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Rad 316 > Skull > Flashcards

Skull Flashcards

1
Q

This skull is divided into two main set of bone

A

eight cranial bones and 14 facial bones

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2
Q

The eight bones of the cranium are divided into

A

Calvarium and the floor

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3
Q

The skullcap is made of

A

frontal bone right parietal bone left bone occipital bone

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4
Q

The floor is made of

A

Right temporal bone left temporal bone ethmoid bones bone sphenoid bone

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5
Q

The bone of the Calvarium that is mostly visible is

A

Frontal bone

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6
Q

Contribute to the formation of the forehead and the superior orbital part

A

The frontal bone

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7
Q

What are the parts of the frontal bone?

A

The squamous or vertical portion and the horizontal or orbital portion

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8
Q

Which part of the frontal bone forms the forehead?

A

The squamous or vertical portion

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9
Q

Which portion of the frontal bone forms the superior part of the orbit?

A

Orbital or horizontal portion

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10
Q

Is the smooth raised prominent between the eyebrows just above the bridge of the nose?

A

The glabella

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11
Q

Slight depression above the eyebrows

A

Super orbital groove SOG

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12
Q

Slight depression above the eyebrows

A

Super orbital groove SOG

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13
Q

It corresponds to the floor of the interior of the cranial vault

A

Super orbital groove

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14
Q

The level of orbit plate or the highest level of facial mass

A

superior orbital groove

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15
Q

The superior rim of each orbit

A

Super orbital margin

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16
Q

Small hole or opening within the superior orbital margin

A

Super orbital notch

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17
Q

The super orbital nerve and archery pass through this opening

A

Super orbital margin notch

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18
Q

The super orbital nerve and archery pass through this opening

A

Super orbital margin notch

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19
Q

On each side of the squamous portion of the frontal bone above the super orbital groove is a large rounded prominence termed

A

Frontal tuberosity

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20
Q

The orbital or horizontal portion of the frontal bone consist of

A

Super orbital margin super ciliary ridge ,glabella and frontal tuberosity

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21
Q

The orbital plate on each side form

A

Part of each orbit

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22
Q

Above the orbital plate is

A

Interior part of the floor of the brain case

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23
Q

Each orbital plate is separated from the other by

A

Ethmoidal notch

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24
Q

The frontal bone articulate with

A

Four cranial bone which are right and left parietal bones sphenoid bone ethmoid one

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25
Q

The frontal bone articulate with …. facial bone

A

8 facial bones

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26
Q

The lateral wall of the cranium and part of the roof are formed by

A

Two parietal bones

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27
Q

A roughly square shape bones and have a concave internal surface

A

Parietal bones

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28
Q

The widest portion of the entire skull is located between

A

The parietal tubercles

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29
Q

Parietal bone articulate with ….

A

Five cranial bones, frontal ,occipital ,temporal sphenoid and opposite parietal

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30
Q

The inferior posterior portion of this skull cap

A

Occipital bone

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31
Q

The external surface of the occipital bone present around part called

A

Squamous portion

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32
Q

Forms most of the back of the head and is the part of the occipital bone that is superior to the external occipital protuberance or inion

A

Squamous portion of occipital bone

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33
Q

Prominent bump or protuberance at the inferior posterior portion of the skull

A

Inion

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34
Q

The large opening at the base of the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes as it leaves the brain is called

A

Foreman Magnum means great hole

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35
Q

Oval processes with convex surface

A

Occipital condyles

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36
Q

Two parts articulation between the skull and the cervical spine is called

A

Atlanto occipital joint

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37
Q

Occipital bone articulate with

A

6 bones 2 parietal 2temporal sphenoid and atlas

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38
Q

Depression within the first cervical vertebra

A

Atlas

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39
Q

Complex structure that houses with delicate organs of hearing and balance

A

Temporal bone

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40
Q

Situated between the greater wing of the sphenoid interiorly and the occipital bone posteriorly

A

Temporal bone

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41
Q

Extending interiorly from the squamous portion of the temporal bone is an arch of bone termed

A

Zygomatic process

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42
Q

The zygomatic arch is formed by

A

The zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the temporal process of the zygomatic bone

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43
Q

Inferior to the zygomatic process and interior to the external acoustic meatus

A

Temporomandibular fossa

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44
Q

Projecting inferior to the mandible and interior to the EAM is a cylinder Bony projection called

A

Styloid process

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45
Q

What are the three primary parts of the temporal bone?

A

The squamous portion
Petrous pyramid
Mastoid portion

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46
Q

Thin upper portion of the temporal bone that forms part of the wall of the skull

A

Squamous portion

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47
Q

Part of the skull quite thin and it is the most vulnerable portion of the entire skull to fracture

A

The squamous portion

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48
Q

Posterior to the EAM many air cells within it

A

Mastoid portion

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49
Q

Pars petrosa

A

Petrous pyramids

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50
Q

Houses, the organs of hearing and equability

A

Petrous pyramid

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51
Q

Why do we call the Petrus pyramid the petromastoid portion?

A

Because it include the mastoid air cell

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52
Q

The upper border or red of the petrous pyramid

A

Petrous ridge or petrous apex

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53
Q

The thickest and the densest born in cranium

A

Petrous pyramids

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54
Q

These portion of the temporal bone correspond to the level of TEA

A

Petrous ridge

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55
Q

Near the centre of Petrus pyramid on the posterior surface just superior to the jugular foreman is an opening or orifice called

A

Internal acoustic metres

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56
Q

Transmitted and nerves of hearing and equilibrium

A

Internal acoustic metres

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57
Q

Where are the bilateral jugular foramina located?

A

At the base of the cranium and are where internal jugular vein are formed and three cranial nerve pass

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58
Q

Temporal bone articulate with

A

Three cranial bone parietal occipital sphenoid and each temporal bone articulate with two facial bones

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59
Q

Forms the anchor of the other seven cranial bones

A

Sphenoid bone

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60
Q

Forms the anchor of the other seven cranial bones

A

Sphenoid bone

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61
Q

The central portion of the sphenoid bone is

A

The body

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62
Q

Which part of the sphenoid bone contain this sphenoid sinuses?

A

The body

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63
Q

Central depression on the body of the sphenoid born is

A

Sella turcica

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64
Q

What does the sellea turcica protect?

A

Hypophysis cererbri /pituitary gland

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65
Q

A shallow depression that begins on the posterior inferior aspect of the dorsum sellae ?

A

Clivus

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66
Q

Slightly depressed area forms a base of support for pones which is a portion of the brainstem and for the basil artery

A

Clivus

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67
Q

Triangular and are nearly horizontal ending medially in the two interior clinoid process

A

Lesser wings

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68
Q

They project laterally from the superior interior portion of the body and extend to the middle of each orbit

A

Lesser wings

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69
Q

They extend laterally from the body of the sphenoid bone and form a portion of the floor of the cranium and a portion of the side of the cranium

A

Greater wings

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70
Q

Three pairs of small foramina exist in the greater wings for passage of certain cranial nerve

A

foreman rotundum and the foreman ovale and the foreman spinosum

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71
Q

Arising from the posterior aspect of the lesser wings are bony projections termed

A

Anterior clinoid process

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72
Q

What is between the interior body of the sphenoid bone and lesser wings on each side?

A

Groove like channels through which the optic nerves and certain arteries pass into the orbital cavity

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73
Q

What’s another name of optic groove?

A

Chiasmatic

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74
Q

What’s another name of optic groove?

A

Chiasmatic

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75
Q

List the groove like canals through which optic nerve and certain arteries pass into

A

1-chiasmatic
2-optic canal
3-optic foramina

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76
Q

Irregular shaped opening that are slightly lateral and posterior to the optic foramina

A

Superior orbital fissures

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77
Q

Openings that provide additional communication with orbits and numerous cranial nerves and blood vessels

A

Superior orbital fissures

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78
Q

A process in the sphenoid bone that sometimes referred to as plates

A

The petrygoid process

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79
Q

A small hooklike process that end inferiorly on the medial petrygoid process

A

Petrygoid hamuli

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80
Q

The petrygoid process forms part of the wall of the nasal cavity

A

True

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81
Q

What is often the only clue that illusion exist intracrainily

A

Deformity in sella turcica

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82
Q

Sella turcica and Dorsum sellae are demonstrated best on

A

Lateral view

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83
Q

Sella turcica and Dorsum sellae are demonstrated best on

A

Lateral view

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84
Q

This sphenoid born articulate with how much facial bone

A

5

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85
Q

That lies primarily below the floor of the cranium

A

Ethomid bone

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86
Q

Small upper horizontal portion of the ethmoid bone

A

Cribriform plate

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87
Q

Contain many small opening into which olfactory nerve pass

A

Cribriform plate

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88
Q

Roosters comb

A

Crista galli

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89
Q

Roosters comb

A

Crista galli

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90
Q

The major portion of ethmoid bone lies beneath the floor of the cranium

A

True

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91
Q

Help in formation of nasal septum

A

Perpendicular plate

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92
Q

Lateral masses of ethmoid born contain

A

Ethmoid air cells

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93
Q

Parts of the ethmoid bone that helps in the formation of medial wall of the orbits and lateral wall of nasal cavity

A

Lateral mass

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94
Q

Thin scroll shaped projection extending medially and downward from the medial wall of the labyrinth

A

Superior and medial conchae

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95
Q

The ethmoid bone articulate with

A

Two cranial bones, frontal and sphenoid and articulate with 11 facial bone

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96
Q

The ethmoid bone is located ………in relation to the sphenoid bone

A

Anterior

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97
Q

The articulations or joint of the cranium are called

A

Sutures

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98
Q

Sutures are classified as

A

Fibrous joint

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99
Q

What is the sub classification o fibrous joint?

A

Synarthrodial joint

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100
Q

Separates the frontal bone from the two parietal bone

A

Coronal suture

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101
Q

Separating two parietal bone

A

Sagittal suture

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102
Q

Separate two parietal bones from occipital bones

A

Lambdoidal suture

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103
Q

Inferior junction of the two parietal bones with temporal bones

A

Squamosal sutures

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104
Q

The interior end of the sagittal suture is termed

A

Bregma

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105
Q

The posterior end of the sagittal suture

A

Lambda

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106
Q

Points at the junction of the frontal parietal temporal and the greater wing of the sphenoid

A

Pterions

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107
Q

The pterions are at the posterior end of the sphenoid parietal suture

A

True

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108
Q

Points posterior to the ear where the squamosal and the lambdoidal sutures meet

A

Asterions

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109
Q

Ossification of the individual while cranial bone is incomplete at birth

A

True

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110
Q

Areas where the suture joins are slower in their ossification

A

Fontanels

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111
Q

When does the cranial sutures ossify ?

A

Mid to late 20 and in some people until the fifth decade

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112
Q

What do you call the soft spots that are membrane covered opening in infant?

A

Anterior and posterior fontanels

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113
Q

What fontanels is the largest at birth?

A

The anterior fontanels ,2.5cm wife and 4cm long

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114
Q

When does the interior Fontenel close completely?

A

18 monthes of age

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115
Q

When does the interior Fontenel close completely?

A

18 monthes of age

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116
Q

Two smaller Fontenel that close soon after birth

A

The sphenoid and mastoid Fontenel

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117
Q

Two smaller Fontenel that close soon after birth

A

The sphenoid and mastoid Fontenel

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118
Q

Small irregular bones that develop in an adult suture

A

Wormian

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119
Q

Where where is the most area that contain wormain?

A

Lambdoidal suture /posterior fontanels

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120
Q

Where does the external ear begin with?

A

Auricle or pinna

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121
Q

Small lip structure located interior to the EAM and act as a partial shield to the ear opening

A

Tragus

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122
Q

Small lip structure located interior to the EAM and act as a partial shield to the ear opening

A

Tragus

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123
Q

Opening or Canel to the external ear

A

EAM

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124
Q

Opening or Canel to the external ear

A

EAM

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125
Q

Measuring 2 .5 cm long half is bony and half is cartilaginous

A

EAM

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126
Q

The eardrum is situated in an oblique angle forming a depression

A

True

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127
Q

Irregular shaped air containing cavity between the external and the internal portion of ear

A

Middle ear

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128
Q

The three main parts of the middle ear

A

The tympanic membrane the small auditory ossicles
Tympanic cavity

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129
Q

The Tympanic cavity is divided into two parts

A

The Tympanic cavity proper and the epitympanic recess or attic

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130
Q

The tympanic membrane is attached to sharp bone production called

A

Drum crest

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131
Q

The drum crest separate the EAM from epitympanic recess

A

True

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132
Q

The tympanic cavity communicate interiorly with

A

Eustachian tube or auditory tube

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133
Q

Passageway between the middle ear and the nasopharynx

A

Eustachian tube

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134
Q

tube that is about 4 cm long and serve to equalise the pressure within the middle ear to the outside atmosphere

A

Eustachian tube

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135
Q

A direct passage from the throat to the middle ear

A

Eustachian tube

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136
Q

Appear in modified posterior interior projection 5 to 10 caudal angles

A

Internal acoustic meatus

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137
Q

What are the two imaging modalities that we use to demonstrate internal acoustic disease
?

A

CT for bone regions and MRI for acoustic neuroma

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138
Q

Second direct communication into the middle ear

A

Mastoid air cells

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139
Q

Opening between the. Epitympanic recess and the mastoid portion of the temporal.

A

Aditus

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140
Q

Aditus Connect directly to a large jumper within the mastoid portion termed the

A

Antrum

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141
Q

The antrum connect to various mastoid air cells

A

True

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142
Q

The antrum connect to various mastoid air cells

A

True

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143
Q

Serious infection in the brain

A

Encephalitis

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144
Q

Thin plate that forms route of the Antrum aditus and attic area of the tympanic cavity

A

Tegmen tympani

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145
Q

Small bones that are prominent structure within the middle ear

A

Auditory ossicles

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146
Q

Three auditory ossicles are located partially in the attic and partially in the tympanic cavity proper

A

True

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147
Q

Explain the route of auditory ossicles

A

First, the vibrations are going to be picked by the malleus meaning hammer which is attached directly to the inside surface of the tympanic membrane
Then goes to incus then to stapes

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148
Q

Looks like a premolar tooth

A

Incus

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149
Q

The smallest part of the auditory ossicles

A

Stapes

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150
Q

Which part of ear contain both hearing and aquarium sensory apparatus ?

A

Internal ear

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151
Q

Internal ear is divided into two parts

A

are the osseous or bony labyrinth and membrane once labyrinth

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152
Q

Bony Champer the houses the membrane Labyrinth

A

Osseous labyrinth

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153
Q

A series of intercommunicating duct and sacs

A

Membrane labyrinth

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154
Q

Give an example of membranous labyrinth duct

A

Endolymphatic duct

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155
Q

Blind pouch or close duct contained in a small candle like bony structure

A

Endolymphatic duct

156
Q

Blind pouch or close duct contained in a small candle like bony structure

A

Endolymphatic duct

157
Q

Arising from the medial wall of the vestibule and extent to posterior wall of petrous pyramid

A

Endolymphatic duct

158
Q

What are the part of bony labyrinth?

A

Cochlea and vestibule and semicircular canals

159
Q

A snail shell looking bony labyrinth

A

Cochlea

160
Q

Houses along coiled tube like duct of the membrane labyrinth

A

Cochlea

161
Q

We sometimes refer to the round window as

A

Cochlea window

162
Q

The central portion of bony Labyrinth that contains the oval window

A

Vestibule

163
Q

Name the semi circular canals

A

Superior posterior and lateral

164
Q

What is the function of the semi circular canals?

A

Allowing a sense of equilibrium and a sense of direction

165
Q

What is the function of cochlea ?

A

Relates to the sense of hearing because it connect to the steps through the oval window

166
Q

Two opening into the internal ear that are covered by membrane

A

The oval or vestibular window and the round window

167
Q

Which window of the two internal ear window will receive vibration from the external ear through the distal aspect of the steps?

A

The oval window

168
Q

Which structure houses the semi circular canals?

A

Vestibule

169
Q

membrane. that allows movement of fluid with the closed duct system of the membrane labyrinth

A

The round window

170
Q

When the Oval window moves slightly inward with the vibration, what happens to the round window?

A

It will move externally or outside or outward

171
Q

The largest immovable bones of the face

A

Maxilla bones

172
Q

Structurally the most important bone of the upper face

A

Maxilla

173
Q

Bones that are solidly united at the midline below the nasal septum

A

Maxillary bones

174
Q

Bones that are solidly united at the midline below the nasal septum

A

Maxillary bones

175
Q

Each maxillary bone assess the formation of three cavities in the face

A

Oral cavity nasal cavity orbital cavity

176
Q

Name the four processes of the maxilla

A

The frontal process the. zygomatic process the peloton process the alveolar process

177
Q

Name the four processes of the maxilla

A

The frontal process the. zygomatic process the peloton process the alveolar process

178
Q

Part of the maxillary process that project upward and along the lateral border of the nose towards the frontal bone

A

Frontal process

179
Q

Part of the maxillary process that project upward and along the lateral border of the nose towards the frontal bone

A

Frontal process

180
Q

A process in the inferior aspect of the body of each maxilla

A

Alveolar process

181
Q

Point at the superior aspect of anterior nasal spine

A

Acanthion

182
Q

Forms of the interior portion of the roof of the mouth

A

Palatine process

183
Q

The palatine processes are solidly united at the midline to form a

A

Synarthrodial joint

184
Q

Opening between the palatine processes caused by incomplete joint of the two bones

A

Cleft palate

185
Q

Forming the posterior part of the hard palate

A

Palatine bones

186
Q

The maxilla Articulate with 2 cranial bones are :

A

1-frontal bones
2-ethmoid bones

187
Q

How much facial bone does the maxilla articulate with?

A

7
Zaygoma ,nasal,palatine ,inferior nasal concha,vomer,maxilla

188
Q

Sometimes termed the Malar bones

A

Zaygomatic bones

189
Q

Make up the lower outer portion of the orbit

A

Zaygomatic bones

190
Q

Name the three articulation with cranial bones of with zygomatic bone

A

1-frontal bone
2-sphenoid bone
3-temporal bone

191
Q

How many facial bones does the zaygoma articulate with?

A

One ,maxilla

192
Q

The thinnest and the most fragile bones in the entire body

A

Lacrimal and nasal bones

193
Q

Lie interiorly and on the medial side of each orbit posterior to the frontal process of the maxilla

A

Lacrimal bones

194
Q

Point of junction of the nasal bones with the frontal bone

A

Nasion

195
Q

Point of junction of the nasal bones with the frontal bone

A

Nasion

196
Q

Name the two facial bones that articulate with the lacrimal bones

A

Maxilla and inferior nasal conchac

197
Q

Nasal bone articulate with how much cranial and facial bone

A

It’s articulate with two cranial bones which are the frontal ethmoid and two facial bones which are the maxilla and the other nasal bone

198
Q

Platelile , curved or scroll shaped facial bone

A

Inferior nasal concha

199
Q

Project from the lateral wall of the nasal cavity and extend medially

A

Inferior nasal concha

200
Q

What is the effect of the three pairs of nasal concha

A

Dividing the nasal cavity into a various compartment these irregular compartment tend to break up the flow of air and make it into warm so when it comes to contact with mucosa membrane

201
Q

Helps in the separation of the cranium from facial bone mass

A

Crista galli and cribriform plate

202
Q

The horizontal portion of the palatine bone help makes

A

Hard palate

203
Q

How many cranial bones articulate with inferior nasal con?

A

1 ethmoid bone

204
Q

How many facial bones does the inferior nasal concha articulate with?

A

Maxilla ,lacrimal,palatine

205
Q

Palatine articulate with how many cranial bones

A

2, sphenoid and ethmoid

206
Q

Palatine articulate with how many cranial bones

A

2, sphenoid and ethmoid

207
Q

Palatine bones articulate with how many facial bones ?

A

Maxilla ,inferior nasal concha ,vomer,other palatine

208
Q

What are the two bones that forms in the nasal septum?

A

Ethmoid and vomer

209
Q

The septum is formed superiorly by what bone?

A

Perpendicular bone

210
Q

The nasal septum is cartilaginous interiorly and is termed

A

Septal cartilage

211
Q

Means a plowshare

A

Vomer bone

212
Q

Thin triangular bone that forms the inferior posterior part of the nasal septum

A

Vomer bone

213
Q

Source of a nosebleed with a trauma to the nasal area

A

Furrow like depression for blood vessel

214
Q

Clinical condition where the nasal septum is deflected or displaced laterally from the midline of the nose

A

Deviated nasal septum

215
Q

The vomer articulate with how much cranial and facial bone

A

Sphenoid and ethmoid
Four facial bone
Palatine bone 2
2maxillar

216
Q

The largest facial bone is

A

Mandible

217
Q

The two bone of the Mendible in infant become one at what age?

A

1 year

218
Q

The area interior to the gonion is

A

The body

219
Q

The union of the mandible is called

A

Symphysis menti

220
Q

Flat triangular area below the symphysis

A

Mental protuberance

221
Q

The mental point is a specific point on the chin where the mentum describe the entire area of the chin

A

True

222
Q

Located on each half of the body of the mandible is

A

Mental foreman

223
Q

The process at the anterior end of the mandibular notch is termed

A

Coronoid process

224
Q

A process that does not articulate with any other bone and cannot be palpated easily

A

Coronoid process

225
Q

The posterior process of the upper Ramus is termed

A

Condyloid process

226
Q

Constricted area directly below the condyoloid process

A

Neck of condyle

227
Q

The round end of the condyloid process

A

The head

228
Q

What is the joint classification of the Mendel and temporal bone joint?

A

Synovial joint or diarthrodial joint

229
Q

An articular disc separate the temporomandibular joint into

A

Upper and lower synovial cavity

230
Q

How many movement are in the temporomandibular joint?

A

Hinge type of motion and gliding motion

231
Q

What happen when you open your mouth?

A

The condos and the fibre cartridges move forward, but at the same time the condo revolves around the fibro cartridges

232
Q

Temporomandibular joint Is classified as

A

Bicondylar similar to the knee

233
Q

Unique type of fibrous joint involving the teeth of the mandibula and the maxilla

A

Gumphosis

234
Q

The large airfield cavity of paranasal sinuses are sometimes called

A

Accessory nasal sinuses

235
Q

How many paranasal sinuses are there and their numbers in each bone

A

The maxillary sinuses contain2 the frontal usually 2
Ethmoid many sphenoid one or two

236
Q

What is the purpose of the paranasal sinuses?

A

Assistant in the vocal resonance lighten the weight of the skull produce mucus

237
Q

The paranasal sinuses begin to develop in

A

Fetus

238
Q

Only the maxillary sinuses exhibit define cavity at birth

A

True

239
Q

The frontal and the sphenoids sinuses begin to be visible by the age of

A

6 to 7

240
Q

All paranasal sinuses generally are fully developed by late teens

A

True /ethmoid sinuses developed last

241
Q

An old term of the mauxiliary sinuses

A

Antrum of Highmore

242
Q

All the paranasal sinus cavity communicate with one another and with

A

Nasal cavity

243
Q

Radiographic positioning of the paranasal sinuses should be in a

A

Erect position

244
Q

The frontal sinuses are rarely symmetric

A

True

245
Q

Frontal sinus is cavities are larger in men than women

A

True

246
Q

Pathological process become known because of their effect on

A

Sphenoid sinuses

247
Q

Air fluid level in this sphenoid sinuses indicate a potential

A

Basal skull fracture

248
Q

Blood or cerebral spinal fluid is leaking through sphenoid sinuses

A

Sphenoid effusion

249
Q

Drainage pathway of frontal maxillary and ethmoidal sinuses

A

Osteomeatal complex

250
Q

When the osteomeatal complex become obstructed

A

A condition termed sinusitis

251
Q

The modality of choice to visualise the OMU

A

CT

252
Q

Two key passageway in the OMU

A

Infundibulum and middle nasal meatus

253
Q

Makes up the medial wall of the infundibulum passageway

A

Uncinate process

254
Q

Received drainage from frontal and ethmoidal sinus cells

A

Ethmoid bulla

255
Q

The uncinate is part of

A

Ethmoid bone

256
Q

Corn shaped bony wall structure

A

Orbital cavity

257
Q

Outer circle portion of the orbit cone

A

Base

258
Q

Posterior portion of the orbital cone

A

Apex

259
Q

Each orbit would project superiorly at an angle of …..entered the midsagittal pain at an angle of……

A

30
37

260
Q

The orbit is composed of how many bone?

A

7

261
Q

The base of each orbit is made of three bones

A

Frontal bone Maxilla and zygoma

262
Q

Form most of the roof of the orbit

A

Orbital plate of the frontal bone

263
Q

Form most of the lateral wall and some of the floor of the orbit

A

Zaygoma

264
Q

Form the floor of the orbit

A

Maxilla

265
Q

A Portion of the middle wall of the orbit is also formed by

A

Lacrimal bone

266
Q

Form the posterior part of the orbit

A

Sphenoid and ethmoid

267
Q

Forms the innermost posterior portion of the floor of each orbit

A

The palatine bone

268
Q

Each orbit contain how many holes

A

3

269
Q

Name the three orbital holes

A

The optic forearm
The superior orbital fissure
the inferior orbital fissure

270
Q

Alarm for the passage of optic nerve which continuation of the retina

A

Optic foreman of sphenoid bone

271
Q

A Clift or opening between the greater and lesser wing of these sphenoid born

A

Superior orbital fissure

272
Q

A Clift or opening between the greater and lesser wing of these sphenoid born

A

Superior orbital fissure

273
Q

Allow transmission of four primary cranial nerves that control the movement of the eye and eyelid

A

Superior orbital fissure

274
Q

An opening in the orbit it is located between the maxilla zygomatic bone and greater wing of the sphenoid at allow the transmission of the maxillary branch improvement sensory intervention of the nose lip

A

Inferior orbital fissure

275
Q

A small root of bone that separates the superior orbital fissure from the optic canal

A

Sphenoid strut

276
Q

Small Canel into which the optic foreman opens

A

The optic canal

277
Q

The presence or absence of a fracture is not an indicator of an underlying brain injury

A

True

278
Q

Linear fracture

A

Fracture of the skull that may appear jagged or irregular lucent line

279
Q

Sometimes called the ping -pong

A

Depressed fracture a fragment of bone that is separated and depressed into the cranial cavity a tangential may be used to see the degree of depression

280
Q

Fractured through the dense inner structure of the temporal bone is fracture are very difficult to visualise because of the complexity of the anatomy

A

Basal skull fracture

281
Q

What is the modality of choice to differentiate between a epidural and subdural haemorrhoid?

A

CT

282
Q

Primary malignant neoplasm that spread to distance through blood and the lymphatic system

A

Metastasis

283
Q

Metastasis growth can be identified on the image as

A

Osteolytic lesions are destructive lesions with irregular margin
osteoplastic legions are proliferative with increased in density
A combination of the two have a moth eaten appearance

284
Q

Moth eaten appearance

A

Osteolytic and osteoplastic combination

285
Q

Multiple myeloma

A

Bone tumour originate in the bone marrow skull is a common effected site

286
Q

Investigated many by CT or MRI may demonstrate enlargement of the sella turcica and erasion of the dorsum sella

A

Pituitary adenoma

287
Q

Osteitis deformans

A

Pageant disease, unknown origin bone destruction, followed by bone repair it involves many bone side, including the skull the radiograph will include lucency , demonstrate the destructive stage and a cotton wool appearance with irregular area of increased density nuclear medicine can demonstrate both region

288
Q

Osteitis deformans

A

Pageant disease, unknown origin bone destruction, followed by bone repair it involves many bone side, including the skull the radiograph will include lucency , demonstrate the destructive stage and a cotton wool appearance with irregular area of increased density nuclear medicine can demonstrate both region

289
Q

A cotton wool appearance

A

Paget disease

290
Q

Modality of choice of baget disease

A

Nuclear medicine

291
Q

Modality of choice of baget disease

A

Nuclear medicine

292
Q

Bacterial infection of the mastoid process that can destroy the inner part of the mastoid process

A

Acute mastoiditis

293
Q

Bacterial infection of the mastoid process that can destroy the inner part of the mastoid process

A

Acute mastoiditis

294
Q

Mastoid air cells are replaced with fluid filled abscess which can lead to progressive hearing loss

A

Acute mastoiditis

295
Q

Mastoid air cells are replaced with fluid filled abscess which can lead to progressive hearing loss

A

Acute mastoiditis

296
Q

Modality of choice for acute mastoiditis

A

CT

297
Q

Benign tumour of the auditory nerve that originate in the internal auditory canal

A

Acoustic neuroma

298
Q

Benign tumour of the auditory nerve that originate in the internal auditory canal

A

Acoustic neuroma

299
Q

Symptoms of acoustic neuroma

A

Hearing loss, dizziness losing balance

300
Q

Typically using CT or MRI but maybe visualise on plane image with expansion and asymmetry of the effected internal acoustic canal

A

Acoustic neuroma

301
Q

Benign cystic mass or tumour that is most common in the middle ear

A

Cholesteatoma

302
Q

Occurs due to a congenital defect or chronic otitis media it may destroy surrounding bone which can lead to serious complication

A

Chloesteatoma

303
Q

Complications, including hearing loss surgery is required to remove it

A

Cholesteatoma

304
Q

Project into a cavity and may cause chronic sinusitis

A

Polyp

305
Q

Arise from the mucus membrane

A

Polyp

306
Q

Hereditary disease, that involve irregular ossification of the auditory ossicles ?

A

Otosclerosis

307
Q

Most common cause of hearing loss in adults without eardrum damage

A

Otosclerosis

308
Q

Modality of choice for otosclerosis

A

CT

309
Q

Fracture to the floor of the orbit caused by an object striking the eye straight on

A

Blowout fracture

310
Q

It can cause entrapment and diplopia

A

Blowout fracture

311
Q

Blow to the cheek, resulting in a fracture of the zygoma in three places

A

Tripod fracture

312
Q

Tripod fracture causes fracture and zygoma in three places which are

A

Orbital process mauxiliary process and arch

313
Q

Causes free floating zygomatic bone

A

Tripod fracture

314
Q

Severe bilateral horizontal fracture of Maxilla may result in unstable detached fragment

A

Lefort fracture

315
Q

Fracture to one side of the structure that is caused by an impact on opposite side

A

Countercoup fracture

316
Q

Metal and other form of a fragment in the eye common industrial mishap

A

Foreign bodies of the eye

317
Q

Localised infection of the bone or bone marrow

A

Osteomyelitis

318
Q

It may be caused by bacteria from penetrating trauma or post operative or fracture complication. It may also spread by blood from a distant site.

A

Osteomyelitis

319
Q

Infection of the sinus mucosa that may be acute or chronic

A

Sinusitis

320
Q

Symptoms of sinusitis

A

Headache, pain swelling, low-grade fever

321
Q

Resulting in erasion of bony margin of the sinus secondary to sinusitis

A

Secondary osteomyelitis

322
Q

Condition that may be caused by malocclusion stress muscle spasm or inflammation

A

Temporomandibular joint syndrome

323
Q

Condition that may be caused by malocclusion stress muscle spasm or inflammation

A

Temporomandibular joint syndrome

324
Q

Symptoms include pain and clicking

A

TMG syndrome

325
Q

average measurement are 15 cm between parietal eminence 19 cm from frontal to external occipital prototype parents 23 cm from vertex to beneath the chin

A

Mesocephalic skull

326
Q

Width is 75% to 80% of the length?

A

Mesocephalic skull

327
Q

Short Broadhead

A

Brachycephalic

328
Q

Short Broadhead

A

Brachycephalic

329
Q

The width is 80% or greater than the length

A

Brachycephalic

330
Q

Width is less than 75% of the length

A

Dolichocephalic

331
Q

What is the angle between the Petrus pyramids and MSP for an average shape skull

A

47 degree

332
Q

What is the angle between the petrous pyramid and the MSP of the wide person head?

A

54

333
Q

For dolichocephalic the angle difference between Patroas and MSP

A

40

334
Q

Long narrow head will require …. Rotation.

A

More the 15 degree

335
Q

Point at the Junction of the upper lip and nasal septum

A

Acanthion

336
Q

Lower posterior angle on each side of the jaw

A

Gonion

337
Q

Midpoint of the triangular area of the chin

A

Mental point

338
Q

Large flap of ear made of cartilage

A

Pinna

339
Q

The junction of the upper and lower eyelids

A

Canthi

340
Q

The island meets near the nose

A

Inner canthus

341
Q

Superior rim of the Bony orbit of the eye

A

Super orbital margin

342
Q

A portion of the lateral rim that is near the outer canthus of the eye

A

Midlateral orbital margin

343
Q

Opening of the external ear

A

EAM

344
Q

Centrepoint of the EAM opening

A

Auricular point

345
Q

The most superior line of the positioning line

A

Glabella meatul line

346
Q

Located between the outer canthus and E a.m.

A

orbital meatal line

347
Q

Reids base line or anthropologic baseline

A

Infraorbital meatal line

348
Q

What is the average difference between the angle of OML and IOML?

A

7 to 8°

349
Q

Junction of the lips to the EAM

A

Lip meatal line

350
Q

Connect the Glabella to a point at interior aspect of alveolar process of the maxilla

A

Glabella alveolar line

351
Q

When the head is placed in a true lateral positioning, we can use this line

A

Interorbital line or interpupillary line

352
Q

Correspond to the level of the highest nuchal line of the occipital bone

A

Inion

353
Q

Two simple devices may be used to ensure accurate placement of cranial positioning line

A

A straightedge /angle ruler or goniometer

354
Q

Having a horizontal beam is necessary to

A

Visualise any existing air fluid within the cranial or sinus cavity

355
Q

Which positioning is preferred when imaging facial bone?

A

Erect position

356
Q

Moving the patients entire body in the erect position is often easier for accurate positioning

A

True

357
Q

Suspending respiration is especially important for patient in the prone position

A

True

358
Q

Medium KV, such as 75 to 85 KV analog or 80 to95 KV for digital system and using small vocal spot and short exposure time is required for cranium facial bone

A

True

359
Q

Medium KV, such as 75 to 85 KV analog or 80 to95 KV for digital system and using small vocal spot and short exposure time is required for cranium facial bone

A

True

360
Q

Optimum exposure is controlled by

A

MAs

361
Q

In order to protect the patient and minimise radiation exposure

A

Use close collimation and immobilise the head when necessary to minimise repeat centre properly

362
Q

Ears, nose jaw are often

A

Asymmetric

363
Q

Mastoid tip and orbital margin are safer landmark use

A

True

364
Q

What are the five common positioning error?

A

Rotation, tiliting, excessive flexing excessive extension improper central angulation

365
Q

Tipping or slanting of MSP

A

Tilt

366
Q

In PA skull projection the petrous pyramid is going to be projected directly onto the orbit

A

True

367
Q

To visualise facial bone, we need to remove petrous pyramid

A

True

368
Q

How do you remove petrous pyramid from facial bone projection?

A

It can be done by tube angulation or extension of the neck

369
Q

Geriatric patient KV may require 15% decreased in the case of

A

Osteoporosis

370
Q

Modality that Differentiate between blood clots, white and grey matter cerebral spinal fluid cerebral edema and neoplasms

A

CT

371
Q

Coronal CT can demonstrate

A

Any air fluid levels

372
Q

Intravenous contrast medium is not given for most CT sinus examination

A

True

373
Q

Most common clinical indication for CT sinuses are

A

Sinusitis and possible mass within a sinuses

374
Q

To evaluate TMG syndrome

A

MRI to see articular disc of the glenoid cavity of the TM fossa

375
Q

To evaluate TMG syndrome

A

MRI to see articular disc of the glenoid cavity of the TM fossa

376
Q

We can visualise the Fontenel with it

A

Sonography

377
Q

We can visualise the Fontenel with it

A

Sonography

378
Q

Evaluating intracranial haemorrhage of infants

A

Sonography

379
Q

Evaluating hydrocephalus

A

Sonography

380
Q

Evaluating hydrocephalus

A

Sonography

381
Q

Premature suture closure is called
We can evaluated by

A

craniosynostosis , sonography

382
Q

Sensitive screening for detecting skeletal metastasis

A

Nuclear medicine

383
Q

Brain tissue study

A

Can be done by nuclear medicine

384
Q

Alzheimer disease, seizure disorder or dementia tumour respond to treatment can be visualised by

A

Nuclear medicine

385
Q

Sensitive diagnose for osteomyelitis and occult fracture

A

Nuclear medicine

Rad 316 (3 decks)

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