vert body
  • ivory vertebra

DDx:

  • Multiple myeloma
  • Pagets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Jefferson’s fracture

A

APOM: lateral masses shift past articular processes C2

-say transverse ligament rupture if masses displaced >7mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hangman’s fracture

A
  • B/L pedicle fracture
  • Lateral view

-hyperextension injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Differential for increased ADI

A
  • agenesis dens
  • agenesis posterior arch
  • RA
  • PA
  • trauma
  • Downs
  • Marfans
  • Ehllers Danlos
  • Morquio’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

C1 posterior arch fracture

A

-look at images

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pillar fracture

A
  • wider, altered shape

- look at images

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Posterior ponticle

A

Bridging C1 poaterior arch and occiput

Can SMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Uncinate fracture

A
  • tiny triangle on AP view

- rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Differential for blurry C1 SP

A

Malignant:

  • chordoma
  • plasmacytoma
  • lytic mets

Benign

  • osteoblastoma
  • ABC
  • GCT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Differential for missing pedicle on AP view

A

Lytic mets

Osteobastoma
Chordoma

*multiple myeloma spares the pedicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Differential for vertebral body destruction

Disc space intact

A

Lytic mets
Chordoma
Plasmacytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Differential for posterior elements destruction

A

Infection

Lytic mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Differential for triangular ossific density anterior to the disc space

A
  • Limbic bone (smaller than defect)
  • Intercalary bone (in front and no defect)
  • Teardrop fracture (exact missing piece)
  • Ring epiphysis (widespread)
  • Compression fracture (ish)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Differential for bony fragment posterior to C7

A
  • clay shovelers fracture perfect match and displaced a bit)
  • persistent apophysis (smaller)
  • nuchal bone (vertical)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Agensis dens

A
  • can’t see odontoid

- triangular anterior arch + bigger + more sclerotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

TVP fracture

A

C7 TVP

Lumbar TVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sacral fractures

A
  • usually also pelvic fractures

- not on SLIDE exam 1?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Differential for single non-marginal syndesmophyte

A

Psoriatic arthritis

DJD?
DISH?

**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Picture frame vertebra

A

Pagets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Sandwich vertebrae

A

Bone-in bone look

Osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Rugger Jersey spine

A

Hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the elements in the description of a scoliosis?

A
  1. Convex side
  2. Start and end
  3. Cobb angle
  4. Apex
  5. Rotation: grade, side, span
  6. Skeletal maturity: Risser’s or epyphysis visible
  7. Obvious cause
  8. Secondary consequences (DJD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Grade rotation of a scoliosis

A

1+ pedicle bit to midline (other overlaps with edge of vert)

2+ pedicle 2/3 midline (other barely visible)

3+ pedible midline (other not visible)

4+ pedicle past midline (other not visible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Risser Sign grading

A
  1. 25% grown
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 100% visible
  5. Fused to ilium (closed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Where is most degenerative spondylolysthesis? And Isthmic ? Dysplastic?

A

DJD spondy : L4

Pars fracture: L5

Congenital: L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

C1 posterior arch agenesis

A
  • C2 megaspinous
  • C1 anterior arch hypertrophy

DDx: occipitalisation

NO SMT until proven stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Agenesis pedicle

A
  • winking owl
  • sclerotic C/L pedicle

DDx:

  • Lytic mets
  • rotation

Yes SMT. Stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Agenesis articular process

A

Check images

Yes SMT. Stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Hemivertebra

A

Check images

-short angular scoliosis

NO SMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Caudal Regression Syndrome

A
  • sacral agenesis

- 2 lia articulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Os odontoideum

A
  • lucent gap
  • failure of fusion of dens to body
  • instable

DDx:

  • mach effect
  • fracture

NO SMT. Unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Ossiculum Terminale

A

-lucent gap at tip of dens

Yes SMT. Insignificant

66
Q

Spondyloschisis

A
  • APOM: follow cortical lines of lamina
  • Lateral: no spinolamina junction line

SBO at C1

DDx bifid

SMT???

67
Q

Clasp Knife deformity

A
  • SBO at S1

- long L5 SP

68
Q

Butterfly Vertebra

A
  • AP
  • triangular endplate lines

Yes SMT. Insignificant

69
Q

Occipital vertebrae

A

Epitransverse
Paracondylar
Paramastoid

*check images

NO SMT

70
Q

Occipitalisation

A
  • C1 fused to occiput
  • atlantoaxial instability

NO SMT

71
Q

Congenital block vertebrae

A
  • wasp waist
  • posterior elements maybe fused too

Can maybe SMT

72
Q

Acquired block vertebrae

A

-barrel shape

DDx:

  • infection
  • DJD
  • malignancy
  • surgical
73
Q

Lumbosacral transational segment

A

Can SMT but different mechanics

74
Q

Basilar impression

A

-dens passes McGregors line >45mm

DDx:

  • occipitalisation
  • spondyloschisis
  • abnormal dens or atlas
  • klippel-fail
  • osetomalacia, tumour…

NO SMT

75
Q

Eagles syndrome

A
  • stylohyoid ligaments calcified
  • looks like phalanx bones

NO SMT

76
Q

Facet Tropism

A

Asymmetrical facet orientation

DDx: rotation

Can SMT. Changes biomechanics

77
Q

Schmorl’s Nodes

A

-clear corticated circular depression

DDx:

  • compression fracture
  • nuchal impression

Can SMT. Insignificant

78
Q

Nuclear Impressions

A
  • smooth indentation in endplate
  • AP: cupids bow

DDs: lateral flexion

Can SMT. Insignificant

79
Q

Venous Channel of Hahn

A

-horizontal sclerosis in anterior middle of vertebra

Can SMT. Insignificant

80
Q

Omovertebral Bone

A

Bone from cervical spine to scapula

SMT??

81
Q

Klippel-Feil Syndrome

**

A
  1. Block vertebrae
  2. Basilar impression
  3. Scoliosis
  4. Sprengel’s deformity

No SMT??

82
Q

Achondropplasia

A
  • bullet-nose vertebrae
  • posterior scalloping
  • short pedicle (stenosis)
  • large spinal curves
  • basilar impression
  • ping pong paddle ilium

NO SMT

83
Q

Cleidocranial Dysplasia

A
  • small or no clavicle
  • small scap
  • biconvex vertebrae
  • SBO
  • hemivertebrae
  • large curves
  • small pelvis
  • small dens

NO SMT

84
Q

Spondyloepiphyseal Dysplasia

A
  • widespread platyspondyly
  • bulbous vertebrae
  • large curves
  • short ilium
85
Q

Holr-Oram Syndrome

A
  • heart hand syndrome
  • sprengles deformity

+ more

No SMT?

86
Q

Fibrodysplasia Ossificans Progressiva

A
  • striate muscle calcification
  • torticolis
  • osteomalacia
  • pathological fractures

NO manual therapy at all

87
Q

Marfan’s Syndrome

A
  • tall vertebra
  • posterior scalloping
  • thin cortex
  • scoliosis

NO SMT because lax dense?

88
Q

Metaphyseal Dysplasia

A
  • widespread platyspondyly
  • erlenmeyer flask deformity

No SMT?

89
Q

Nai-Patella syndrome

A

Not realy spine

90
Q

Ehlers Danlos Syndrome

A
  • widespread platyspondyly
  • posterior scalloping
  • large spinal curves
  • early DJD

NO SMT. Weak bones

91
Q

Hurler’s Syndrome

A
  • short vertebrae
  • round vertebrae
  • small dens
  • paddle ribs
  • flair ilia
  • osteoporosis

NO SMT

92
Q

Morquio’s Syndrome

A
  • widespread platyspondyly
  • centrall beaking vertebral bodies
  • large curves

-small dens

NO SMT

93
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

-brittle bone disease

  • biconcave vertebrae
  • platyspondyly
  • osteoporosis
  • multiple fractures
  • large curves

NO SMT

94
Q

Melorheostosis

A
  • hyperostosis under periosteum along side of long bones
  • candle wax dripping

Can SMT. Insignificant unless huge

95
Q

Osteopathia Striata

A
  • B/L
  • vertical linear opacities from metaphysis to diaphysis

Cinicaly insignificant

96
Q

Osteopoikilosis

A
  • widespread small round opacities
  • B/L, symmetrical, uniform

DDx:
-mets

Clinicaly insignificant

97
Q

Osteopetrosis

A

-dense brittle bones

  • generalised sclerosis
  • bone within bone / sandwich vertebrae

-erlenmeyer flask deformity

NO SMT

98
Q

Differential of widespread platyspondyly

A

Multiple myeloma
Osteoporosis

Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
Meta[hyseal dysplasia
Ehlers Danlos
Morquio’s

99
Q

Differential for posterior scalloping

A

Single:
Neurofibromatosis

\+??
Widespread:
Achondroplasia
Ehers Danlos
Marfans
100
Q

Differential for widespread bullet nose vertebrae

A
  • Achondroplasia
  • Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
  • Hurlers
101
Q

What are the elements of a radiographic description of a fracture?

A
  1. Location (in body)
  2. Orientation (horz, vert obli)
  3. List cortices broken
  4. Alignment (distal frag to prox)
  5. Apposition (good, partial, none)
  6. Rotation
  7. Joint space and ST involvement
102
Q

Compression fracture

A
  • step defect
  • wedge deformity
  • linear zone of condensation
  • lucent line
  • paraspinal swelling
  • compression or pathalogical
  • new or old
103
Q

Burst fracture

A

Like compression fracture but more central and increase AP diameter

104
Q

Odontoid fracture

A

Type 1:

  • oblique tip
  • stable

Type 2:
-dense base

Type 3:
-odontoid onto body

2 and 3 not stable

105
Q

Chance fracture

A
  • horizontal splitting of spine and neural arch

- L1 to 3

106
Q

Degenerative Joint Disease

A
  • osteophytes
  • subchondral sclerosis
  • subchondral cysts

Facets:

  • AP view - bubble like
  • Oblique: IVF narrowing
  • spondylolysthesis

IVD:

  • less height
  • vacuum phenomenon
  • intercalary bone

Uncinate:

  • cat ear
  • IVF stenosis
  • Lateral view: pseudofracture
107
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • dens erosion
  • > ADI
  • stepladder spondylolysthesis

NO SMT

108
Q

Differential of irregular endplates

A

-compression fracture

  • nuclear impressions
  • schmorls nodes
  • lateral flexion

-butterfly vertebrae

+more?

109
Q

Spondylitis

A
  • starts anterior superior corner of vertebra
  • moves up disc into next endplate
  • decrease disc space
  • ST density in disc space
  • ST involvement around
  • ankylosis

-can be posterior elements

  • paraspinal abscess
  • psoas abscess
  • paraspinal swelling on AP

Suppurative: less severe

Nonsuppurative:

  • TB
  • gibbus deformity

NO SMT if active.
Can SMT if old??

110
Q

Osteomalacia

A
  • lucencies between trabeculae / checkerboard
  • double cortex (thin too)
  • concave endplates / bowing
  • pseudofractures (ribs, pubic and ischial rami, scapula)

NO SMT

111
Q

Osteoporosis

A
  • pencilled cortices
  • generalised decrease density
  • vertical trabeculae
  • empty box
  • wedging, vertebra plana
  • biconcave
  • hyperkyphosis

DDx:
Multiple myeloma
Post-scheurmans

NO SMT

112
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A
  • rugger jersey spine
  • concave endplates
  • subperiosteal resorption of outer cortex (frayed look)
  • blurred cortices Hallmark
  • accentuated trabeculae
  • salt and pepper / granular
  • ST calcifications
  • clavicle resorption
  • Brown tumours: jaw, femur. Pelvis

NO SMT

113
Q

Rickets

A

-osteomalacia in child

Radiographic features like adult + growth impairment

NO SMT

114
Q

Features of a benign tumour

A

Cortex:

  • thinning, scalloping, expansion
  • thickening
  • clear margins
  • solid periosteal reaction

GEOGRAPHIC

115
Q

Features of a malignant bone tumour

A
  • motheaten
  • permeative
  • cortical destruction
  • wide transition zone

-laminated or spiculated periosteal reaction

116
Q

Osteoma

A

-skull

117
Q

Osteoid osteoma

A
  • sclerotic pedicle with acute angle scoliosis around it
  • small lucent nidus maybe
  • cortical thickening
118
Q

Osteosarcoma

A
  • wide tranzition, fracture, cortex destruction
  • sclerotix or mixed
  • periosteal reaction
  • ST involvement

DDx:

  • Ewings sarcoma (kids)
  • Non-Hodgkins (elderly)
119
Q

Metastasis

A
  • diffuse opacities or densities or both
  • assymmetrical, non-uniform
  • NO expansion, cortex destruction, periosteal reaction
  • accross multiple bones
120
Q

Enchondroma

A
  • geographic
  • bit expansive
  • metaphyseal
  • endosteal scaloping

-matrix calcification

121
Q

Haemangioma

A

-vertical trabeculations

DDx:
-osteoporosis

122
Q

Nonossifying fibroma

A
  • diametaphyseal
  • cortical, eccentric
  • oval
  • thin cortex
  • hazy / smoky

-2-7cm

DDx:

  • fibrous dysplasia (bigger)
  • osteomyelitis
  • brodies abscess
123
Q

Fibrocortical defect

A
  • diametaphyseal
  • cortical /eccentric
  • thin cortex
  • hazy /smoky

<2cm

124
Q

Simple Bone Cyst

A

-fragment sign *Hallmark**

  • truncated, central
  • septations
  • mild expansion
  • endosteal scalloping

DDx:

  • ABC
  • ++??
125
Q

Aneurysmal Bone Cyst

A
  • extreme expansion
  • eggshell cortex
  • buttressing
  • septation

DDx:
-SBC

126
Q

Giant Cell Tumour

A
  • up to joint lint *Hallmark**
  • epiphysis

DDx:
-Malignant GCT

127
Q

Malignant GCT

A

-expansive distal radius

GCT became expansive now

-other place too

128
Q

Ewings Sarcoma

A

-kids

  • cortical saucer
  • diaphyseal

really looks like Osteosarcoma

DDx:

  • Osteomyelitis
  • Osteosarcoma (ST mass)
  • Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma (ST mass)
129
Q

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma

A

-elderly

  • permeative / motheaten
  • medullary
  • patchy
  • ST mass

DDx:

  • Osteosarcoma
  • Ewings (kids)
130
Q

Chondrosarcoma

A
  • calcific densities
  • expansion
  • meta/diaphysis
  • scalloping
  • septations

-ST mass

131
Q

Fibrosarcoma

A

-huge ST mass

132
Q

Multiple Myeloma

A
  • circumscribed
  • uniform size multiple circular lytic lesions
  • endosteal scalloping
  • decerae density
  • vertebra plana

DDx:

  • Osteoporosis (looks same)
  • Lytic Mets
133
Q

What tumours mostly go to the spine?

A

Hemangioma
Mets
Multiple Myeloma
Osteoid Osteoma

Sacrum:

  • Plasmacytoma
  • Chordoma

+more?

134
Q

Scheurmann’s Disease

A

At least 3 consecutive vertebra with at least 2 of:

  • schmorls nodes
  • anterior wedging
  • increased AP diameter
  • increased kyphosis
  • decreased disc height

*must be in a child or teen

Post scheurmans DDx:
-osteoporosis

135
Q

Differential for hyperlucency in a chest x-ray

A
  • Pneumothorax
  • COPD
  • Bulla

-mastectomy

136
Q

Pneumothorax:

A
  • mediastinal shift
  • absent lung markings
  • shriveled up lung
137
Q

COPD

A
  • B/L generalised hyperlucent lungs
  • big lung size: flat diaphragm, heart lifted off it
  • Ephysema
138
Q

Bulla

A
  • still lung markings
  • thin wall of density around
  • circular

-can be with emphysema

139
Q

Differential for hyperdense area on chest x-ray

A
  • Pleural effusion (bottom)
  • Atelectasis (uniform, pulls mediastinum)
  • Pneumonia (lobe shape, NO mediastinum shift)
  • Coin lesion (pulls mediastinum)
  • Interstitial fibrosis
  • Miiary shadows (TB, Mets, sarcoidosis)
  • Pleural plaques
  • Mesothelioma
140
Q

Pleural effusion

A
  • lung base
  • meniscus sign
  • blunt costophrenic angle
141
Q

Atelectasis

A

Uniform:

  • lobe shape
  • pulls mediastinum
  • no lung markings left

Linear:

  • 1-3cm above diaphragm
  • horizontal
142
Q

Pneumonia

A
  • lobe shape
  • blurry borders
  • NO mediastinum shift
  • air bronchogram sign: fluid black white circles
143
Q

Coin lesions

A

Mets:

  • spiculated
  • lobulated
  • multiple
  • hilar enlargement

Bronchial carcinoma

144
Q

Interstitial fibrosis

A

Mediastinal shift toward lesion

Pneumoconiosis
TB
Sarcoidosis, RA, SLE

145
Q

Miliary shadows

A

Spotty, similar densities

TB - apical
Sarcoidosis: middle
Mets: lower

146
Q

Pleural Plaques

A
  • thickness around lung periphery
  • crosses structures
  • BL often
147
Q

Mesothelioma

A
  • decreased lung size because buldges onto lung field

- lobulated

148
Q

Differential for unilateral hilar enlargement

A
  • tumour

- infection

149
Q

Differential for bilateral hilar enlargement

A

Sarcoidosis
Mets
Infection

150
Q

Cardiac enlargement

A

Lateral thoracic

AP thoracic

151
Q

Mediastinal enlargement

A

,

152
Q

Abdomina perforation

A

Air under diaphragm

153
Q

Inguinal Hernia

A

Air under inguinal ligament

154
Q

Hepatomegaly

A

Liver shadow over ilium and or midline

155
Q

Bowel obstruction

A

Air fluid levels
Small intestine visible
Stripes over bowels

156
Q

Retroperitoneal fluid

A

-blurred psoas lines

157
Q

Kidney stones

A

Stag horn

DDx gallstones

158
Q

Pancreatic calcification

A
  • spotty pancreas shape

- L and R oblique shape

159
Q

Gall stones

A
  • sclerotic rim
  • grapes
  • on the R
160
Q

Ureteric calculi

A

larger than phleboliths or uterus fibroids

161
Q

Splenic artery aneurysm

A

The only time u see the spnelic artery

Looks like single gallstone on the L