Skin flora & infection Flashcards

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1
Q

what microbial nutrients are in the secretions of sebaceous glands

A

Urea, amino acids, salts, lactic acid and lipids

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2
Q

what area of the skin are microbes primarily associated

A

with the sweat ducts and hair follicles

wihtin the superficial layers of the epidermis and upper parts of the hair follicles

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3
Q

what is the pH of human secretions

A

always acidic, between 4 and 6

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4
Q

what pathogens are most skin infections due to

A

Most skin infections due to Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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5
Q

what is the only gram negative bacterium commonly found in the skin

A

Acinetobacter johnsonii

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6
Q

why are gram negative usually only minor constituents of normal skin flora

A

• Originally thought lack of success of Gram-negative bacteria is due to their inability to compete with Gram-positive organisms that are better adapted to the skin. If the latter are eliminated by antibiotic treatment, the Gram-negative bacteria can flourish.

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7
Q

give some examples of gram positive bacteria normally found on the skin

A

Staphylococcus epidermis, Streptococcus mitis and Micrococcus sp.,
(and a variety of both aerobic and anaerobic corynebacteria)

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8
Q

how many bacterial species live upon the skin

A

~1000 bacterial species

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9
Q

how does y-proteo P aeruginosa act as a mutualistic bacterium

A

offers benefits: pseudomonic acid (mupirocin) inhibits staph and strep tRNA synthetases; other factors inhibit fungi an opportunist. (can produce antibiotic)
but can cause disease

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10
Q

what species are mainly found in sebaceous areas

A

Propionibacteria and Staphylococcus species

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11
Q

what species of bacteria are mainly found in moist areas of the skin

A

Corynebacteria and Staphylococci

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12
Q

what species are mainly found in dry areas

A

Mixture of species but beta-Proteobacteria and Flavobacteriales dominate

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13
Q

ecologically why do sebaceous areas have greater species richness

A

due to the sebaceous fluid being produced form the glands

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14
Q

hat surgical revisions are available to treat infected hip replacements

A

Surgical revision involves
prosthesis removal and debridement with either immediate (one-stage; 30%) or
delayed (two-stage; 2-12 months; 64% (leave wound open with the joint and just treat the infection) joint replacement or
with excision (Girdlestone procedure; 6%).

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15
Q

what is 18F-Fluoro-deoxyglucose positron emission tomography (18F-FDG PET)

A

a procedure used to detect problems with hip implants by illuminating the Activated inflammatory cells that accumulate FDG with high concentraion

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16
Q

what two types of catheters are common sites of infection

A

vascular catheters and intravenous catheters

17
Q

what is the standard catheter called (most commonly deployed medical device)

A

Foley catheters (100 million used annually worldwide)

18
Q

what is the chemical makeup of struvite stones

A

magnesium ammonium phosphate

19
Q

how do struvite stones from and what bacteria are capable of forming them

A

Due to urease hydrolysing urea, leading to the formation of ammonium and carbonate ions and an increase in urinary pH.
As the urine becomes alkaline, magnesium and calcium phosphate crystals are precipitated
Organisms splitting urea are Proteus, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, Staphylococcus, and Mycoplasma.

20
Q

what strategies are used against struvite formation around catheters

A

lower urine pH (citrus drinks); increase fluid intake; if antibiotics fail, surgically remove bladder stones

21
Q

why does replacing the catheter after urinary infection cause recurrence

A

new catheters are placed directly into alkaline urine containing bacteria and aggregates of crystals. Consequently, crystalline biofilms readily form on the new catheters and patients are prone to recurrent catheter blockage.
The crystalline aggregates also form stones in the bladder; antibiotic treatment will not clear the bacteria from the urinary tract. Bacteria embedded in the biofilm of the bladder stones are also protected from antibiotics

22
Q

what serious kidney and bloodstream infections can be caused by ascending reflux of alkaline urine containing bacteria and aggregates of crystals

A

pyelonephritis, septicaemia and endotoxic shock.

23
Q

what are uncomplicated UTIs

A

occurs in patients who have a normal, unobstructed genitourinary tract, who have no history of recent instrumentation, and whose symptoms are confined to the lower urinary tract. (uropathogenic E.coli)

24
Q

what are complicated UTIs

A

infection associated with factors increasing colonization and decreasing efficacy of therapy. Due to underlying medical conditions or other risk factors such as age, anatomical differences and indwelling devices. (P.mirabilis)

25
Q

in bladder infections what biofilm like defence do E.coli form inside the bladder epithelium

A

Intracellular bacterial communities (IBC): produce ‘pod’ in which they hide and become dormant in. and are activated by infection with another species (causing the epithelial wall to die and fall away)

26
Q

why are E.coli more virulent in presence of other bacteria (potentially)

A

when they form Intracellular bacterial communites, the cells inside the pod are activated by infection with another species which causes epithelial wall to start to die and fall away creating a perfect entry point for bacteria to come (eg Gardnerella vaginalis )

27
Q

what are three signatures of Ecoli biofilms

A

(type 1) pili, antigen 43 and EPS formation

28
Q

what are langerhans cells

A

a unique population of tissue-resident macrophages that form a network of cells across the epidermis of the skin, but which have the ability to migrate from the epidermis to draining lymph nodes (LN). Their location at the skin barrier suggests a key role as immune sentinels.