SKIN CARE PRODUCTS Flashcards
1
Q
The first line of defense against certain harmful microorganisms
A
Skin
2
Q
Found in palm and soles of feet.
A
Glabrous / Non-hairy
3
Q
Any part of the skin that does not have hair follicles and sebaceous glands.
A
Glabrous / Non-hairy
4
Q
Has a very thick epidermis.
A
Glabrous / Non-hairy
5
Q
Encapsulated organ in the dermis.
A
Glabrous / Non-hairy
6
Q
Found in any part of the body where hair growth occurs.
A
Hairy
6
Q
Any part of the skin that has hair follicles and sebaceous glands.
A
Hairy
7
Q
FUNCTIONS OF THE SKIN:
A
- Body temperature regulation
- Protection
- Vitamin D production
- Excretion
- Sensation
8
Q
Removal of waste and excess fluids in our body.
A
Excretion
9
Q
Major way to maintain body homeostasis
A
Excretion
10
Q
Skin allows an individual to touch and feel certain things.
A
Sensation
11
Q
In an average adult, skin covers a
surface area in excess of ______
A
2 m2
12
Q
With the exception of the skeletal muscles, the _______ is the heaviest organ of the body.
A
Skin
13
Q
T/F: The skin varies in thickness between the palms and soles of the feet, where it is very thick, to the fine delicate skin on the face.
A
TRUE
14
Q
Two types of skin
A
glabrous and hairy
15
Q
Found on the palms and soles of the feet, lacks hair follicles and sebaceous glands but has a very thick epidermis and encapsulated sense organs in the dermis.
A
Glabrous skin
16
Q
Hair follicles and sebaceous glands are both present, but there are no encapsulated sensory organs.
A
Hairy skin
17
Q
Skin protects underlying structures from
A
- Ultraviolet (UV) radiation
- Dehydration
18
Q
Needed for calcium absorption
A
Vit. D
19
Q
Small amounts of waste products are lost through ____________
A
perspiration
20
Q
If too hot, dermal blood vessels ________
A
dilate
21
Q
An avascular structure, made up of many layers of cells.
A
epidermis
21
Q
If too cold, dermal blood vessels ___________
A
constricts
22
Q
The special structure of the epidermis is classified as ____________________________ and is typical of vertebrate animals.
A
cornified stratified squamous epithelium
23
Responsible for producing the main barrier
Epidermis
24
Forms the outermost part of the epidermis.
horny layer or stratum corneum
25
The horny layer is made up of water-resistant dead cells, called ________
corneocytes
26
Characterized by the presence of distinctive keratohyalin granules
stratum granulosum or granular layer
27
Layers of epidermis in chronological order
corneum - lucidum - granulosum - spinosum - basale
27
Lower living layers of the epidermis
1. germinative or basal layer;
2. stratum spinosum or prickle
cell layer;
3. stratum granulosum or
granular layer
28
dynamic process of epidermal renewal
Keratinization
29
Keratinization begins in the __________
basal layer
30
Due to wear and tear, these cells in the horny layer are lost to the environment in a process called ___________
desquamation
31
supports the sensory nervous system, secretory glands and hair follicles
dermis
32
Functions as a supporting frame to the epidermis
dermis
33
Unlike the epidermis, which is a cellular structure, the underlying dermis consists of _____________
connective tissue
34
Compositions of Dermis:
1. Collagen and elastin
2. Ground substance
3. Mast cells
4. Sweat glands
5. Sensory skin receptors
35
major constituent of the fibrous protein which gives the skin its tensile strength
collagen
36
These collagen fibres make up ______ of the wet weight of the dermis and are arranged largely as interwoven strands.
30%
37
makes up a smaller percentage and tends to be interwoven among the
collagen bundles
elastin
38
allow the skin to deform and return to its original state once the pressure or tension is removed
elastin
39
consists of salt, water and glycosaminoglycans
ground substance
40
The dermal ground substance consists of ________, ________, and _______________.
salt, water, and glycosaminoglycans
41
The best-known examples of 'glycosaminoglycans'
hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulfate
42
Known to play a vital role in the hydration of tissues since it carries with it a large volume of water
Hyaluronic acid
43
Second major cell type in the dermis, can be found close to the small blood vessels
mast cells
44
They are responsible for synthesis and secretion of
(a) heparin, which is an anticoagulant,
(b) histamine and
(c) prostaglandins, both of which have vasoactive properties
mast cells
45
both of which have vasoactive properties
histamine and prostaglandin
46
Below the epidermis is a layer of fatty or adipose tissue called the ____________
hypodermis
47
The cells in this layer synthesize and store fat as an energy reserve.
hypodermis
48
provides the body with its contours,
whether they are attractive curves or unwelcome bulges
hypodermis
49
soft smooth skin with a healthy appearance
normal skin
50
fine texture, flaky, many expression lines, poor elasticity
dry skin
51
shiny with enlarged pores, often blemished
oily skin
52
florid with broken capillaries, fine textured, like dry skin
sensitive skin
53
excessively oily with blemishes
blemished skin
54
Skin types
1. normal
2. oily
3. dry
4. sensitive
5. blemished
55
Used to remove make-up, dead skin cells, oil, dirt, and other types of pollutants from the skin of the face
Cleansers
56
This helps to unclog pores and prevent skin conditions such
as acne.
Cleanser
57
first step in a skin care regimen and can be used in addition of a toner and moisturizer
Cleanser
58
average pH of skin's surface
4.7
59
Process of removing dead skin cells from the surface of your skin using a chemical, granular substance, or exfoliation tool.
exfoliating
60
Your skin naturally sheds dead skin cells to make room for new cells every ______
30 days
61
T/F: Long-term exfoliating can increase collagen production.
TRUE
62
T/F: Exfoliation can leave your skin looking brighter and improve the effectiveness of topical skin care products by enhancing adsorption.
FALSE (aBsorption)
63
T/F: Regular exfoliation can also help prevent clogged pores, resulting in fewer breakouts.
TRUE
64
This process involves physically scrubbing the skin with an abrasive.
Mechanical exfoliation
65
microfiber cloths, adhesive exfoliation sheets, micro-bead facial scrubs, crepe paper, crushed apricot kernel, sugar or salt crystals, pumice, and abrasive materials such as sponges, loofahs, and brushes
Mechanical exfoliation
66
People with dry skin should avoid exfoliants which include a significant portion of ___________
pumice or crushed volcanic rock
67
include scrubs containing salicylic acid, glycolic acid, fruit enzymes, citric acid, or malic acid
Chemical exfoliants
68
May involve the use of products that contain alpha hydroxy acids (AHAs), beta hydroxy acids (BHAs), or enzymes.
Chemical exfoliation
69
Used to address specific skin concerns such as acne, dark spots,
hyperpigmentation, fine lines and
inflammation.
Treatments
70
The most common active ingredients in treatments are __________.
retinoids
71
for skin allergies and inflammation
topical steroids
72
address fine lines and wrinkles
tretinoin and adapalene
73
treat acne
salicylic acid and benzoyl peroxide
74
Usually contain antioxidants, which
help fight free radical damage.
Serum
75
They can also contain anti-aging
ingredients such as retinols and peptides, which stimulate collagen production.
Serum
76
They are best used after your cleanser, and they can be used underneath moisturizer to treat the skin while sleeping.
Serum
77
Because they penetrate deep into the skin, these products are great for hydrating dry skin.
Serum
78
A lotion, spray, gel, foam, stick or other topical product that absorbs or reflects some of the sun's ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
Sunscreen
79
Diligent use of ___________ can also help to slow or temporarily prevent the development of wrinkles, dark spots and sagging skin.
sunscreen
80
Stay on the surface of the skin and mainly deflect the UV light.
Physical sunscreen
81
an opaque, full-spectrum sunscreen also used to give opacity to face powder and foundation
Zinc oxide
82
a full-spectrum , which means that it protects the skin from both
UVA and UVB rays
Titanium dioxide
83
It is also used to give opacity to face powder, eye shadow, and foundation.
Titanium dioxide
84
Sunscreen that absorbs the UV light
Chemical sunscreen
85
remove the outer layer of the skin, which means they tend to go deeper to remove more excess dead skin cells than exfoliators
Chemical peel
86
They usually contain glycolic, salicylic or lactic acids.
Chemical peel
87
Chemical peels usually contain ______, ______ or ______.
glycolic, salicylic or lactic acids
88
it shrinks pores and restores skin to its natural pH balance
Toner
89
Can be used after a cleanser twice a day to remove excess traces of makeup or other residue from the skin.
Toner
90
A product that adds water, and often some emollients, to the skin.
Moisturizer
91
Dryness and flexibility cannot be corrected with oils - Only ________
water
92
Used to limit the evaporation of water
Oil
93
An ingredient in skin or hair products that draws moisture from the air to moisturize the skin and also promotes the retention of moisture in the skin.
Humectant
94
Supple, waxlike, lubricating, thickening agents that prevent water loss and have a softening and soothing effect on the skin.
Emollient
95
A skin conditioning agent which helps maintain the smooth, soft pliable appearance of the skin.
Emollient
96
Usually a grease or an oil that softens the skin and protects it from dryness.
Emollient
97
substances that hold strongly to the surface of the skin, preventing access to the air and increasing absorption of cosmetic treatments
Occlusives
98
Examples of humectant
✔ Glycerin
✔ Propylene glycol
✔ Sorbitol
✔ Urea
✔ Lactic acid
✔ Hyaluronic Acid
99
Examples of emollient
✔ Sunflower seed oil
✔ Olive oil
✔ Allantoin
✔ Cocoa butter
✔ Myristyl Myristate
✔ Mineral oil
✔ Shea butter
100
Examples of occlusives
✔ Petrolatum
✔ Lanolin
✔ Candelilla wax
✔ Dimethicone
101
This is a nonspecific term used to describe any inflammatory skin disease resulting from contact with an irritant or allergenic substance.
CONTACT DERMATITIS
102
What are the clinical features of contact dermatitis?
itching, redness, and skin lesions
103
It is a term given to a complex group of localized inflammatory reactions that follow nonimmunological damage to the skin.
IRRITANT CONTACT DERMATITIS (IRRITATION)
104
Categories of ICD
Acute, Cumulative, or Delayed
105
Result of a single overwhelming exposure to a strong irritant or a series of brief physical or chemical contacts, leading to acute inflammation of the skin.
Acute Irritant Contact Dermatitis
106
Result of a series of repeated and damaging insults to the skin.
Cumulative Irritant Contact Dermatitis
107
The signs and symptoms of acute irritant dermatitis appear 12 to 24 hours or more after the original insult.
Delayed Acute Irritant Contact Dermatitis
108
Occurs when a substance comes into contact with skin that has undergone an acquired specific alteration in its reactivity as a result of prior exposure of the skin to the substance eliciting the dermatitis.
ALLERGIC CONTACT DERMATITIS
109
gold standard test
Patch test
110
The skin response of ACD is _______________
delayed, immunologically mediated (Type IV)
111
Allergic contact dermatitis is characterized by:
erythema, edema, papules, and papulovesicles
112
It is a chemically induced nonimmunological skin irritation requiring light.
PHOTOIRRITANT CONTACT DERMATITIS
113
potent photoirritant that causes berloque dermatitis
Bergapten
114
It is an immunological response to a substance that requires the presence of light.
PHOTOALLERGIC CONTACT DERMATITIS
115
Examples of photoallergens present in cosmetics are:
musk ambrette and 6-methylcoumarin
116
It represents a heterogeneous group of inflammatory reactions that appear, usually within a few minutes to an hour, after contact with the eliciting substance.
CONTACT URTICARIA SYNDROME
117
Simplest and is the "first-line" test in the diagnosis of Contact Urticaria Syndrome.
Open test
118
It is the most common class of CUS. The reaction usually remains localized.
Nonimmunological Contact Urticaria
119
These are CUS immediate (Type I) allergic reactions in people who have previously been sensitized to the causative agent.
Immunological Contact Urticaria
120
T/F: Immunological Contact Urticaria is IgE mediated and is more common in atopic individuals.
TRUE
121
This refers to the capacity of some agents to cause acne or aggravate existing acne lesions.
ACNEGENICITY
122
This is the capability of an agent to cause hyperkeratinous impactions in the sebaceous follicle or the formation of microcomedones.
Comedogenicity
123
This refers to the capability of an agent to cause inflammatory papules and pustules.
Pustulogenicity
124
Common Components that cause Cosmetic Allergic Reaction:
Fragrance Ingredients
Preservatives
Antioxidants
“Active” or Category-Specific Ingredients
Excipients and Emulsifiers
Coloring Agents
125
a test for determining allergic sensitivity
PATCH TEST
126
Patch test is conducted on a panel of at least
25 subjects
127
a test for determining the irritation and/or sensitization potential of a test material in support of sensitive skin claims
Human Repeat Insult Patch Test (HRIPT)
128
The HRIPT consists of ____ phases
3
129
A test to evaluate the skin conditions before and after one month of product usage. The evaluator counts the number of comedons and blackheads on the forehead, cheeks, and chin.
NON-COMEDOGENIC TEST
130
A test to evaluate skin conditions before and after one month of product usage. The evaluator counts the number of acne lesions (papules and pustules) on the forehead, cheeks, and chin.
NON-ACNEGENIC TEST
131
A test that allows to assess the irritation potential of a topical product applied on the eye contour area.
PERIOCULAR TOLERANCE TEST
132
The study is conducted under the supervision of an ophthalmologist.
PERIOCULAR TOLERANCE TEST
133
This test is used for allergic susceptibility.
SCRATCH TEST
134
Other names of Scratch Test
Skin prick test / Prick test / Puncture test
135
It is considered a Pre-testing
NON-COMEDOGENIC TEST
