Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Skeletal Radiology > SkelRad A Midterm > Flashcards

SkelRad A Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What germ layer is bone derived from?

A

mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Diaphysis

A

primary center of ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

epiphysis

A

secondary center of ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

apophysis

A

secondary growth centers
a protuberance
functions as the attachment site for ligaments and tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Enthesis

A

site of attachment of tendons and ligaments
highly vascularized
high metabolic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the four functions of periosteum

A

attaches to the cortex via sharpey’s fibers
maintains caliber of bone by appositional bone growth
provies a transitional zone of attachment for muscles, ligament, and tendons
serves as a source of vascular perfusion for the outer third of the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

5 zones of the growth plate:

A 
metaphysis
zone of degeneration
zone of hypertrophy
zone of proliferation
resting cartilage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Resting cartilage

A

attaches growth plate to epiphysis

if injured, growth stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

zone of proliferation

A

where bone is lengthened due to active growth of chondrocytes
if cells die, growth stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

zone of hypertrophy

A

chondrocytes mature
no active growth
weakest portion of the plate
site of salter-harris fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

zone of degeneration

A

aka zone of ossification
site of dying chrondrocytes, ossification starting
attaches growth plate to metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of bone marrow is hematopoietically active

A

Red marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what type of bone marrow increases with age

A

yellow (fatty) marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how are calcium and phosphorous levels related?

A

inversely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the two main functions of parathormone

A

stimulate and control the rate of bone remodeling

influence mechanisms governing control of plasma level calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Two direct effects of parathormone

A

stimulates ca++ absorption from glomerular fluid in kidneys

promotes osteoclastic resorption in the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

indirect effect of parathormone

A

influences rate of calcium absorption in the intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

functions of vitamin d

A

regulates intestinal mineral absorption

maintains skeletal growth and mineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vitamin D

A

key hormone responsible for calcium absorption from the diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Categories of bone disease

A 
"cat bites"
congenital
arthritis
trauma
blood (hematological)
infection
tumor
endocrine, nutritional, metabolism
soft tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Types of osteolytic lesions

A

geographic
motheaten
permeative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Characteristics of geographic lesions

A

destructive, sharp borders, less aggressive, slow growing, benign, narrow zone of transition

23
Q

Characteristics of moth-eaten lesions

A

destructive, ragged borders, more rapid growth, may be malignant, 2-5 mm diameter

24
Q

Punched-out lesions are characteristic of what?

A

multiple myeloma

25
Q

characteristics of permeative lesions

A

ill-defined, worm holes, wide zone of transition, implies aggressive malignancy

26
Q

Osteoblastic lesions

A

aka osteogenic

refers to a lesion that produces new bone where it should not be

27
Q

A narrow zone of transition indicates what type of margin

A

sharp margins

28
Q

A wide zone of transition indicates what type of margin

A

poor margins

difficult to ascertain where the lesion starts and stops

29
Q

How does bone usually respond to lesions?

A

by making new bone

30
Q

What kind of periosteal response do you usually see with a slow growing lesion?

A

Solid
the periosteum has plenty of time to respond to the process
can produce new bone just as fast as the lesion is growing

31
Q

If a lesions grows quickly and unevenly, what type of periosteal response will you see?

A

lamellated aka onion skin

a pattern of one of more concentric rings of new bone over the lesion

32
Q

If a lesion grows quickly and evenly, what type of periosteal response will you see?

A

“sunburst”

periosteum will not have time to lay down even a thin shell of bone, therefore the sharpey’s fibers become stretched out perpendicular to the bone and ossify

33
Q

What will you see if the lesion grows too quickly for the periosteum to respond?

A

Codman’s triangle
only the edges of the raised periosteum will ossify
forms a small angle with the surface of the bone, but not a complete triangle

34
Q

ddx for a solid periosteal response

A

benign, infection, or trauma

35
Q

ddx for a lamellated periosteal response

A

infection or primary malignant tumor

36
Q

ddx for a spiculated/sunburst periosteal response

A

very aggressive, primary malignant tumor

37
Q

ddx for codman’s triangle

A

infection or primary mailgnant tumor

38
Q

What are the 5 radiographic densities in radiography

A

air, fat, water, bone, metal

39
Q

hounsfield unit

A 
unit of radiographic density in CT
gives the attenuation properties of a given tissue
air = -1000
water = 0
bone = +1000
40
Q

What is a bone window in CT?

A

differentiates medullary and cortical bone

soft tissue densities appear dark grey

41
Q

What is a soft tissue window in CT?

A

attenuation values of soft tissues

cannot differentiate cortical and medullary bone

42
Q

What is TR in MRI?

A

repetition time

time interval between the two 90 deg pulses

43
Q

What is TE in MRI?

A

the time between the pulse and the detection of the MR signal

44
Q

T1 MRI

A

short TR, short TE
shows fat
good for looking at bone marrow

45
Q

T2 MRI

A

long TR, Long TE
shows water
good for looking at organs, or bone for trauma

46
Q

Proton density MRI

A

long TR, short TE

all tissues

47
Q

Osteoporosis

A

most common metabolic disease of the bone
resorption of the supporting trabeculae, spares the vertically oriented stress trabeculae
decrease in quantity, not quality

48
Q

osteopenia

A

term used to describe general radiolucent bone

descriptive term, not a cause

49
Q

Principle compressive group

A 
part of wards triangle
runs from medial metaphyseal cortex to superior femoral head
major weight-bearing trabeculae
thickest, most densely packed
last to be obliterated
50
Q

Secondary compressive group

A

part of wards triangle
begins near the lesser trochanter, curves toward greater trochanter
thin, widely separated

51
Q

Principle tensile group

A

part of wards triangle
from the lateral cortex to inferior to the greater trochanter
extends in an arch like pattern

52
Q

Wards triangle

A

confluence of three patterns, forms triangular radiolucency

53
Q

Insufficiency fracture

A

occurs when bone is not strong enough to withstand normal physiological stress

Skeletal Radiology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions