Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

The bones that form the longitudinal axis of the body.

A

Axial skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The bones of the limbs and girdles.

A

Appendicular skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

System that includes the joints, cartilages, and ligaments

A

Skeletal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A dense and smooth bone, that is homogeneous.

A

Compact bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A bone composed of small needle-like pieces of bone and lots of open space.

A

Spongy bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bones that are typically longer than they are wide.

A

Long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A generally cube-shaped bone that is typically mostly sponge bone

A

Short bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Thin, flattened bones that are usually curved. Two thin layers of compact bones sandwiching a layer of spongy bone.

A

Flat bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bones that do not fit into any one of the 3 main categories. The vertebrae and hip bones fall into this category.

A

Irregular bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This makes up most of the bone’s length and is composed of compact bone. Also called the shaft.

A

The diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A fibrous connective tissue membrane that covers and protects the diaphysis.

A

The periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This secures the periosteum to the underlying bone.

A

Sharpey’s fibers, or perforating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The ends of the long bones that consist of a thin layer of compact bone enclosing an area filled with spongy bone.

A

The epiphyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This covers the external surface. It is glassy hyaline cartilage and provides a slippery surface that decreases friction at joint surfaces.

A

Articular cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In adult bones, there is a thin line of bony tissue spanning the epiphysis that looks a bit different from the rest of the bone in that area.

A

Epiphyseal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Seen in a young, growing bone, these cause the lengthwise growth of a long bone.

A

Epiphyseal plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The cavity of the shaft is primarily a storage area for adipose (fat) tissue.

A

Yellow marrow, or medullary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In adults, this is confined to the cavities of the spongy bone of flat bones and the epiphysis of some long bones.

A

Red marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The bumps, holes, and ridges of the bones.

A

Bone markings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mature bone cells

A

Osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tiny cavities within the matrix

A

Lacunae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The lacunae are arranged in concentric circles called

A

Lamellae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The lamellae are around these

A

Central (Haversian) canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Each complex consisting of a central canal and matrix rings is called

A

Osteon, or Haversian system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

These are tiny canals

A

Canaliculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The communication pathway fro the outside of the bone to its interior is completed by

A

Perforating (Volkmann’s) canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Large, rounded projection; may be roughened

A

Tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Narrow ridge of bone; usually prominent

A

Crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process.

A

Trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Narrow ridge of bone; less prominent than a crest

A

Line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Small, rounded projection or process

A

Tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Raised area on or above a condyle

A

Epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sharp, slender, often pointed projection.

A

Spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Any bone prominence.

A

Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Bony expansion carried on a narrow neck.

A

Head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Smooth, nearly flat articular surface.

A

Facet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Rounded articular projection.

A

Condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Armlike bar of bone.

A

Ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Canal-like passageway

A

Meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cavity within a bone, filled with air and lined with mucous membrane.

A

Sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Shallow, basinlike depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface.

A

Fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Furrow.

A

Groove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Narrow, slitlike opening.

A

Fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Round or oval opening through a bone.

A

Foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The process of bone formation.

A

Ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Bone-forming cells.

A

Osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Bone breaks into many fragments.

A

Comminuted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Bone is crushed.

A

Compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Broken bone portion is pressed inward.

A

Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Broken bone ends are forced into each other.

A

Impacted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ragged break occurs when excessive twisting forces are applied to a bone.

A

Spiral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bone breaks incompletely, much in the way a green twig breaks.

A

Greenstick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

These are giant bone-destroying cells in bones, that break down bone matrix and release calcium ions into the blood.

A

Osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

This is essential if bones are to retain normal proportions and strength during long-bone growth as the body increases in size and weight.

A

Bone remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Breaks in the bone.

A

Fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Blood-filled swelling form when a bone breaks.

A

Hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A mass of repair tissue.

A

Fibrocartilage callus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The fibrocartilage callus is gradually replaced by one made of spongy bone when a bone fractures is called a

A

Bony callus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

This encloses and protects the fragile brain tissue.

A

Cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

This holds the eyes in an anterior position and allow the facial muscles to show our feelings through smiles and frowns.

A

Facial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

This forms the forehead, the bony projections under the eyebrows, and the superior part of each eye’s orbit.

A

Frontal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A canal that leads to the eardrum and the middle ear.

A

External acoustic meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A sharp, needle-like projection that is just inferior to the external auditory meatus.

A

Styloid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A thin bridge of bone that joins with the cheekbone anteriorly.

A

Zygomatic process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

A rough projection posterior and inferior to the external acoustic meatus.

A

Mastoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

This allows passage of the jugular vein which drains the brain.

A

Jugular foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

This transmits cranial nerves VII and VIII.

A

Internal acoustic meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The most posterior bone of the cranium.

A

Occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The area where the occipital bone joins the parietal bone anteriorly.

A

Lambdoid structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A large opening at the base of the occipital bone.

A

Foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The butterfly-shaped sphenoid bone that spans the width of the skull and forms part of the floor of the cranial cavity.

A

Sphenoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A small depression in the midline of the sphenoid.

A

Sella turcica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A large oval opening in line with the posterior end of the sella turcica allows fibers of cranial nerve V to pass the chewing muscles of the lower jaw.

A

Foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Opening which allows the optic nerve to pass to the eye.

A

Optic canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A slitlike opening through which the cranial nerves controlling eye movements pass.

A

Superior orbital fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

A very irregularly shaped and lies anterior to the sphenoid. It forms the roof of the nasal cavity and part of the medial walls of the orbits.

A

Ethmoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Projecting from the superior surface of the ethmoid bone is the

A

Crista galli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

On each side of the crista galli are many small holes called

A

Cribriform plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

These are extensions of the ethmoid bone.

A

The superior and middle nasal conchae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

These fuse to form the upper jaw.

A

Maxillary bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The upper teeth are carried by the maxillae in the

A

Alveolar margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

These extensions of the maxillae form the anterior part of the hard palate of the mouth.

A

Palatine processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The maxillae contain these that drain into the nasal passages.

A

Sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

These surround the nasal cavity, lighten the skull bones, and act to amplify the sounds we make as we speak.

A

Paranasal sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

These lie posterior to the palatine processes of the maxillae and form the posterior part of the hard palate.

A

Palatine bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Commonly referred to as the cheekbones. They form a good-sized portion of the lateral walls of the orbits, or eye sockets.

A

Zygomatic bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Fingernail-sized bones forming part of the medial walls of each orbit. Each of these has a groove that serves as a passageway for tears.

A

Lacrimal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The small rectangular bones forming the bridge of the nose.

A

Nasal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The single bone in the median line of the nasal cavity.

A

Vomer bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Thin, curved bones projecting from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity.

A

Inferior nasal conchae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The lower jaw.

A

Mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

This bone does not articulate directly with any other bone. It is suspended in the mid-neck region about 2 cm above the larynx.

A

Hyoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Fibrous membranes connecting the cranial bones in a fetal skull.

A

Fontanels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The axial support of the body.

A

Vertebral column, or spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Before birth, there are 33 of these. But eventually, 9 of these will fuse together to form the sacrum and the coccyx.

A

Vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Single vertebrae are separated by pads of flexible fibrocartilage.

A

Intervertebral discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The spinal curvatures in the thoracic and sacral regions are referred to as the

A

Primary curvatures

98
Q

This curvature develops sometime after birth.

A

Secondary curvatures

99
Q

Common meal times to remember the number of vertebrae in the Cervical, Thoracic, and Lumbar regions.

A

7 a.m.—–12 p.m.——5 p.m.

100
Q

Abnormal spinal curvatures

A

Scoliosis, Kyphosis, Lordosis

101
Q

Disclike, weight-bearing part of the vertebrae facing anteriorly in the vertebral column.

A

Centrum or body

102
Q

Arch formed from the joining of all posterior extensions, the laminae and pedicles, from the vertebral body.

A

Vertebral arch

103
Q

Canal through which the spinal cord passes.

A

Vertebral foramen

104
Q

Two lateral projections from the vertebral arch.

A

Transverse processes

105
Q

Single projection arising from the posterior aspect of the vertebral arch.

A

Spinous process

106
Q

Paired projections lateral to the vertebrae foramen, allowing a vertebrae to form joints with adjacent vertebrae.

A

Superior and inferior articular processes

107
Q

These 7 vertebrae form the neck region of the spine.

A

Cervical vertebrae

108
Q

This has no body. Its superior surfaces of its transverse processes contain large depressions that receive the occipital condyles of the skull. This allows you to nod yes. It is C1.

A

Atlas

109
Q

This acts as a pivot for the rotation of the atlas (and skull) above. It is C2.

A

Axis

110
Q

The section of the spine consisting of 12 vertebrae.

A

Thoracic vertebrae

111
Q

This lower section of vertebrae has 5 vertebrae in it.

A

Lumbar vertebrae

112
Q

This is formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. It connects superiorly with L5, and inferiorly with the coccyx.

A

Sacrum

113
Q

The winglike ____ articulate laterally with the hip bones, forming the sacroiliac joints.

A

alae

114
Q

The fused spinous processes of the sacral vertebrae. This roughens the posterior midline surface of the sacrum.

A

Median sacral crest

115
Q

A large inferior opening that the vertebral canal terminates in the sacrum.

A

Sacral hiatus

116
Q

The vertebral canal continues inside the sacrum through this.

A

Sacral canal

117
Q

This is formed from the fusion of 3 to 5 tiny, irregularly shaped vertebrae. “Tailbone”

A

Coccyx

118
Q

The sternum, ribs, thoracic vertebrae make this up.

A

Bony thorax

119
Q

The bony thorax is often called this.

A

Thoracic cage

120
Q

A typically flat bone and the result of the fusion of three bones.

A

Sternum

121
Q

Three fused bones that make up the sternum.

A

Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process

122
Q

Concave upper border of the manubrium.

A

Jugular notch

123
Q

Where the manubrium and body meet at a slight angle to each other.

A

Sternal angle

124
Q

The point where the sternal body and xiphoid process fuse. Lies at the level of the ninth thoracic vertebrae

A

Xiphisternal joint

125
Q

These form the walls of the bony thorax. There are 12 pairs.

A

Ribs

126
Q

Do males have one less rib than females?

A

NO

127
Q

The first 7 pairs of ribs in the body, which attach directly to the sternum.

A

True ribs

128
Q

The last 5 pairs of ribs, which either attach indirectly to the sternum or not at all.

A

False ribs

129
Q

The last two pairs of ribs which lack sternal attachments.

A

Floating ribs

130
Q

The clavicle and scapula make up this.

A

Shoulder girdle or pectoral girdle

131
Q

A slender, doubly curved bone. It attaches to the manubrium of the sternum medially and to the scapula laterally.

A

Clavicle

132
Q

Triangular and are commonly called wings because they flare when we move our arms posteriorly.

A

Scapulae

133
Q

An enlarged end of the spine of the scapula.

A

Acromion

134
Q

Beaklike piece of the scapula.

A

Coracoid process

135
Q

The acromion connects with the clavicle laterally at this joint.

A

Acromioclavicular joint

136
Q

Medial to the coracoid process is this large notch. This serves as a nerve passageway.

A

Suprascapular notch

137
Q

A shallow socket that receives the head of the arm bone.

A

Glenoid cavity

138
Q

The arm is formed by a single, long bone.

A

Humerus

139
Q

Opposite the head of the humerus are two bony projections. These are the

A

Greater and Lesser tubercles

140
Q

In the midpoint of the shaft is a roughened area where the fleshy deltoid muscle of the shoulder attaches.

A

Deltoid tuberosity

141
Q

These run obliquely down the posterior aspect of the shaft. It marks the course of the radial nerve.

A

Radial groove

142
Q

This is at the distal end of the humerus and looks somewhat like a spool.

A

Trochlea

143
Q

The lateral ball-like structure at the distal end of the humerus.

A

Capitulum

144
Q

Above the trochlea anteriorly is a depression called the.

A

Coronoid fossa

145
Q

Above the trochlea posteriorly is a depression called the.

A

Olecranon fossa

146
Q

The two bones that form the forearm.

A

Ulna and Radius

147
Q

The lateral bone, more towards the thumb, located in the forearm.

A

Radius

148
Q

Both proximally and distally the radius and ulna articulate at small joints called.

A

Radioulnar joints

149
Q

The ulna and radius are connected along their entire length by.

A

Interosseous membrane

150
Q

Both the ulna and radius have this at their distal end.

A

Styloid process

151
Q

This is where the tendon of the biceps muscle attaches.

A

Radial tuberosity

152
Q

When the upper limb is in the anatomical position, this is the medial bone of the forearm

A

Ulna

153
Q

On the proximal end of the ulna on the anterior side is the

A

Coronoid process

154
Q

On the proximal end of the ulna on the posterior side is the

A

Olecranon process

155
Q

The coronoid process and olecranon process are separated by this.

A

Trochlear notch

156
Q

The hand consists of what three groups?

A

Phalanges, Metacarpals, Carpals

157
Q

There are 8 of these in the hand, arranged in two irregular rows of four bones each.

A

Carpal bones

158
Q

Another name for the wrist.

A

Carpus

159
Q

The palm of the hand consists of these.

A

Metacarpals

160
Q

This is a name for the fingers.

A

Phalanges

161
Q

The metacarpals are number 1 to 5 from which side to which.

A

Thumb side toward the little finger

162
Q

How many phalanges are in each hand?

A

14

163
Q

The three sections of the phalanges

A

Distal, Middle, Proximal

164
Q

Which phalange region is closest to the palm of the hand?

A

Proximal

165
Q

Which part of the phalanges is the tip of your fingers located?

A

Distal

166
Q

The thumb has which phalange parts?

A

Distal and Proximal

167
Q

This is formed by two coxal bones, or ossa coxae, commonly called the hip bones.

A

Pelvic girdle

168
Q

What is another name for the hip bones?

A

Ossa coxae

169
Q

The hip bone is formed by the fusion of what three bones?

A

The ilium, ischium, and pubis

170
Q

This connects posteriorly with the sacrum at the sacroiliac joint.

A

Ilium

171
Q

A large, flaring bone that forms most of the hip bone.

A

Sacroiliac joint

172
Q

The upper edge of alae is what crest? It is an important anatomical landmark that is always kept in mind of those giving injections.

A

Iliac crest

173
Q

The iliac crest ends anteriorly in the

A

Anterior superior iliac spine

174
Q

The iliac crest ends posteriorly in the

A

Posterior superior iliac spine

175
Q

The “sit down bone” is another name for this. It forms the most inferior part of the coxal bone.

A

Ischium

176
Q

A roughened area that receives body weight when you are sitting.

A

Ischial tuberosity

177
Q

This is superior to the ischial tuberosity, is important especially in pregnant women, because it narrows the outlet of the pelvis through which the baby must pass during the birth process.

A

Ischial spine

178
Q

An important structure of the Ischium that allows blood vessels and the large sciatic nerve to pass from the pelvis posteriorly into the thigh.

A

Greater sciatic notch

179
Q

The most anterior part of a coxal bone.

A

Pubis or pubic bone

180
Q

An opening that allows blood vessels and nerves to pass into the anterior part of the thigh.

A

Obturator foramen

181
Q

The pubic bones of each hip bone fuse anteriorly to form a cartilaginous joint called the

A

Pubic symphysis

182
Q

The ilium, ischium, and pubis fuse at the deep socket called what?

A

Acetabulum

183
Q

This receives the head of the thigh bone.

A

Acetabulum

184
Q

The bony pelvis is divided into two sections called what?

A

True pelvis and False pelvis

185
Q

This is superior to the true pelvis. It is the area medial to the flaring portions of the ilia.

A

False pelvis

186
Q

This is surrounded by bone and lies inferior to the flaring parts of the ilia and the pelvic brim.

A

True pelvis

187
Q

The inferior opening of the pelvis.

A

Outlet

188
Q

The superior opening of the pelvis.

A

Inlet

189
Q

This is the only bone in the thigh. Also called the thigh bone.

A

Femur

190
Q

What is the heaviest and strongest bone in the body?

A

Femur

191
Q

This separates the greater and lesser trochanters anteriorly.

A

Intertrochanteric line

192
Q

This separates the greater and lesser trochanters posteriorly.

A

Intertrochanteric crest

193
Q

The proximal end of the femur has a ball-like head, a neck, and what else.

A

A greater and lesser trochanters

194
Q

This serves as a site for muscle attachment on the shaft of the femur along with the trochanters and intertrochanteric crest.

A

The gluteal tuberosity

195
Q

Distally on the femur are the _____________ which articulate with the tibia below.

A

Lateral and Medial condyles

196
Q

Posteriorly, the lateral and medial condyles of the femur are separated by deep ___________

A

Intercondylar fossa

197
Q

Anteriorly on the distal femur is the smooth _______ that forms a joint with the patella, or kneecap.

A

Patellar surface

198
Q

What are the two bones of the lower leg?

A

The tibia and fibula

199
Q

The tibia and fibula are connected along their length by what?

A

Interosseous membrane

200
Q

The larger and more medial bone of the lower leg. Also known as the shinbone.

A

Tibia

201
Q

At the proximal end of the tibia, these articulate with the distal end of the femur to form the knee joint.

A

Medial and Lateral condyles

202
Q

The medial and lateral condyles are separated by what?

A

The intercondylar eminence

203
Q

The patellar ligament attaches to a roughened area on the anterior tibial surface called what?

A

Tibial tuberosity

204
Q

Distally, a process called ________ forms the inner bulge of the ankle.

A

Medial malleolus

205
Q

The anterior surface of the tibia is a sharp ridge that is unprotected by muscles. It is easily felt underneath the skin. What is this called?

A

Anterior border

206
Q

This lies alongside the tibia and forms joints with it both proximally and distally. It is also thin and sticklike. It has no part in forming the knee joint.

A

Fibula

207
Q

The distal end of the fibula, the _______________, forms the outer part of the ankle.

A

Lateral malleolus

208
Q

These compose the foot.

A

Tarsals, Metatarsals, and Phalanges

209
Q

What two important functions does the foot have?

A

It supports our body weight and acts as a lever that allows us to propel our bodies forwards.

210
Q

These form the posterior half of the foot. It has seven tarsal bones.

A

Tarsus

211
Q

The body weight is carried by the two largest tarsals called what?

A

Calcaneus (heel bone) and the Talus (ankle)

212
Q

This lies between the tibia and the calcaneus.

A

Talus

213
Q

How many metatarsals form the sole?

A

5

214
Q

What forms the sole of the feet?

A

Metatarsals

215
Q

How many phalanges are in on foot?

A

14

216
Q

All toes have how many phalanges?

A

3, except for the Great toe, which only has 2.

217
Q

Another name for joints

A

Articulations

218
Q

Immovable joints

A

Synarthroses

219
Q

Slightly moveable joints

A

Arthroses

220
Q

Freely moveable joints

A

Diarthroses

221
Q

What kind of joint is united by fibrous tissue?

A

Fibrous joint

222
Q

When the connecting fibers are longer than those of sutures, this is called what?

A

Syndesmoses

223
Q

Joints where the bone ends are connected by cartilage.

A

Cartilaginous joints

224
Q

Joints where the articulating bone ends are separated by a joint cavity containing synovial fluid.

A

Synovial joints

225
Q

This is something that covers the ends of bones forming the joint in a synovial joint.

A

Articular cartilage

226
Q

The joint surfaces are enclosed by a sleeve or capsule of fibrous connective tissue, and the capsule is lined with a smooth synovial fluid. This is a feature of a synovial joint.

A

Fibrous articular capsule

227
Q

The articular capsule encloses a cavity which contains lubricating synovial fluid. This is a feature of a synovial joint.

A

Joint cavity

228
Q

The fibrous capsule is usually _______ with _______ in a synovial joint.

A

Reinforcing ligaments

229
Q

Flattened fibrous sacs lined with synovial membrane and containing a thin film of synovial fluid.

A

Bursae

230
Q

Essentially an elongated bursa that wraps completely around a tendon subjected to friction.

A

Tendon sheath

231
Q

A type of synovial joint that the articular surfaces are essentially flat, and only short slipping or gliding movements are allowed.

A

Plane joint

232
Q

A type of synovial joint where the cylindrical end of one bone fits into a trough-shaped surface on another bone.

A

Hinge joint

233
Q

type of synovial joint where the rounded end of one bone fits into a sleeve or ring of bone.

A

Pivot joint

234
Q

A type of synovial joint where the egg-shaped articular surface of one bone fits into an oval concavity in another.

A

Condyloid joint

235
Q

A type of synovial joint where each articular surface has both convex and concave areas, like a saddle.

A

Saddle joints

236
Q

A type of synovial joint where the spherical head of one bone fits into a round socket in another.

A

Ball-and-socket joint

237
Q

A disorder that describes 100 different inflammatory or degenerative diseases that damage the joints.

A

Arthritis

238
Q

The most common form of arthritis. It is a condition that typically affects the aged. Also called wear-and-tear arthritis.

A

Osteoarthritis (OA)

239
Q

A chronic inflammatory disorder. Its onset is insidious and usually occurs between the ages of 40 and 50, but it may occur at any age.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis. (RA)

240
Q

A disease in which uric acid accumulates in the blood and may be deposited as needle-shaped crystals in the soft tissues of joints.

A

Gouty arthritis (Gout)

241
Q

A bone-thinning disease that afflicts half of women over 65, and 20 perfect of men over the age of 70.

A

Osteoporosis