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Behavioural > SJSM Block 3 > Flashcards

SJSM Block 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Sex:

Describe the 4 categories of sexual dysfunctions

A
  1. Sexual desire disorder.
  2. Sexual arousal disorder
  3. Orgasmic disorder
  4. Sexual pain disorders
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2
Q

Sex:

Differential diagnosis
PENIS

A

Psychological (erection during REM)

Endocrine (diabetes or low testosterone)

Neurological (Post-op or spinal cords injury)

Insufficient blood flow (Atherosclerosis)

Substances (drugs)

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3
Q

Sex:

Drugs to treat vaginal dryness

A

Antihistamine (diphenhydramine)
&
Anticholinergics (atropine)

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4
Q

Sex:

Antihistamine (diphenhydramine)
&
Anticholinergics (atropine)

A

Drugs for vaginal dryness

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5
Q

Sex:

Drugs to treat inhibited orgasm in males & females

A

Antidepressants (Fluoxetine)

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6
Q

Sex:

Drugs to treat priapism

A

Antidepressants (Trazodone: Atypical)
&
Cocaine

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7
Q

Sex:

Antihistamine (diphenhydramine)
&
Anticholinergics (atropine)

A

Drugs to treat priapism

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8
Q

Sex:

Drugs to treat ejaculation

A

Antidepressants (Fluoxetine)
&
Antipsychotics (Thioridazine)

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9
Q

Sex:

Antidepressants (Fluoxetine)
&
Antipsychotics (Thioridazine)

A

Drugs to treat ejaculation

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10
Q

Sex:

Short term effects of alcohol & weed

A

High sexuality because lowered inhibitions

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11
Q

Sex:

Long term effects of alcohol

A

Liver dysfunction & higher estrogen causing sexual dysfunction in men

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12
Q

Sex:

Long term effects of weed

A

Low testosterone in males

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13
Q

Sex:

Describe the effects of SSRIs

A

Low dopamine
Low arousal
Low NO
Low libido
High serotonin
Vasoconstriction

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14
Q

Sex:

Heroin & methadone are used to treat

A

Suppress libido
Retarded ejaculation
Failure to ejaculate

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15
Q

Sex:

Amyl nitrate is used as a

A

an aphrodisiac (because its a vasodilator)

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16
Q

Sex:

Amphetamines & cocaine have what effect

A

Increase sexuality because they stimulate dopaminergic systems. They can be used to treat priapism

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17
Q

Sex:

Describe urophilia

A

aka a golden shower, when someone has a sexual desire to pee on their partner or get peed on

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18
Q

Sex:

Pedophilia

A

Sexual attraction to kids

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19
Q

The golden shower, when someone has a sexual desire to pee on their partner or get peed on

A

Urophilia

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20
Q

Sexual attraction to kids

A

Pedophilia

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21
Q

Sexual sadism

A

Arousal when inflicting pain/humiliation

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22
Q

Masochism

A

Arousal when receiving pain or being humiliated

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23
Q

Arousal when receiving pain or being humiliated

A

Masochism

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24
Q

Arousal when inflicting pain/humiliation

A

Sexual sadism

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25
Q

Describe voyeurism

A

A peeping tom, someone who gets off on watching others get frisky

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26
Q

A peeping tom, someone who gets off on watching others get frisky

A

voyeurism

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27
Q

Describe incest

A

Sexual attraction to a family member (daddy issues to the max)

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28
Q

Describe Telephone scatologia

A

when someone calls unsuspecting strangers to initiate sexual conversation (NOT CONSENSUAL!)

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29
Q

when someone calls unsuspecting strangers to initiate sexual conversation (NOT CONSENSUAL!)

A

Telephone scatologia

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30
Q

Describe Zoophilia

A

Arousal associated with animals (especially if they’ve been trained to participate in sexual activity ~ew)

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31
Q

Arousal associated with animals (especially if they’ve been trained to participate in sexual activity ~ew)

A

Zoophilia

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32
Q

Coprophilia

A

(crap-o-phile) someone who gets pleasure from poop, either pooping on their partner, getting pooped on, or even eating
(2 girls & a cup =gross)

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33
Q

(crap-o-phile) someone who gets pleasure from poop, either pooping on their partner, getting pooped on, or even eating
(2 girls & a cup =gross)

A

Coprophilia

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34
Q

Describe coprolalia

A

When someone gets off on compulsive utterance of obscenities (usually fixated in anal stage)

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35
Q

When someone gets off on compulsive utterance of obscenities (usually fixated in anal stage)

A

coprolalia

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36
Q

Describe klismaphilia

A

When someone incorporates enemas into sexual activities

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37
Q

When someone incorporates enemas into sexual activities

A

klismaphilia

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38
Q

Medical conditions associated with sexual dysfunction:

Explain how MI’s have the capacity to impair sexual functioning for males/females in a psychological & physical way

A

MIs can make someone worried about fear of having another MI or experiencing the negative side effects of their medications (prescribed for the MI)

This can lower libido and lead to erectile dysfunction

If patients are able to maintain activity around 110-130HR without SOB & choose less exertive positions during sex they may be more inclined to engage in sexual behavior

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39
Q

Medical conditions associated with sexual dysfunction:

Explain how diabetes has the capacity to impair sexual functioning for males in a psychological & physical way

A

Mostly physical:

Erectile dysfunction
Vascular insufficiency

both can be treated with Sildenafil (viagra)

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40
Q

Medical conditions associated with sexual dysfunction:

Explain how spinal cord injuries have the capacity to impair sexual functioning for males/females in a psychological & physical way

A

Males:
Erectile & orgasmic dysfunctions leading to retrograde ejaculation (cum into the bladder), & long refractory periods

Females:
Vaginal lubrication dryness, pelvic Vaso-congestion, & orgasmic dysfunction

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41
Q

Sex:

Antidepressants (Fluoxetine)
&
Antihypertensives (Propanolol & methyldopa)

are used to treat

A

Low libido

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42
Q

What drugs are best to treat low libido?

A

Antidepressants (Fluoxetine)
&
Antihypertensives (Propanolol & methyldopa)

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43
Q

What are the drugs to treat high libido?

A

Antiparkinsonian (L-Dopa)

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44
Q

Antiparkinsonian (L-Dopa) is used to treat what?

A

high libido

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45
Q

What drugs are used to treat erectile dysfunction

A

Antidepressants (Fluoxetine)
Antihypertensive (Propranolol & Methyldopa)
Antipsychotic (Thioridazine)

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46
Q

Antidepressants (Fluoxetine)
Antihypertensive (Propranolol & Methyldopa)
Antipsychotic (Thioridazine)

are used to treat what?

A

erectile dysfunction

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47
Q

Sexual pain disorders:

Painful spasms of the 1/3 outer vagina causing difficult penetration or vaginal exams

Primary (psychological: sexual abuse, taught immorality, & fear of pain upon penetration)

Secondary (Physical infection or birth trauma)

A

Vaginismus

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48
Q

Vaginismus

A

Painful spasms of the 1/3 outer vagina causing difficult penetration or vaginal exams

Primary (psychological: sexual abuse, taught immorality, & fear of pain upon penetration)

Secondary (Physical infection or birth trauma)

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49
Q

Painful sexual disorders:

Pain during penetration
PID (Chlamydiosis or gonorrhea)
Retroverted uterus, endometriosis, or drugs

A

Dyspareunia

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50
Q

Describe Dysparenunia

A

Painful sexual disorders:

Pain during penetration
PID (Chlamydiosis or gonorrhea)
Retroverted uterus, endometriosis, or drugs

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51
Q

Describe fetishism

A

Sexual attraction to inanimate objects (shoes)

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52
Q

Sexual attraction to inanimate objects (shoes)

A

Describe fetishism

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53
Q

Describe Transvestic fetishism

A

Arousal when cross-dressing

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54
Q

Describe fetishism

A

Transvestic fetishism

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55
Q

Describe Exhibitionism

A

Someone gets sexual gratification from exposing their genitals to strangers

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56
Q

Someone gets sexual gratification from exposing their genitals to strangers

A

Exhibitionism

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57
Q

Describe Frotteurism

A

Someone rubbing their penis against a clothed & unaware/un-consenting person

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58
Q

Someone rubbing their penis against a clothed & unaware/un-consenting person

A

Frotteurism

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59
Q

Describe necrophilia

A

Somone doing sexual activities with dead bodies

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60
Q

What is Sildenafil citrate used to treat

A

treats erectile disfunctions by inhibiting PDE’s

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61
Q

Psychological treatments:

Masturbation is used to treat

A

Orgasm dysfunction

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62
Q

Yahimbine is used to treat what

A

Erectile dysfunction

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63
Q

SSRI’s (Fluoxetine are used to treat

A

premature ejaculation

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64
Q

Psychological treatments:

Squeeze technique is used to treat

A

Premature ejaculation

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65
Q

Psychological treatments:

Sensate focus exercise is used to treat

A

Arousal, Desire, & Orgasm disorders

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66
Q

Snap Guage aka Nocturnal Penile Tumescence testing is used to determine what?

A

If erectile dysfunction is psychological or physical, ex. if they get an erection during REM the problem is likely psychological

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67
Q

Stages of the sexual response cycle includes

A
  1. Excitement/arousal stage
  2. Plateau phase (pre-orgasm)
  3. Orgasm
  4. Resolution (arousal decreases aka post orgasm)
  5. Desire (sexual cues/desires/fancies)
  6. Refectory period (men can’t be stimulated immediately post orgasm)
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68
Q
A

Female sexual cycle

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69
Q
A

Male sexual cycle & refractory period

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70
Q

Describe female sexual arousal disorder (FRIGIDITY)

A

Can’t maintain vaginal lubrication during sex despite stimulation

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71
Q

Describe male sexual arousal disorder (Impotence)

A

Can’t maintain an erection

primary: life-long

secondary: acquired used to be able to but now can’t maintain an erection

Situational: turn off

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72
Q

Sexual desire disorder (low libido)

Describe hypoactive sexual desire disorder

A

Lower interest in sex

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73
Q

Sexual desire disorder (low libido)

Describe sexual aversion disorder

A

Disordered excitement phase
Lower testosterone/estrogen
Triggers (stress, aging, fatigue, pregnant, SSRI’s, & depression etc)

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74
Q

Hitting someone can be described as

A

Physical + Active

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75
Q

Not shaking someone’s hand is described as

A

Physical + Passive

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76
Q

Name calling someone is described as

A

Verbal + Active

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77
Q

Not saying hello is described as

A

Verbal + Passive

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78
Q

Describe instinct theory

A

The idea that evolution has made humans inherit fighting instinct like animals (we exert aggression on others as catharsis)

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79
Q

Describe social learning theory

A

The idea that human aggression is mostly learned from watching others behaviors either in person or in movies or its also learned when our aggressive behavior is rewarded

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80
Q

Describe frustration-aggression hypothesis

A

Our motivation for aggression increases when our ongoing behavior is interrupted or we’re prevented from reaching a goal

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81
Q

Our motivation for aggression increases when our ongoing behavior is interrupted or we’re prevented from reaching a goal

A

frustration-aggression hypothesis

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82
Q

The idea that human aggression is mostly learned from watching others behaviors either in person or in movies or its also learned when our aggressive behavior is rewarded

A

social learning theory

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83
Q

The idea that evolution has made humans inherit fighting instinct like animals (we exert aggression on others as catharsis)

A

instinct theory

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84
Q

Sleep Stages:

Awake

A

When we are conscious & aware of our environment, our brains show Beta & alpha waves

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85
Q

Describe Beta & Alpha waves & what stage of the sleep cycle are they involved in?

A

Alpha waves: Come from the occipital & parietal lobes when we’re relaxed with closed eyes

Beta waves: Come from the frontal lobes they’re present when we’re actively concentrating

Awake stage

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86
Q

Sleep Stages:

Stage 1

A

aka Light sleep this accounts for 5% of sleep. It has Theta waves

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87
Q

Describe the characteristics of stage 1 sleep

A

Light sleep 5%
- Slow pulse
- Slow respiration
- Slow eye movements
- Low BP
- Episodic body movements
- Peaceful

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88
Q

Sleep stages:

Theta waves are indicative of what stage of sleep?

A

Stage 1 aka light sleep 5%

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89
Q

Sleep stages:

Describe Stage 2 of the sleep cycle

A

Relaxed stage 45% (largest stage)
Has sleep spindles & K complexes

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90
Q

Sleep stages:

Describe the characteristics of Stage 2 sleep

A

Aka relaxed sleep 45%
It has sleep spindles & K complexes
- BRUXISM (teeth grinding)
- No eye movement
- No conscious awareness of the environment
- Slowed body functions
- Reduced muscular activity

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91
Q

Sleep stages:

Describe stages 3-4

A

aka Slow-wave sleep 25%, it has Delta waves & is our deepest most relaxed stage

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92
Q

Sleep stages:

Describe the characteristics of Stages 3-4

A

Aka slow-wave sleep 25%, with Delta waves:
- Night terrors
- Sleep walking (Somnambulism)
- Enuresis (bed wetting)
- Slow Heart & Respiratory rate

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93
Q

Sleep stages:

Waking someone in stage 3-4 (slow-wave sleep) will cause them to experience what?

A

Sleep inertia or sleep drunkenness, they will be disoriented/confused and likely won’t be able to function right away

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94
Q

Sleep stages:

Describe REM sleep wave types

A

A sawtooth pattern with Beta, Alpha, & Theta waves 25% intervals happen every 90 minutes

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95
Q

Sleep stages:

Describe the characteristics of REM sleep stage

A

A sawtooth pattern with Beta, Alpha, & Theta waves 25%:
-Dreams
- Penile/clitoral erection
- High Ach
- High pulse
- High respiratory rate
- High BP
- No skeletal muscle movement

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96
Q

Sleep stages:

Sedatives that reduce REM

A

Alcohol
Barbiturates
Benzodiazepines

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97
Q

Sleep Stages:

Beta waves have the ___________ & __________

A

Highest frequency & lowest amplitude

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98
Q

Sleep:

Describe REM rebound

A

When someone loses REM during sleep their body makes up the lost REM the next night (10-40 mins of REM every 90 mins)

  • High brain & cardiovascular activity
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99
Q

Sleep stage:

Describe the change in an elderly persons sleep stages

A

Decreased REM
Decreased stage 3-4
Increased Sleep latency
Earlier waking

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100
Q

Sleep stage:

Describe the change in an depressed persons sleep stages

A

Increased REM sleep time
Decreased REM latency
Decreased stage 3-4
Repeated waking
Earlier waking

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101
Q

Sleep stage:

Describe the change in an Narcoleptic persons sleep stages

A

Decreased REM Latency

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102
Q

Sleep latency in a young adult

A

10 minutes

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103
Q

Sleep latency in a depressed young adult

A

over 10 minutes

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104
Q

Sleep latency in an elderly person

A

over 10 minutes

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105
Q

REM latency in a young person

A

90 minutes

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106
Q

REM latency in a depressed person

A

45 minutes

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107
Q

REM latency in a elderly person

A

90 minutes

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108
Q

% of REM time in a young person

A

25%

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109
Q

% of REM time in a depressed person

A

over 25%

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110
Q

% of REM time in an elderly person

A

under 25%

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111
Q

% of Delta aka slow-wave sleep in a young person

A

25%

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112
Q

% of Delta aka slow-wave sleep a depressed person

A

under 25%

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113
Q

% of Delta aka slow-wave sleep in elderly persons

A

under 25%

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114
Q

Sleep efficacy in a young person

A

100%

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115
Q

Sleep efficacy in a depressed person

A

less than 100%

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116
Q

Sleep efficacy in an elderly person

A

less than 100%

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117
Q

High Acetylcholine means what for sleep?

A

High REM
High sleep efficacy

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118
Q

High Dopamine means what for sleep?

A

High sleep efficacy

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119
Q

High Norepinephrine means what for sleep?

A

Low REM
Low Sleep efficacy

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120
Q

High Serotonin means what for sleep?

A

High sleep efficacy
High Delta aka slow-wave sleep

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121
Q

Describe parasomnias

A

abnormal physiology or behaviours associated with sleep i.e
- sleep walking
- bruxism
- sleep terror
- REM sleep behaviour
- Nightmare disorders

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122
Q

Sleep:

Describe Insomnia

A

When people find it difficult to fall asleep or stay asleep for 1 or more months. It leads to daytime sleepiness & disrupts social life or work

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123
Q

Sleep:

Describe the psychological causes of insomnia

A

Major depressive disorder:
- long sleep latency
- Repeated/earlier waking
- Longer overall REM
- Shorter REM latency
- Earlier REM
- Low delta sleep

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124
Q

Sleep:

Describe the physical causes of insomnia

A
  • CNS stimuli (caffeine)
  • Withdrawal of sedative agents (alcohol & benzodiazepines)
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125
Q

Sleep:

Describe how to manage Insomnia

A
  • Avoid caffeine
  • Develop sleep rituals & a normal sleep schedule
  • Daily exercise (not before bed)
  • Antidepressants or antipsychotics if necessary
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126
Q

Sleep:

Describe a Sleep-terror disorder

A

Repeated frightful fits (screaming in fear) during sleep, the person won’t remember any dream or the fit

It happens during N3-4 slow-wave sleep Delta waves

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127
Q

Sleep:

Onset of a sleep terror disorder in adolescence may indicate what condition?

A

Temporal lobe epilepsy

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128
Q

Sleep:

Repeated frightful fits (screaming in fear) during sleep, the person won’t remember any dream or the fit

It happens during N3-4 slow-wave sleep Delta waves

What is the condition?

A

Sleep-terror disorder

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129
Q

Sleep:

Describe what a Nightmare disorder is?

Brent & Barbie

A

Repeated nightmares that wake someone up & that they can remember

It happens during REM

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130
Q

Repeated nightmares that wake someone up & that they can remember

It happens during REM

What is the condition?

A

Nightmare disorder

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131
Q

Sleep:

Describe sleepwalking

A

When a person repeatedly walks around during sleep.

It happens during N3-4 (slow-wave sleep) Delta waves

Onset is 4-8yrs old

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132
Q

When a person repeatedly walks around during sleep.

It happens during N3-4 (slow-wave sleep) Delta waves

Onset is 4-8yrs old

What is the condition?

A

Sleepwalking

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133
Q

Sleep:

Describe circadian rhythm disorder

A

Someone who can’t sleep at normal times & has delayed sleep latency (trouble falling asleep)

Happens during:
- Jet lag (2-7 days)
- Shift workers

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134
Q

Sleep:

Describe Nocturnal myoclonus

A

Repeated & abrupt muscular contractions in the legs that wake someone up

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135
Q

Someone who can’t sleep at normal times & has delayed sleep latency (trouble falling asleep)

Happens during:
- Jet lag (2-7 days)
- Shift workers

A

Circadian rhythm disorder

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136
Q

Repeated & abrupt muscular contractions in the legs that wake someone up

A

Nocturnal Myoclonus disorder

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137
Q

Sleep:

what drugs would you use to treat someone with Nocturnal myoclonus disorder?

A

A few choices

  • Benzodiazepine
  • Quinine
    -Antiparkinsonians (aka dopaminergics like levodopa or pinirole)
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138
Q

Sleep:

Describe Restless leg syndrome

A

An uncomfortable feeling in the leg that makes someone feel like they need to move it to get relief (repeated jerky leg movements). This makes it harder to fall asleep (more sleep latency) & they wake up more

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139
Q

An uncomfortable feeling in the leg that makes someone feel like they need to move it to get relief (repeated jerky leg movements). This makes it harder to fall asleep (more sleep latency) & they wake up more

What’s the condition?

A

Restless leg syndrome

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140
Q

Sleep:

What would you give to a person with restless leg syndrome to relieve their symptoms?

A
  • Antiparkinsonians
  • Iron supplements
  • Magnesium supplements
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141
Q

Sleep:

Restless leg syndrome is more common in what groups of people?

A

Elderly
People with Parkinson’s
Pregnant women
People with kidney disease

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142
Q

Sleep:

Describe Klein-Levin & menstrual associated syndromes (both are basically the same)

A

Someone with recurrent episodes of daily sleepiness that persists for weeks-to-months long.

NAPS DON’T HELP
&
Person likely overeats (hyperphagia)

Klein-Levin is more common in adolescent men
&
MAS = women

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143
Q

Someone with recurrent episodes of daily sleepiness that persists for weeks-to-months long.

NAPS DON’T HELP
&
Person likely overeats (hyperphagia)

What are the 2 associated conditions?

A

Describe Klein-Levin & menstrual associated syndromes (both are basically the same)

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144
Q

Sleep:

Describe sleep drunkenness

A

A rare condition were its hard for someone to wake up after getting adequate sleep.

Note it might be genetic

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145
Q

A rare condition were its hard for someone to wake up after getting adequate sleep.

Note it might be genetic

What’s the condition?

A

Sleep drunkeness

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146
Q

Sleep:

What is Bruxism & what stage of sleep is it seen in?

A

Aka teeth grinding (ouch!) that happens in N2 (relaxed stage of sleep)

Sleep spindles & K complexes

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147
Q

Sleep:

Describe REM-sleep behavior disorder

A

When someone experiences REM sleep without skeletal muscle paralysis (aka they’re likely to hurt themselves & others) its mostly associated with parkinson’s & Lewy body disease

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148
Q

When someone experiences REM sleep without skeletal muscle paralysis (aka they’re likely to hurt themselves & others) its mostly associated with parkinson’s & Lewy body disease

A

REM-Sleep Behavior disorder

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149
Q

Sleep:

How would you treat someone with REM-Sleep Behavior disorder?

A
  • Antiparkinsonians
  • REM suppressors (Benzodiazepines)
  • Anticonvulsants (Carbamazepine)
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150
Q

Sleep:

Describe sleep apnea

A

When someone stops breathing for brief periods throughout sleep. During these episodes low blood O2 or high CO2 wakes the person up to breath

It leads to daytime sleepiness & respiratory acidosis

Can be central or obstructive

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151
Q

Sleep:

Describe Central sleep apnea

A

Usually in the elderly, when there’s no brain signals to the respiratory muscles so there is little/no respiratory effort to get air into the lungs

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152
Q

Sleep:

Describe obstructive sleep apnea

A

Usually in over-weight people, people ages 40-60, or men

Typically their tongue blocks their airway

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153
Q

Sleep:

Describe Pickwickian syndrome

A

A form of obstructive sleep apnea that leads to daytime sleepiness (not a weight issue!)

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154
Q

Sleep:

What are the treatment options for addressing sleep apnea?

A
  • Weight loss (if they’re overweight)
  • CPAP (Continuous Positive Air Pressure)
  • Breathing stimulants (Medroxyprogesterone-acetate, Protriptyline (Vivactil), Fluoxetine (Prozac))
  • Surgery (Uvulopalatoplasty to increase airway size)
  • Tracheotomy LAST RESORT
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155
Q

Testing:

The Rorschach test evaluates what in patients?

A

A projective ink blot interpretation test to evaluate thought disorders & defense mechanisms

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156
Q

Testing:

Describe what the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2) evaluates

A

An objective T/F questionnaire that assesses:
-Depression
- Schizophrenia
- Hypochondriasis
- Paranoia

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157
Q

Testing:

Describe what the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) evaluates

A

A projective test that makes the patient make up stories to evaluate unconscious emotions & conflicts (Motivational state)

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158
Q

Testing:

Describe what the Scentence Completion Test (SCT) evaluates

A

A projective test identifies any problems with verbal association, patient will be asked to finish a started sentence

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159
Q

A projective test identifies any problems with verbal association, patient will be asked to finish a started sentence

What’s the test?

A

Personality Sentence Completion Test (SCT)

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160
Q

A projective test that makes the patient make up stories to evaluate unconscious emotions & conflicts (Motivational state)

What’s the test?

A

Personality, Thematic apperception Test

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161
Q

An objective T/F questionnaire that assesses:
-Depression
- Schizophrenia
- Hypochondriasis
- Paranoia

What’s the test

A

Personality; Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2)

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162
Q

A projective ink blot interpretation test to evaluate thought disorders & defense mechanisms

A

Personality; Rorschach test

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163
Q

Patient can’t reason abstractly, can’t be flexible in problem solving or adapt to changed situations.

What might this indicate?

A

Cerebral disease

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164
Q

Impaired abstract reasoning might indicate damage to what

A

Frontal lobe

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165
Q

Testing:

Describe what the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) evaluates

A

It assesses abstract reasoning and flexible thinking in problem solving

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166
Q

Abnormal responses on the WCST indicates which two conditions?

A

Frontal lobe damage
or
Schizophrenia

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167
Q

Testing:

Describe what the Neuropsychological Assessment of adults evaluates

A

It assesses the relationship between behaviour and the brain

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168
Q

Neuropsychological Assessment of adults:

Defects in visual and non-verbal tasks indicate what

A

Lesions on the right hemisphere

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169
Q

Neuropsychological Assessment of adults:

Severe deficits in audio-verbal tasks might indicate what

A

Left hemisphere disease

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170
Q

Testing:
Describe what achievement tests evaluate

A

Specific subject areas (math, spelling ect)

USMLE, SAT etc…

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171
Q

Describe what Wechster IQ test evaluates

A

Verbal & Performance

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172
Q

Describing what Sternberg’s model of Triarchic theory of IQ theorizes that IQ is made up of

A

Analytical, Creative, & Practical skills

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173
Q

Spearmans theory believes there are 2 factors of intelligence

A

General abilities
&
Group of special abilities

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174
Q

What is the equation for IQ?

A

Mental Age / Chronological age * 100

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175
Q

Objective tests evaluate ______ while projective tests evaluate _______

A

Individual characteristics (Mutiple choice)

Personality (interpretable Qs)

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176
Q

IQ scale:

50-69

A

Mild IQ deficit

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177
Q

IQ scale:

35-49

A

Moderate IQ deficit

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178
Q

IQ scale:
20-34

A

Severe IQ deficit

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179
Q

IQ scale:

below 20

A

Profound IQ deficit

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180
Q

IQ scale:

90-110

A

Normal/average IQ

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181
Q

IQ scale:

over 130

A

Savants

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182
Q

Describe the features of Prosopagnosia

A

Impaired complex visual discrimination (aka they can’t recognize faces)

Due to a right-sided hemisphere lesions

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183
Q

Which 2 memory types don’t regress with aging?

A

Semantic & Implicit

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184
Q

Describe the features of episodic memory

A

Specific memory (telephone messages)

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185
Q

Specific memory (telephone messages)

A

Episodic memory

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186
Q

Describe the features of Semantic memory

A

Knowledge & facts

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187
Q

Knowledge & facts are stored as what kind of memory type

A

Semantic

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188
Q

Describe the features of implicit memory

A

Automatic skills (driving a car)

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189
Q

Describe the features of the Wechsler Memory scale

A

Memory test for adults which uses a memory quotient as a measure

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190
Q

Korsakoff and other amnestic conditions tend to score ____ on Wechsler memory scale but have preserved ____

A

Lower memory quotient but preserved IQ

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191
Q

Describe the features of the Hemispheric Dominance localization test

A

It determines what side potential brain lesions are on

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192
Q

Left sided brain lesions typical present with

A
  • Language problems (Gerstmann syndrome) &
  • Limb praxis
  • Aphasia
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193
Q

Right sided brain lesions tend to present with

A

visuospatial problems & Hemispatial attention issues

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194
Q

Describe some of the functions of the dominant hemisphere

A

Language function
Logical thinking
Reading/writing

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195
Q

Describe some of the functions of the non-dominant hemisphere

A

affective part of speech (mood & prosody)

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196
Q

Dominant sided lesions can cause which 2 conditions?

A

Dyslexia & dysgraphia

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197
Q

Testing:

Mini Mental state examination (MMSE) score of 0-9

A

late alzheimers

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198
Q

Testing:

Mini Mental state examination (MMSE) score of 10-19

A

moderate alzheimers

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199
Q

Testing:

Mini Mental state examination (MMSE) score of 20-23

A

Early Alzheimer’s or mild cognitive dysfunction

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200
Q

Testing:

Mini Mental state examination (MMSE) score of 24-30

A

Normal Cognitive functioning

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201
Q

Testing:

Mini Mental state examination (MMSE) score of below 20

A

definite cognitive impairment

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202
Q

Testing:

Mini Mental state examination (MMSE) score of below 25

A

Possible cognitive impairment

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203
Q

Personality types:

  1. Suspicious of others without unjust cause
  2. Have ideas of reference (think others talk about them)
  3. Use projection as defence
A

Type A Paranoid

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204
Q

Type A Paranoid

A
  1. Suspicious of others without unjust cause
  2. Have ideas of reference (think others talk about them)
  3. Use projection as defense

More common in men

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205
Q

Personality types:

  • Solitary loner
  • Little/no sex interest
  • Emotionally cold, detached, quiet, & seclusive behaviors
  • Indifferent to others criticism/praise

More common in men

A

Type A Schizoid

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206
Q

Type A Schizoid

A

Personality types:

  • Solitary loner
  • Little/no sex interest
  • Emotionally cold, detached, quiet, & seclusive behaviors
  • Indifferent to others criticism/praise

More common in men

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207
Q

Personality types:

  • Weird/eccentric behavior, thoughts, or speech
  • Believes in superstitions & that they have magical powers
  • Have ideas of reference

More common in men

A

Type A Schizotypal

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208
Q

Type A Schizotypal

A

Personality types:

  • Weird/eccentric behavior, thoughts, or speech
  • Believes in superstitions & that they have magical powers
  • Have ideas of reference

More common in men

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209
Q

Personality types:

  • Needs to be the center of attention
  • Has seductive/promiscuous behavior
  • Drama queen
  • They’re unaware of their inner/actual feelings & will throw tantrums, accusations & tears when they’re not the center of attention

More common in women

A

Type B Historinic

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210
Q

Type B Historinic

A

Personality types:

  • Needs to be the center of attention
  • Has seductive/promiscuous behavior
  • Drama queen
  • They’re unaware of their inner/actual feelings & will throw tantrums, accusations & tears when they’re not the center of attention

More common in women

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211
Q

Personality type:

  • A grandiose sense of self importance
  • Entitled & ambitious
  • Can’t show empathy but can feign sympathy for self-gain
  • Doesn’t take criticism well
A

Type B Narcissistic

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212
Q

Type B Narcissitic

A

Personality type:

  • A grandiose sense of self importance
  • Entitled & ambitious
  • Can’t show empathy but can feign sympathy for self-gain
  • Doesn’t take criticism well
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213
Q

Personality type:

  • Timid
  • Avoid people because they have a huge fear of criticism, disapproval, & rejection
  • They often perceive themselves as socially inept or unappealing
  • They desire companionship but are limited by their fear
A

Type C Avoidant personality disorder

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214
Q

Type C Avoidant personality disorder

A

Personality type:

  • Timid
  • Avoid people because they have a huge fear of criticism, disapproval, & rejection
  • They often perceive themselves as socially inept or unappealing
  • They desire companionship but are limited by their fear
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215
Q

Personality type:

  • Difficult making decisions without the input from others
A

Type C Dependent personality disorder

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216
Q

Personality types:

  • Perfectionists (to the point it can interfere without completing a task)
  • Excessive devotion to work & productivity
  • Limited interpersonal skills
  • Tend to be formal & serious
A

Type C Obsessive-Compulsive disorder

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217
Q

Type C Obsessive-Compulsive disorder

A

Personality types:

  • Perfectionists (to the point it can interfere without completing a task)
  • Excessive devotion to work & productivity
  • Limited interpersonal skills
  • Tend to be formal & serious
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218
Q

Personality type:

  • Tend to procrastinate
  • Will find faults in the people they depend on
  • Never get joy from life
  • Lack self confidence
  • Are often pessimistic about the future
A

Passive-aggressive personality disorder

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219
Q

Passive-aggressive personality disorder

A

Personality type:

  • Tend to procrastinate
  • Will find faults in the people they depend on
  • Never get joy from life
  • Lack self confidence
  • Are often pessimistic about the future
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220
Q

Personality types:

  • Very pessimistic
  • Experiences anhedonia (no pleasure)
  • Often duty bound
  • Doubt themselves
  • Are chronically unhappy
A

Depressive personality disorder (Life long)

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221
Q

Depressive personality disorder (Life long)

A

Personality types:

  • Very pessimistic
  • Experiences anhedonia (no pleasure)
  • Often duty bound
  • Doubt themselves
  • Are chronically unhappy
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222
Q

Personality types:

  • Get pleasure/want to cause others pain (phys/psych/sexual abuse)
A

Sadomasochism: Sadism

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223
Q

Sadomasochism: Sadism

A

Personality types:

  • Get pleasure/want to cause others pain or humiliation (phys/psych/sexual abuse)
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224
Q

Personality types:

  • Get pleasure/desire from being hurt or humiliated
A

Sadomasochism: Masochism

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225
Q

Sadomasochism: Masochism

A

Personality types:

  • Get pleasure/desire from being hurt or humiliated
226
Q

Personality types:

  • Unstable mood, self image, & relationships
  • Tend to self mutilate
  • Have thoughts of suicide over minor things
  • Use splitting as a defense mechanism to define people as either all good or all bad

More common in women (with a family history of mood disorders)

A

Type B Borderline Personality disorder

227
Q

Type B Borderline Personality Disorder

A

Personality types:

  • Unstable mood, self image, & relationships
  • Tend to self mutilate
  • Have thoughts of suicide over minor things
  • Use splitting as a defense mechanism to define people as either all good or all bad

More common in women (with a family history of mood disorders)

228
Q

Personality type:

  • They don’t recognize the rights of others or laws
  • They DON’T feel remorse
  • Tend to be deceitful, extremely manipulative, promiscuous, and abusive
  • Be careful they can seem very charming or normal
  • Their defense mechanism is a superego lacunae
A

Type B Antisocial Personality disorder

229
Q

Type B Antisocial Personality disorder

A

Personality type:

  • They don’t recognize the rights of others or laws
  • They DON’T feel remorse
  • Tend to be deceitful, extremely manipulative, promiscuous, and abusive
  • Be careful they can seem very charming or normal
  • Their defense mechanism is a superego lacunae
230
Q

Describe the difference between anxiety & fear

A

Fear= an emotional response to a known stimuli

Anxiety= An uncontrolled response to minor or things that don’t exist

231
Q

What are the neurotransmitter changes in anxiety?

A

Low GABA & Serotonin
High Norepinephrine

232
Q

Describe the features of a panic disorder

A

Category 1:

Recurrent & unprovoked panic attacks that can’t be predicted

P will have anxiety about future attacks and they tend to happen episodically (i.e x2 a week)

  • Sudden onset of 4 of these :(sweating, trembling, SOB, chest pain, nausea, dizziness, derealization, depersonalization)
233
Q

Recurrent & unprovoked panic attacks that can’t be predicted

P will have anxiety about future attacks and they tend to happen episodically (i.e x2 a week)

  • Sudden onset of 4 of these :(sweating, trembling, SOB, chest pain, nausea, dizziness, derealization, depersonalization
A

Panic disorder category 1

234
Q

Describe derealization

A

When you experience the unreality of the world

235
Q

Describe Depersonalization

A

When you feel detached from you body/mind/or situation

236
Q

Describe what a phobia is

A

A category 1 condition:
An irrational & intense fear towards something that often causes someone to avoid the feared thing

237
Q

Intense fear of public spaces

can be general or specific

A

Social phobia

238
Q

Treating social phobia

A

Beta blockers & systematic desensitization

239
Q

Fear of open spaces

A

Agoraphobia

240
Q

Fear of teens

A

Ephenophobia

241
Q

Fear of artificial chemicals

A

Chemophobia

242
Q

Fear of strangers or the unknown

A

Xenophobia

243
Q

Fear of spiders

A

Arachnophobia

244
Q

Fear of snakes

A

Ophidiophobia

245
Q

Fear of tight spaces

A

Claustrophobia

246
Q

Fear of medical procedures involving needles or injections

A

Aichmophobia

247
Q

Fear of heights

A

Acrophobia

248
Q

Fear of the dead or death

A

Necrophobia

249
Q

Fear of men

A

Androphobia

250
Q

Fear of sex

A

Geno/coito-phobia

251
Q

Fear of speaking in public

A

Glossophobia

252
Q
  • Excessive worry or anxiety plus some of the following for a minimum of 6 months
    (Restlessness, Easy fatigue, Irritability, Muscle tension, Difficulty falling/staying asleep, & difficulty concentrating (only need 1 for kids)
A

Generalized anxiety disorder Category 1

253
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder Category 1

A
  • Excessive worry or anxiety plus some of the following for a minimum of 6 months
    (Restlessness, Easy fatigue, Irritability, Muscle tension, Difficulty falling/staying asleep, & difficulty concentrating (only need 1 for kids)
254
Q

Recurrent/intrusive obsessions, thoughts, or feelings that cause anxiety which can be relieved with compulsions

i.e excessive handwashing

A

Obsessive compulsive disorder Category 2

255
Q

OCD Category 2

A

Recurrent/intrusive obsessions, thoughts, or feelings that cause anxiety which can be relieved with compulsions

i.e excessive handwashing

256
Q

A traumatic event (self/close loved one experienced) that causes symptoms AFTER the event
- Nightmares/flashbacks
- Disassociation
- Social withdrawal’
- Anxiety
- Intrusive thoughts
- Survivor guilt

Symptoms last more than 1 month & are more severe

A

PTSD Category 3

257
Q

PTSD Category 3

A

A traumatic event (self/close loved one experienced) that causes symptoms AFTER the event
- Nightmares/flashbacks
- Disassociation
- Social withdrawal’
- Anxiety
- Intrusive thoughts
- Survivor guilt

Symptoms last more than 1 month & are more severe

258
Q

A traumatic event (self/close loved one experienced) that causes symptoms AFTER the event
- Nightmares/flashbacks
- Disassociation
- Social withdrawal’
- Anxiety
- Intrusive thoughts
- Survivor guilt

Symptoms last 2 days to a month & are less severe

A

Acute Stress Disorder Category 3

259
Q

Acute Stress Disorder Category 3

A

A traumatic event (self/close loved one experienced) that causes symptoms AFTER the event
- Nightmares/flashbacks
- Disassociation
- Social withdrawal’
- Anxiety
- Intrusive thoughts
- Survivor guilt

Symptoms last 2 days to a month & are less severe

260
Q

First line of treatment for anxiety (medication-wise)

A

Antidepressants:
- SSRI’s (Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, & Sertraline)
- SNRs (Venflaxine)

261
Q

Antidepressants:
- SSRI’s (Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, & Sertraline)
- SNRs (Venflaxine)

A

First line of treatment for anxiety (medication-wise)

262
Q
  1. SSRIs (Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, & Sertraline)
  2. Benzodiazepines (Diazepam or Lorazepam)
  3. Tricyclics
  4. MAO-inhibitors
A

Drug treatment for Panic attacks

263
Q

Drug treatment for Generalized anxiety

A
  1. Benzodiazepines (Diazepam or Lorazepam)
  2. Buspirone (Buspar-5-HT agonist)
  3. Tricyclics
264
Q

Drug treatment for Panic attacks

A
  1. SSRIs (Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, & Sertraline)
  2. Benzodiazepines (Diazepam or Lorazepam)
  3. Tricyclics
  4. MAO-inhibitors
265
Q

Drug treatment for Phobias

A
  1. Benzodiazepines (Diazepam or Lorazepam)
  2. Beta-blockers
  3. SSRIs (Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, & Sertraline)
266
Q
  1. Antidepressants
    - SSRIS (Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, & Sertraline)
    - SNRs (Venflaxine)

with Clonide

A

Drug treatment for PTSD

267
Q

Drug treatment for OCD

A
  1. SSRI (Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, & Sertraline)
  2. Tricyclic (Clomipramine)
  3. MAO-inhibs (last resort)
268
Q

Drug treatment for PTSD

A
  1. Antidepressants
    - SSRIS (Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, & Sertraline)
    - SNRs (Venflaxine)

with Clonide

269
Q

Psychotherapy for Generalized anxiety

A
  1. Cognitive interpersonal therapy
  2. Stress management
  3. Biofeedback
270
Q

Psychotherapy for Phobias

A
  1. CBT
  2. Systematic desensitization
271
Q

Psychotherapy for OCD

A
  1. CBT (exposure & response therapy)
272
Q

Describe the features of Somatization disorder (Briquets/somatoform syndrome)

A

Psychological problems manifest as physical symptoms before 30yrs old and last minimum 6 months

Need min 1 somatic symptom
- pain
- excessive worry
- fear
- stress/behavior change
&
pain in 4 different sites
2 Gi
1 sexual
1 Pedogeological (fainting/blindness)

273
Q

Psychological problems manifest as physical symptoms before 30yrs old and last minimum 6 months

Need min 1 somatic symptom
- pain
- excessive worry
- fear
- stress/behavior change
&
pain in 4 different sites
2 Gi
1 sexual
1 Pedogeological (fainting/blindness)

A

Describe the features of Somatization disorder (Briquets/somatoform syndrome)

274
Q

Describe the features of Hypochondriasis (illness anxiety disorder)

A

They have anxiety about having a disease (despite medical eval & assurance)

They usually have minor or no somatic symptoms & exaggerated concern about their health

Common in middle age- old age

275
Q

They have anxiety about having a disease (despite medical eval & assurance)

They usually have minor or no somatic symptoms & exaggerated concern about their health

Common in middle age- old age

A

Describe the features of Hypochondriasis (illness anxiety disorder)

276
Q

Describe the features of conversion disorder

A

One or more symptoms or deficits affecting voluntary motor or sensory functions (i.e blindness/paralysis)

That they don’t produce on purpose!

277
Q

One or more symptoms or deficits affecting voluntary motor or sensory functions (i.e blindness/paralysis)

That they don’t produce on purpose!

A

Describe the features of conversion disorder

278
Q

Describe the features of body dysmorphic disorder

A

They’re preoccupied with an imaged defect on the body (causes distress or impairs functioning)
- compulsive checking/touching
- Need constant reassurance from loved ones
- Excessive grooming
- Obsession with plastic surgery

279
Q

They’re preoccupied with an imaged defect on the body (causes distress or impairs functioning)
- compulsive checking/touching
- Need constant reassurance from loved ones
- Excessive grooming
- Obsession with plastic surgery

A

Describe the features of body dysmorphic disorder

280
Q

Describe the features of pain disorder

A

Chronic or constant pain in one or more areas that can’t be completely explained by physical disease

it can last days or years and may be caused by psychological stress

The pain is severe and impairs functioning

281
Q

Chronic or constant pain in one or more areas that can’t be completely explained by physical disease

it can last days or years and may be caused by psychological stress

The pain is severe and impairs functioning

A

Describe the features of pain disorder

282
Q

Treating somatoform disorders

A
  • Case management
  • Psychotherapy (CBT/Group)
  • Medications (Antidepressants **SSRIs & short-term anxiety medication use)
283
Q

Describe the features of Factious disorder (munchausen)

A

Someone who fakes symptoms on purpose without secondary gain

They’ve usually worked in the medical field and know how to mimic diseases

Common signs:
- Unnecessary procedures
- Grid abdomen (many surgical scars)
- Abdominal pain, fever, hematuria, tachycardia, skin lesions, & seizures

284
Q

Someone who fakes symptoms on purpose without secondary gain

They’ve usually worked in the medical field and know how to mimic diseases

Common signs:
- Unnecessary procedures
- Grid abdomen (many surgical scars)
- Abdominal pain, fever, hematuria, tachycardia, skin lesions, & seizures

A

Describe the features of Factious disorder (munchausen)

285
Q

Describe the features of Factitious/Munchausen’s by proxy

A

A serious form of abuse were a carer or parent will make their child/ward look ill (injury, false med history, poisoning etc)

286
Q

A serious form of abuse were a carer or parent will make their child/ward look ill (injury, false med history, poisoning etc)

A

Describe the features of Factitious/Munchausen’s by proxy

287
Q

Describe the features of malingering

A

Knowingly faking symptoms for secondary gain (&, drugs etc)

there’s a marked discrepancy between the claimed stress of disability and objective findings

288
Q

Knowingly faking symptoms for secondary gain (&, drugs etc)

there’s a marked discrepancy between the claimed stress of disability and objective findings

A

Describe the features of malingering

289
Q
  • Persistent pain min 6 months
  • occurs during sexual intercourse it also be caused by pelvic inflammatory disease, (chlamydia infection or gonorrhea)
  • Painful spasms occur in the outermost part of the vagina
A

Genitopelvic pain–penetration disorder

290
Q

Genitopelvic pain–penetration disorder

A
  • Persistent pain min 6 months
  • occurs during sexual intercourse it also be caused by pelvic inflammatory disease, (chlamydia infection or gonorrhea)
  • Painful spasms occur in the outermost part of the vagina
291
Q

A 65-y-old former banker
cannot remember to turn
off the gas jets on the
stove nor can he name
the object in his hand
(a comb)

A

Alzheimer’s
disease

292
Q

A 65-y-old dentist cannot
remember to pay her
bills. She also appears
to be physically “slowed
down” (psychomotor
retardation) and very sad

A

Pseudodementia
(depression
that mimics
dementia)

293
Q

A 65-y-old woman forgets
new phone numbers and
names but functions well
living on her own

A

Normal aging

294
Q

Dramatic, emotional, inconsistent
Depressive, bipolar, substance use, and somatic symptom disorders
Theatrical, extroverted, emotional, sexually provocative, “life of the party”
Shallow, vain
In men, “Don Juan” dress and behavior
Cannot maintain intimate relationships

A

Cluster B
Histrionic

295
Q

Peculiar appearance
Magical thinking (i.e., believing that one’s thoughts can affect the course of events)
Odd thought patterns and behavior without frank psychosis

A

Schizotypal Cluster A

296
Q

Long-standing pattern of voluntary social withdrawal
Detached, restricted emotions, lacks empathy, has no thought disorder

A

Schizoid Cluster A

297
Q

Avoids social relationships and is “peculiar” but not psychotic
Distrustful, suspicious, litigious
Attributes responsibility for own problems to others
Interprets motives of others as malevolent
Collects guns

A

CLUSTER A
Paranoid

298
Q

Pompous, with a sense of special entitlement
Lacks empathy for others

A

Narcissistic Cluster B

299
Q

Refuses to conform to social norms and shows no concern for others
Associated with conduct disorder in childhood and criminal behavior in adulthood
(“psychopaths” or “sociopaths”

A

Antisocial Cluster B

300
Q

Erratic, impulsive, unstable behavior, and mood
Feeling bored, alone, and “empty”
Suicide attempts for relatively trivial reasons
Self-mutilation (cutting or burning oneself)
Often comorbid with depressive, bipolar, and eating disorders
Mini-psychotic episodes (i.e., brief periods of loss of contact with reality)

A

Borderline Cluster B

301
Q

Fearful, anxious

Anxiety disorders
Overly sensitive to criticism or rejection
Feelings of inferiority, socially withdrawn

A

Cluster C
Avoidant

302
Q

Perfectionistic, orderly, inflexible
Stubborn and indecisive
Ultimately inefficient

A

Obsessive–compulsive Cluster C

303
Q

Allows other people to make decisions and assume responsibility for them
Poor self-confidence
May tolerate abuse by domestic partner because of fear of being deserted and alone

A

Dependent Cluster C

304
Q

Procrastinates and is inefficient
Outwardly agreeable and compliant but inwardly angry and defiant

A

Unspecified
Passive–aggressive

305
Q

Failure to remember important information about oneself after a stressful life
event
Amnesia usually resolves in minutes or days but may last years
Fugue involves amnesia combined with sudden wandering from home after a
stressful life event
Fugue may also involve adoption of a different identity

A

Dissociative amnesia with or without
dissociative fugue

306
Q

At least two distinct personalities (“alters”) in an individual
More common in women (particularly those sexually abused in childhood)
In a forensic (e.g., jail) setting, malingering and alcohol use must be considered
and excluded

A

Dissociative identity disorder (formerly
multiple personality disorder)

307
Q

Recurrent, persistent feelings of detachment from one’s own body, the social
situation (depersonalization), or the environment (derealization) when
stressed
Understanding that these perceptions are only feelings, that is, normal reality
testing

A

Depersonalization/derealization
disorder

308
Q

Dissociative symptom (e.g., trance-like state, memory loss) (1) in persons
exposed to intense coercive persuasion (e.g., brainwashing) or (2) indigenous
to particular locations or cultures (e.g., “Amok” in Indonesia)

A

Identity disruption

309
Q

Test to evaluate
- Depression
- Anxiety
- Schizophrenia
- Paranoia

A

MMPI-2

310
Q

Test to evaluate self-care skills

A

Vineland social maturity scale

311
Q

Test to evaluate defense mechanisms

A

Rorschach test

312
Q

Self rating scale to measure depression

A

Beck Depression Inventory II (BDI-II)

313
Q

Test to evaluate IQ

A

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

314
Q

Episodic (about twice weekly) periods of intense anxiety (panic attacks)
Cardiac and respiratory symptoms and the conviction that one is about to die or lose one’s mind
Sudden onset of symptoms, increasing in intensity over a period of approximately 10 min, and lasting about 30 min (attacks
rarely follow a fixed pattern)
Attacks can be induced by administration of sodium lactate or CO2
(see Chapter 5)
Strong genetic component
More common in young women in their 20s

A

Panic Disorder

315
Q

Persistent anxiety symptoms including hyperarousal and worrying lasting 6 mos or more
Gastrointestinal symptoms are common
Symptoms are not related to a specific person or situation (i.e., free-floating anxiety)
Commonly starts during the 20s

A

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

316
Q

Recurring, intrusive feelings, thoughts, and images (obsessions) that cause anxiety
Anxiety is relieved in part by performing repetitive actions (compulsions)
A common obsession is avoidance of hand contamination and a compulsive need to wash the hands after touching things

A

Obsessive–Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

317
Q

In PTSD, symptoms last for more than________ and may have a delayed onset
In ASD, symptoms last only between ______

A

1 mo (sometimes years) & 2 d and 4 weeks

318
Q

One or more physical symptoms that disrupt daily life with excessive focus on the
symptoms
Being symptomatic for more than 6 mo

A

Somatic symptom disorder

319
Q

Exaggerated concern with health and illness lasting at least 6 mos in the absence of
somatic symptoms
Concern persists despite medical evaluation and reassurance
Care-seeking type goes to many different doctors seeking help (“doctor shopping”)

A

Illness anxiety disorder

320
Q

Sudden, dramatic loss of sensory or motor function (e.g., blindness, paralysis), often
associated with a stressful life event
Patients appear relatively unworried (“la belle indifférence”)

A

Conversion disorder
(functional neurological
symptom disorder)

321
Q

Intense acute or chronic pain not explained completely by physical disease and closely
associated with psychological stress
Onset usually in the 30s and 40s

A

Somatic symptom disorder
with predominant pain

322
Q

Conscious simulation of physical or psychiatric illness
Aim is to gain attention for being “sick”
Undergoes unnecessary medical and surgical procedures
Has a “grid abdomen” (multiple crossed scars from repeated non-necessary
surgeries)

A

Factitious disorder

323
Q

Conscious simulation of illness in another person, typically in a child by a
parent, to obtain attention from medical personnel
Is a form of child abuse (see Chapter 18) because the child undergoes
unnecessary medical and surgical procedures
Must be reported to state child welfare authorities

A

Factitious disorder imposed on another

324
Q

Conscious simulation or exaggeration of physical or psychiatric illness for
financial (e.g., insurance settlement) or other obvious gain (e.g., avoiding
incarceration)
Avoids treatment by medical personnel
Health complaints cease as soon as the desired gain is obtained

A

Malingering

325
Q

While the most effective
immediate treatment for panic attacks is _______ the most effective management (long term is ) ________

A

benzodiazepine

antidepressant (SSRI like paroxetine

326
Q

Phobias involve a hypersensitive ____________

A

locus ceruleus

327
Q

Best long term management for PTSD

A

Support group

328
Q

Best management for Generalized anxiety disorder

A

Antidepressants (venlafaxine & duloxetine) & SSRIs

329
Q

Effective drug management for OCD includes

A

Antidepressant
SSRI (fluvoxamine)

330
Q

Describe the Sternburg’s model

A

Aka the triarchic theory of IQ breaks IQ down into 3 parts:

1) Analytical IQ (ability to compare, evaluate & analyze information)
2) Creative IQ (capacity to make insights & come up with new ideas)
3) Practical IQ (ability to apply what you learned in everyday life)

331
Q

Aka the triarchic theory of IQ breaks IQ down into 3 parts:

1) Analytical IQ (ability to compare, evaluate & analyze information)
2) Creative IQ (capacity to make insights & come up with new ideas)
3) Practical IQ (ability to apply what you learned in everyday life)

A

Sternburg’s model

332
Q

Describe group testing

A

Given to a group of people simultaneously it’s
- efficient administration
- grading
- statistical analysis

333
Q

Mild IQ

A

50-69

334
Q

Moderate IQ

A

35-49

335
Q

Severe IQ

A

20-34

336
Q

Profound IQ

A

Under 20

337
Q

IQ 2 std. above 120

A

Savants

338
Q

Describe objective tests

A

Assess someone’s traits without being influenced by personal bias & belief

339
Q

Assess someone’s traits without being influenced by personal bias & belief

A

objective tests

339
Q

Describe Projective tests

A

Personality tests that lets participants interpret questions & potentially reveal their hidden emotions, internal conflicts, & individual thought processes

340
Q

Personality tests that lets participants interpret questions & potentially reveal their hidden emotions, internal conflicts, & individual thought processes

A

Projective tests

341
Q

Describe the feature of Rett’s syndrome at 6m to 2yrs old

A
  • Progressive encephalopathy
  • Slowed head growth
  • Purposeful hand movements are replaced by stereotyping (wringing hands)
  • Speech loss, repetitive hand movements like finger licking, grabbing clothing, tapping, or slapping
342
Q
  • Progressive encephalopathy
  • Slowed head growth & microencephaly
  • Purposeful hand movements are replaced by stereotyping (wringing hands)

-Language skills are lost, repetitive hand movements like finger licking, grabbing clothing, tapping, or slapping

A

Rett’s syndrome at 6m to 2yrs old

343
Q

Describe the feature of Rett’s syndrome during the first 5m post birth

A
  • Infants have normal motor skills, head size, and growth. Social interactions are reciprocated as expected.
344
Q
  • Infants have normal motor skills, head size, and growth. Social interactions are reciprocated as expected.
A

Rett’s syndrome during the first 5m post birth

345
Q

Describe the etiology of Rett’s syndrome

A

Mutation in the MECP2 gene, needed for maintaining synapses between neurons causing the condition

346
Q

Mutation in the MECP2 gene, needed for maintaining synapses between neurons causing the condition

A

etiology of Rett’s syndrome

347
Q

Describe the features of Rett’s syndrome

A
  • Rare non-inherited postnatal neurological disorder
  • Affects girls
  • Normal development followed by decline in social, verbal, and cognitive skills
  • Characterized by repetitive hand movements
  • Mental retardation is common
  • Fatal in males (X-linked dominant)
  • Some individuals may exhibit savant syndrome
348
Q
  • Rare non-inherited postnatal neurological disorder
  • Affects girls
  • Normal development followed by decline in social, verbal, and cognitive skills
  • Characterized by repetitive hand movements
  • Mental retardation is common
  • Fatal in males (X-linked dominant)
  • Some individuals may exhibit savant syndrome
A

features of Rett’s syndrome

349
Q

In Rett’s syndrome communicative and social skills seem to plateau at developmental levels between____ months and __year.

A

6m & 1 yr

350
Q

Describe the prognosis of Rett’s syndrome

A
  • Children with Rett’s disorder may live for over a decade after onset
  • After 10 years, many become wheelchair-bound with muscle wasting and rigidity
  • Language ability is severely impaired
  • Long-term communication and socialization abilities remain below 1 year level
  • Regression of cognitive and motor skills occurs.
351
Q
  • Children with Rett’s disorder may live for over a decade after onset
  • After 10 years, many become wheelchair-bound with muscle wasting and rigidity
  • Language ability is severely impaired
  • Long-term communication and socialization abilities remain below 1 year level
  • Regression of cognitive and motor skills occurs.
A

prognosis of Rett’s syndrome

352
Q

Describe the features of Aspergers

A

1) Difficulties in social interaction
2) Restricted and repetitive behavior
3) No delay in language or cognitive development
4) Mild form of autism

353
Q

Describe the etiology of Aspergers

A
  • Possible relationship to autistic disorder based on family studies
  • Similarity to autistic disorder suggests genetic, metabolic, infectious, and perinatal factors may contribute.
354
Q

Describe the features of Childhood Disintegrative Disorder

A
  • “Heller’s syndrome”: Skills deteriorate, resembling Autism.
  • Falls under Autism spectrum disorders.
  • Regression in development is a characteristic.
  • Onset after 3 years of normal development.
  • Affects both boys and girls.
355
Q

Impairment happens in at least two of the three following areas regarding childhood disintegrative disorder

A
  • Social interaction
  • Communication
  • Repetitive behavior and interest patterns
356
Q

Describe the features of Pervasive Development Disorder NOS

A
  • Impaired social interaction.
  • Either impaired communication or behavioral challenges.
  • Less severe cases do not meet criteria for other forms of Autism.
  • Symptoms present after the age of 3
357
Q
  • Impaired social interaction.
  • Either impaired communication or behavioral challenges.
  • Less severe cases do not meet criteria for other forms of Autism.
  • Symptoms present after the age of 3
A

features of Pervasive Development Disorder NOS

358
Q
  • “Heller’s syndrome”: Skills deteriorate, resembling Autism.
  • Falls under Autism spectrum disorders.
  • Regression in development is a characteristic.
  • Onset after 3 years of normal development.
  • Affects both boys and girls.
A

features of Childhood Disintegrative Disorder

359
Q
  • Possible relationship to autistic disorder based on family studies
  • Similarity to autistic disorder suggests genetic, metabolic, infectious, and perinatal factors may contribute.
A

Describe the etiology of Aspergers

360
Q

1) Difficulties in social interaction
2) Restricted and repetitive behavior
3) No delay in language or cognitive development
4) Mild form of autism

A

features of Aspergers

361
Q

Describe the features of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) (disruptive behavior disorder)

A
  • ADHD and Disruptive behavior disorders cause inappropriate behavior affecting social relationships.
  • More prevalent in boys.
  • Not associated with mental retardation
362
Q
  • cause inappropriate behavior affecting social relationships.
  • More prevalent in boys.
  • Not associated with mental retardation
A

features of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) (disruptive behavior disorder)

363
Q

Describe the etiology of ADHD

A
  • ADHD more prevalent in boys, ratios from 2:1 to 9:1.
  • First-degree biological relatives at high risk of ADHD and related disorders.
  • Related disorders may include disruptive behavior disorders, anxiety disorders, and depressive disorders.
  • Food additives, colorings, preservatives, and sugar suggested as causes of hyperactive behavior.
  • No scientific evidence supporting causal link between these factors and ADHD.
364
Q

Describe the features of ADHD:

Symptoms of inattention

A

Onset before age 7yrs

  • Inattentiveness, careless mistakes, and poor organization.
  • Trouble focusing and maintaining attention.
  • Lack of active listening when directly spoken to.
  • Avoidance of mentally challenging tasks.
  • Frequent loss of necessary items.
365
Q

Describe the features of ADHD:

Symptoms of Hyperactivity

A
  • Difficulty staying seated when expected.
  • Frequent running or climbing in inappropriate situations.
  • Trouble playing or participating in activities quietly.
  • Exhibiting restlessness and excessive movement.
  • Excessively talkative behavior
366
Q
  • Difficulty staying seated when expected.
  • Frequent running or climbing in inappropriate situations.
  • Trouble playing or participating in activities quietly.
  • Exhibiting restlessness and excessive movement.
  • Excessively talkative behavior
A

Describe the features of ADHD:

Symptoms of Hyperactivity

367
Q

Onset before age 7yrs

  • Inattentiveness, careless mistakes, and poor organization.
  • Trouble focusing and maintaining attention.
  • Lack of active listening when directly spoken to.
  • Avoidance of mentally challenging tasks.
  • Frequent loss of necessary items
A

Describe the features of ADHD:

Symptoms of inattention

368
Q

Describe the features of ADHD

Symptoms of impulsiveness

A
  • Frequently interrupts or blurts out answers prematurely.
  • Difficulty waiting for one’s turn.
  • Often interrupts or intrudes on others’ conversations or activities.
369
Q
  • Frequently interrupts or blurts out answers prematurely.
  • Difficulty waiting for one’s turn.
  • Often interrupts or intrudes on others’ conversations or activities.
A

Describe the features of ADHD

Symptoms of impulsiveness

370
Q

Describe the features of Conduct disorders

A
  • Chronic Disorder impacting multiple areas of life.
  • Violation of others’ rights and societal norms/rules.
  • Onset usually occurs between ages 6-10.
  • Potential for developing antisocial personality disorder and substance abuse in adulthood.
371
Q

Describe the symptoms of Conduct disorders

A

Aggression to people and animals(Fights,bullying)
Destruction of property
Deceitfulness or theft
Serious violations of rules

372
Q
  • Chronic Disorder impacting multiple areas of life.
  • Violation of others’ rights and societal norms/rules.
  • Onset usually occurs between ages 6-10.
  • Potential for developing antisocial personality disorder and substance abuse in adulthood.
A

Conduct disorders

373
Q

Aggression to people and animals(Fights,bullying)
Destruction of property
Deceitfulness or theft
Serious violations of rules

A

symptoms of Conduct disorders

374
Q

Describe the features of Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)

A
  • Ongoing pattern of disobedient, hostile, and defiant behavior.
  • More prevalent in boys than girls.
  • Typically begins before the age of 8
375
Q

Describe the Symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)

A

Diagnostic criteria include:
- Losing temper.
- Arguing with adults.
- Refusing to follow rules.
- Deliberately annoying people.
- Blaming others for own mistakes.
- Easily annoyed.
- Angry and resentful.
- Spiteful or vengeful.
- Frequently getting into trouble.

376
Q

Diagnostic criteria include:
- Losing temper.
- Arguing with adults.
- Refusing to follow rules.
- Deliberately annoying people.
- Blaming others for own mistakes.
- Easily annoyed.
- Angry and resentful.
- Spiteful or vengeful.
- Frequently getting into trouble.

A

Symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)

377
Q
  • Ongoing pattern of disobedient, hostile, and defiant behavior.
  • More prevalent in boys than girls.
  • Typically begins before the age of 8
A

features of Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)

378
Q

Treatment of ADHD includes

A

CNS Stimulants:

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
Dextroamphetamine sulfate (Dexedrine)

Reduce activity level &
Increase attention/concentration.

379
Q

Treatment of Conduct Disorder & oppositional defiant disorder

A

Family therapy & Behavioral therapy

380
Q

Describe the features of Tourette’s Disorder

A
  • Childhood-onset disorder with physical and vocal tics.
  • Tics are sudden, repetitive, nonrhythmic movements or sounds.
  • Motor tics involve specific muscle groups (e.g., eye blinking, shoulder shrugging).
  • Phonic tics are involuntary sounds produced through nose, mouth, or throat (e.g., throat clearing, coughing, sniffing, grunting).
381
Q
  • Childhood-onset disorder with physical and vocal tics.
  • Tics are sudden, repetitive, nonrhythmic movements or sounds.
  • Motor tics involve specific muscle groups (e.g., eye blinking, shoulder shrugging).
  • Phonic tics are involuntary sounds produced through nose, mouth, or throat (e.g., throat clearing, coughing, sniffing, grunting).
A

features of Tourette’s Disorder

382
Q

Describe the etiology of Tourette’s syndrome

A
  • Dysfunctional dopamine regulation in caudate nucleus.
  • Predominantly affects males.
  • Lifelong and chronic condition
383
Q
  • Dysfunctional dopamine regulation in caudate nucleus.
  • Predominantly affects males.
  • Lifelong and chronic condition
A

etiology of Tourette’s syndrome

384
Q

Describe the treatment of Tourette’s syndrome

A

Atypical neuroleptics (Risperidone)
Tricyclic antidepressants
Behavior therapy.

385
Q

Describe the features of Separation anxiety

A
  • Separation anxiety disorder causes excessive anxiety when apart from home or attachment figures.
  • Physical symptoms may be complained about to avoid school and leaving the mother.
  • Typically diagnosed after 3 years of age with a duration of 6 weeks.
  • Higher risk for anxiety disorders in adulthood.
386
Q
  • Separation anxiety disorder causes excessive anxiety when apart from home or attachment figures.
  • Physical symptoms may be complained about to avoid school and leaving the mother.
  • Typically diagnosed after 3 years of age with a duration of 6 weeks.
  • Higher risk for anxiety disorders in adulthood.
A

features of Separation anxiety

387
Q

Describe the features of Selective mutism

A

A social anxiety disorder

1) Persistent failure to speak in specific social settings (e.g., school) despite speaking elsewhere.
2) More prevalent among girls.
3) Interferes with education, work, and social communication.
4) Lasts for at least 1 month (not limited to the first month of school).
5) Not caused by lack of language knowledge or comfort in the situation

387
Q

A social anxiety disorder

1) Persistent failure to speak in specific social settings (e.g., school) despite speaking elsewhere.
2) More prevalent among girls.
3) Interferes with education, work, and social communication.
4) Lasts for at least 1 month (not limited to the first month of school).
5) Not caused by lack of language knowledge or comfort in the situation

A

features of Selective mutism

388
Q

Describe the features of PICA

A

Unusual pattern of eating inedible objects (bricks, dirst etc) for at least 1 month, typically in kids with mental retardation. It’s mostly self limiting

Complications
- Lead poisoning
- Dental issues
- Nutrition issues
- Infections

389
Q

Unusual pattern of eating inedible objects (bricks, dirst etc) for at least 1 month, typically in kids with mental retardation. It’s mostly self limiting

Complications
- Lead poisoning
- Dental issues
- Nutrition issues
- Infections

A

features of PICA

389
Q

PICA is associated with which conditions?

“DISMALM”

A

Autism
Intellectual disabilities
Schizophrenia
Low mineral/zinc/iron levels
Maternal deprivation
Developmental delay
Malnourishment

390
Q

Describe the features of Enuresis (bedwetting)

A
  • Repeated episodes (2 times a week for at least 3 consecutive months) of peeing the bed/clothes
  • Least 5 years old or at an equivalent developmental level
  • Not caused by any medical condition or substance use.
391
Q
  • Repeated episodes (2 times a week for at least 3 consecutive months) of peeing the bed/clothes
  • Least 5 years old or at an equivalent developmental level
  • Not caused by any medical condition or substance use.
A

features of Enuresis (bedwetting)

392
Q

Describe primary enuresis

A

kids that were never taught how to control urination

393
Q

kids that were never taught how to control urination

A

primary enuresis

394
Q

Describe secondary enuresis

A

kids that are trained to control their urination for at least 6m but they then revert to wetting after a stressful situation

395
Q

kids that are trained to control their urination for at least 6m but they then revert to wetting after a stressful situation

A

secondary enuresis

396
Q

What are the treatment options for enuresis?

A

Desmopressin (synthetic vasopressin) & Behavioral therapy (conditioning with alarm)

397
Q

Describe the effects of use of Alcohol

A

Mild elevation of mood
Decreased anxiety
Somnolence
Behavioural disinhibition
Sedation
Poor coordination
Respiratory depression

398
Q

Describe the definition criteria of alcohol abuse

A

Alcohol use causes distress/impairment within a one-year period, via:

  1. Failure to meet work, home, or school responsibilities
  2. Continued use of alcohol despite awareness of physical risks.
  3. Repeated legal issues related to alcohol.
  4. Continued alcohol use despite causing or worsening social or interpersonal problems.
399
Q

Alcohol use causes distress/impairment within a one-year period, via:

  1. Failure to meet work, home, or school responsibilities
  2. Continued use of alcohol despite awareness of physical risks.
  3. Repeated legal issues related to alcohol.
  4. Continued alcohol use despite causing or worsening social or interpersonal problems.
A

Describe the definition criteria of alcohol abuse

400
Q

Describe the definition criteria of alcohol dependence

A

A maladaptive pattern of alcohol use leading to distress or impairment within a one-year period, via:
1. Tolerance - (needing more alcohol to achieve the same effects)

  1. Withdrawal
  2. Excessive use - (consuming larger quantities or for a longer duration than intended)
  3. Failed attempts to control or reduce alcohol use.
  4. Significant time spent on alcohol-related activities (using, recovering, obtaining).
  5. Neglected important responsibilities or activities due to alcohol use.
  6. Continued alcohol use despite knowing it has caused ongoing physical or psychological issues.
401
Q

A maladaptive pattern of alcohol use leading to distress or impairment within a one-year period, via:
1. Tolerance - (needing more alcohol to achieve the same effects)

  1. Withdrawal
  2. Excessive use - (consuming larger quantities or for a longer duration than intended)
  3. Failed attempts to control or reduce alcohol use.
  4. Significant time spent on alcohol-related activities (using, recovering, obtaining).
  5. Neglected important responsibilities or activities due to alcohol use.
  6. Continued alcohol use despite knowing it has caused ongoing physical or psychological issues.
A

definition criteria of alcohol dependence

402
Q

List the differences between Alcohol abuse vs dependence

A

abuse:
- less severe
- interferes with responsibilities
- dangerous use (drinking & driving)
- legal problems with alcohol

dependence:
- More severe
- higher tolerance
- withdrawal
- drink more/longer then intended
- can’t limit/control
- lot’s of time committed to getting/using it
- lost interest in old passions in favor of booze

403
Q

Effects of dinking alcohol

A

Loss of coordination
Poor judgment
Slowed reflexes
Distorted vision
Memory lapses/ Blackouts
Lowered inhibitions
Impaired judgment

404
Q

Loss of coordination
Poor judgment
Slowed reflexes
Distorted vision
Memory lapses/ Blackouts
Lowered inhibitions
Impaired judgment

A

effects of drinking alcohol

405
Q

What classifies as binge drinking

A

having 5 or more drinks on one occasion (even if you don’t do it often!)

406
Q

Describe the clinical impacts of alcohol abuse

A

1) Thiamine deficiency
(Wernicke and Korsakoff)
2) Liver failure
3) Gastric ulcers
4) lower life expectancy
5) Fetal alcohol syndrome
(microcephaly, delayed developmental milestones)
6) Intoxication – coma

407
Q

1) Thiamine deficiency
(Wernicke and Korsakoff)
2) Liver failure
3) Gastric ulcers
4) lower life expectancy
5) Fetal alcohol syndrome
(microcephaly, delayed developmental milestones)
6) Intoxication – coma

A

clinical impacts of alcohol abuse

408
Q

Describe the features of Delirium tremens (aka 1st week withdrawal symptoms from alcohol)

A

confusion,
disorientation,
tremors,
tachycardia,
hypertension,
hallucinations (pink elephants)

409
Q

confusion,
disorientation,
tremors,
tachycardia,
hypertension,
hallucinations (pink elephants)

A

features of Delirium tremens (aka 1st week withdrawal symptoms from alcohol)

410
Q

Describe the features of Wernickes encephalopathy

A

usually malnourished alcoholics that present with
- ophthalmoplegia
- ataxia
- confusion/Demetia

Rx Thiamine

411
Q

Describe the features of Korsakoff syndrome

A

Chronic alcoholics present with
- memory loss
- confabulation
- confusion
- personality changes
- peripheral neuropathy

412
Q

Chronic alcoholics present with
- memory loss
- confabulation
- confusion
- personality changes
- peripheral neuropathy

A

features of Korsakoff syndrome

413
Q

usually malnourished alcoholics that present with
- ophthalmoplegia
- ataxia
- confusion/Demetia

Rx Thiamine

A

features of Wernickes encephalopathy

414
Q

Hallucinogens are classified as

A

alter time, reality & the environment:

LSD (acid) injected
PCP (Phencyclidine aka angel dust) smoked
Mushrooms
Cannabis

415
Q

What’s the average age of first time use of weed

A

14

416
Q

Describe the physical effects of marijuana use

A
  1. Dry mouth.
  2. Nausea.
  3. Headache.
  4. Decreased coordination.
  5. Increased heart rate.
  6. Reduced muscle strength.
  7. Increased appetite and eating.
  8. Reddening of the eyes (vasocongestion).
417
Q
  1. Dry mouth.
  2. Nausea.
  3. Headache.
  4. Decreased coordination.
  5. Increased heart rate.
  6. Reduced muscle strength.
  7. Increased appetite and eating.
  8. Reddening of the eyes (vasocongestion).
  9. Reproductive problems
A

physical effects of marijuana use

418
Q

Describe the psychological effects of pot use

A
  1. Anxiety.
  2. Paranoia.
  3. Confusion.
  4. Anger.
  5. Hallucinations.
  6. Tiredness.
  7. Possible suicidal thoughts.
419
Q

Describe the impact weed has on the male reproductive system

A
  1. Smaller testicular size.
  2. Lower testosterone hormone levels.
  3. Impotence.
  4. Decreased sexual desire.
  5. Change in sperm size, amount, and strength.
420
Q

Describe the effects of weed on female reproductive health

A
  1. Period problems.
  2. Abnormal eggs.
  3. Decreased sexual desire.
  4. Reduced fertility in future children.
421
Q

what are the effects of wee d during pregnancy?

A
  1. Decreased baby size.
  2. Increased risk of childhood leukemia
422
Q

Describe the physical effects of PCP

A

Blurred vision
Numbness
Tachycardia
Fever
Arrythmia
Vomiting
Jerky eye movements
Heavy sweating
Speech impediments

423
Q

Describe the intoxication/overuse symptoms of PCP

A

Seizures
Brain hemorrhaging
Kidney failure
Respiratory failure
Stroke
Coma
Death

424
Q

Describe the psychological effects of taking PCP

A

Anxiety
Euphoria
Confusion
Amnesia

425
Q

Opioids (aka narcotics) include what drugs?

A

Morphine
Heroine

426
Q

What drug is used to treat heroin addiction?

A

methadone (a synthetic opioid)

427
Q

Effects of Heroine & Methadone use

A
  1. Elevation of mood.
  2. Relaxation.
  3. Somnolence.
  4. Sedation.
  5. Analgesia.
  6. Respiratory depression.
  7. Constipation.
  8. Pupil constriction
428
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of an opioid overdose

A

Triad:
1) apnea
2) stupor
3) miosis

  • respiratory depression (less than 12 breaths per min)
429
Q
  1. Elevation of mood.
  2. Relaxation.
  3. Somnolence.
  4. Sedation.
  5. Analgesia.
  6. Respiratory depression.
  7. Constipation.
  8. Pupil constriction
A

Effects of Heroine & Methadone use

430
Q

Treating opioid overdose typically involves

A
  • Maintain Airway, breathing, circulation
  • stomach lavage
  • Administer Naloxone as an antidote (0.2-0.4mg)
  • repeat doses every 2-3 minutes if there’s no response for a suspected heroine OD
  • Does up to 10-20mg if an opioid OD is strongly suspected
431
Q

Describe the effects of opioid withdrawal

A

Depression of mood
Anxiety
Insomnia
Sweating and fever
*Rhinorrhea
*Piloerection ( goose bumps)
Yawning
Abdominal cramps and diarrhea
*Pupil dilation

432
Q

Amphetamines physical effects on the body

A

Hypertension
Tachycardia
Arrythmia
Hyperpyrexia
Delirium
Psychosis
Coma
Rhabdomyolysis
Muscle rigidity
Tachypnoea
Mydriasis

433
Q

Heroin/Opiates effects on the body

A

Hypotension
Bradycardia
Hypothermia
Coma
Rhabdomyolysis
Respiratory depression
Pinpoint pupils

434
Q

What are used to treat alcohol abuse/dependence

A

Disulfiram (prevent use)
Benzodiazepines (withdrawal)
Thiamine

435
Q

What are used to treat Benzodiazepines and barbiturates

A

Replace it with Buspirone or zolpidem

436
Q

Replace it with Buspirone or zolpidem

A

treat Benzodiazepines and barbiturates

437
Q

Disulfiram (prevent use)
Benzodiazepines (withdrawal)
Thiamine

A

treat alcohol abuse/dependence

438
Q

Treating Heroin addiction

A

Naloxone (blocks opiate receptors)
Clonidine (withdrawal)

439
Q

Naloxone (blocks opiate receptors)
Clonidine (withdrawal), areused to rx what substace abuse?

A

Treating Heroin addiction

440
Q

Pupil dilation seen with which drug uses (3)

A

Cocaine
Amphetamines
LSD

441
Q

Pupil dilation seen with dilation from these drugs

A

Heroin
Methadone
Alcohol

442
Q

Pupil constriction is seen with use of which drugs

A

Heroin
Methadone

443
Q

Pupil constriction is seen with withdrawal of which drugs

A

Cocaine
Amphetamines

444
Q

Drug use that cause Psychotic symptoms like hallucinations and delusions

A

Cocaine
Amphetamines
Alcohol
Hallucinogens

445
Q

Drug withdrawal that causes Psychotic symptoms like hallucinations and delusions

A

Alcohol
Benzodiazepines
Barbituates

446
Q

Immediate treatment of amphetamines and cocaine use

A

Benzodiazepines (decrease agitation)
Antipsychotics

447
Q

Immediate treatment of sedatives like alcohol, benzodiazepines, & barbiturate use

A

Flumazenil (reverse benzo effects)
Thiamine (alcohol vitamin def)

448
Q

Immediate treatment of opioids like heroin and methadone use

A

Naloxone (OD)
Clonidine (withdrawal)

449
Q

long term treatment of opioids like heroin and methadone use

A

methadone
Buprenorphine

450
Q

Immediate treatment of hallucinogens like Marijuana, LSD & PCP use

A

Benzodiazepine (lower agitation)
Antipsychotics

451
Q

alcohol, barbiturate, and benzodiazepine effects of use includes

A

Mild elevation of mood
Decreased anxiety
Somnolence
Behavioural disinhibition
Sedation
Poor coordination
Respiratory depression

452
Q

Withdrawal symptoms of alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines includes

A

Mild depression of mood
Increased anxiety
Insomnia
Psychotic symptoms (delusions and formication)
Disorientation
Tremor
Seizures
Tachycardia and hypertension

453
Q

withdrawal effect of amphetamine & cocaine includes

A

Significant depression of mood
Irritability
Hunger
Pupil constriction ( Miosis )
Fatigue

454
Q

Effects of use of amphetamines & cocaine include

A
  1. Elevation of mood (followed by crash - cocaine).
  2. Increased attention.
  3. Aggressiveness, impaired judgement.
  4. Psychotic symptoms (paranoid delusions - amphetamine, tactile hallucinations - cocaine).
  5. Loss of appetite and weight.
  6. Insomnia.
  7. Seizures.
  8. Tachycardia.
  9. Hypersexuality.
  10. Mydriasis (pupil dilation).
455
Q

Physiological effects of nicotine

A
  1. Central nervous system stimulant.
  2. Increases heart and respiratory rates.
  3. Constricts blood vessels and raises blood pressure.
  4. Increases blood sugar levels.
  5. Decreases stomach contractions that signal hunger.
    - Symptoms of nicotine poisoning:
  6. Dizziness.
  7. Lightheadedness.
  8. Rapid and erratic pulse.
  9. Nausea
456
Q

Impaired motor coordination
Slowed sense of time
Social withdrawal
Munchies
Conjunctival injection
Psychosis

A

WEEEEEEEEEEEEEED

457
Q

Ideas of reference
Perceptual disturbances
Impaired judgement
Dissociative symptoms

A

Signs of Hallucinogenic intoxication (LSD, PCP, mushrooms, etc)

458
Q

Euphoria
Hypervigilance
Autonomic hyperactivity
Weight loss
Pupil dilation
Perceptual disturbances

A

Amphetamine use = cocaine

459
Q

Talkative
Gregarious
Moody
Disinhibited

A

Alcohol use

460
Q

Apathy
Dysphoria
Pinpoint pupils
Drowsiness
Slurred speech
Coma
Death

A

Opiate use

461
Q

Naloxone is used to treat

A

Opiates

462
Q

Belligerence
Psychomotor agitation
Violence
Nystagmus
Hypertension
Seizures

A

PCP (Phencyclidine) use

463
Q

Place in a quiet room
Antipsychotics
Benzodiazepines

used to treat

A

PCP OD

464
Q

Irritability
Aggression
Mood instability
Psychosis

A

Anabolic steroid use

465
Q
A
466
Q

Euphoria
Mild hallucinations
Visual distortions
Enhanced sensations
Hyperthermia
Bruxism
Autonomic Hyperactivity
Dry mouth

A

Ecstasy use

467
Q

Dantrolene
Benzodiazepines
Hydration

used to treat

A

Ecstasy (MDMA, MOLLY, E, or X)

468
Q

Withdrawal symptoms:
Depression
Anxiety
Panic attacks

A

Ecstasy

469
Q

Withdrawal symptoms:

Depression
Headaches
Anxiety

A

Anabolic steroids

470
Q

Withdrawal symptoms:
Elevated body temperature
Seizures
Muscle breakdown
Muscle twitching
Agitation
Hallucinations

A

PCP (Phencyclidine)

471
Q

Withdrawal:
Fever
Chills
Runny nose
Diarrhea
Muscle spasms/cramps

A

opiates

472
Q

Slurred speech
Confusion
Memory deficits
Falls
Respiratory depression (rare)

A

Benzodiazepine intoxication signs

473
Q

Flumazenil & ventilation if needed is treatment for

A

Benzodiazepine intoxication

474
Q

Withdrawal signs:
Increased anxiety
Insomnia
Seizures

A

Benzodiazepine intoxication

475
Q

Withdrawal symptoms:
Anxiety
Depression
Cognitive impairments
Memory deficits
Lack of attention
Seizures
Delirium

A

Barbiturates

476
Q

What the treatment for barbiturate withdrawal?

A

Phenobarbital

477
Q

Describe the features of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

low nasal bridge
Small eyes
Small/underdeveloped jaw
Short nose
Epicanthal folds
Flat midface
Smooth philtrum
Thin upper lip
Small head + microcephaly

478
Q

low nasal bridge
Small eyes
Small/underdeveloped jaw
Short nose
Epicanthal folds
Flat midface
Smooth philtrum
Thin upper lip
Small head + microcephaly

A

features of fetal alcohol syndrome

479
Q

Dopamine _______ desire for stimulus & serotonin ________ desire for stimulus

A

Dopamine = Increases stimulus desire
Serotonin gives impression of satisfaction

480
Q

Describe the features of wilson disease

A

Ceruloplasmin deficiency
Hepatolenticular degeneration
Kayser-Fleischer rings in the eyes
Asterixis

481
Q

Ceruloplasmin deficiency
Hepatolenticular degeneration
Kayser-Fleischer rings in the eyes
Asterixis

A

features of wilson disease

482
Q

Enlarged ventricles
Normal pressure
Neurocognitive disorder
Urinary incontinence
Gait apraxia

A

Normal hydrocephalus

483
Q

Describe the features of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

features of wilson disease

484
Q

Lewy body cognitive disorder

A

Hallucinations
Parkinsonian features
Extrapyramidal signs

Antipsychotics can make it worse

Fluctuating condition & REM sleep behaviour disorder

485
Q

Hallucinations
Parkinsonian features
Extrapyramidal signs

Antipsychotics can make it worse

Fluctuating condition & REM sleep behaviour disorder

A

Lewy body cognitive disorder

486
Q

Describe the features of Neurocognitive disorder due to an HIV infection

A
  • Infection directly & progressively destroys the brain parenchyma
  • Starts with subtle personality changes
  • Diffuse and rapid multifocal destruction of brain structures and delirium
487
Q
  • Infection directly & progressively destroys the brain parenchyma
  • Starts with subtle personality changes
  • Diffuse and rapid multifocal destruction of brain structures and delirium
A

features of Neurocognitive disorder due to an HIV infection

488
Q

Neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson’s disease

A
  • Progressive loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra
  • Clinical onset 50-65yrs old
  • Depressive symptoms

Rx. Levodopa, carbidopa, dopamine agonists, anticholinergic meds (benzotropine etc)

489
Q
  • Progressive loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra
  • Clinical onset 50-65yrs old
  • Depressive symptoms

Rx. Levodopa, carbidopa, dopamine agonists, anticholinergic meds (benzotropine etc)

A

Neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson’s disease

490
Q

Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Huntington Disease

A
  • Rare, progressive loss of GABAergic neurons of the basal ganglia
  • Choreoathetosis
  • Neurocognitive disorder
  • Psychosis
  • Onset age 40yrs
  • Atrophy of caudate nucleus
  • Suicidal behaviour is common
491
Q
  • Rare, progressive loss of GABAergic neurons of the basal ganglia
  • Choreoathetosis
  • Neurocognitive disorder
  • Psychosis
  • Onset age 40yrs
  • Atrophy of caudate nucleus
  • Suicidal behaviour is common
A

Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Huntington Disease

492
Q

Neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease

A
  • Rare, spongiform encephalopathy
  • Neurocognitive disorder
  • Myoclonus
  • EEG abnormalities
  • Symptoms progress over months
  • Malaise
  • Personality changes
  • Death
493
Q
  • Rare, spongiform encephalopathy
  • Neurocognitive disorder
  • Myoclonus
  • EEG abnormalities
  • Symptoms progress over months
  • Malaise
  • Personality changes
  • Death
A

Neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease

494
Q

Describe the features of Neurocognitive disorder (Picks Disease)

A
  • Atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes
  • Pick bodies & Pick cells in brain
  • More common in men
  • Kluver-Bucy syndrome (hypersexuality, hyperphagia, & passivity)
495
Q
  • Atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes
  • Pick bodies & Pick cells in brain
  • More common in men
  • Kluver-Bucy syndrome (hypersexuality, hyperphagia, & passivity)
A

Describe the features of Neurocognitive disorder (Picks Disease)

496
Q

Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease

A
  • Cortical atrophy, flattened sulci, & enlarged ventricles
  • Amyloid deposits
  • Neurofibrillary tangles
  • Associated with X-21
  • Decrease Ach & NE
  • Gradual deterioration
497
Q
  • Cortical atrophy, flattened sulci, & enlarged ventricles
  • Amyloid deposits
  • Neurofibrillary tangles
  • Associated with X-21
  • Decrease Ach & NE
  • Gradual deterioration
A

Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease

498
Q

Vascular neurocognitive disorder (multi-infarct neurocognitive disorder)

A
  • Pseudo cerebellar palsy
  • Dysrhythmia
  • Dysphagia
  • Abnormal reflexes
  • Gait disturbances
  • Stepwise or gradual progression
499
Q
  • Pseudo cerebellar palsy
  • Dysrhythmia
  • Dysphagia
  • Abnormal reflexes
  • Gait disturbances
  • Stepwise or gradual progression
A

Vascular neurocognitive disorder (multi-infarct neurocognitive disorder)

500
Q

Describe delirium

A

Acute onset of impaired cognitive functioning that’s brief and reversible
- loss of cognitive abilities
- impaired social functioning
- memory loss
- Personality changes

501
Q

Personality
IQ
Attention
Judgement
Movement
Problem-solving
Speech

A

Frontal lobe functions

502
Q

Personality
IQ
Attention
Judgement
Movement
Problem-solving
Speech

A

Frontal lobe functions

503
Q

Paralysis
Repeated single thought
Can’t focus
Mood swing, impulsiveness
Personality changes
Difficulty problem solving
Difficulty with language (aphagia

A

Damaged frontal lobe

504
Q

Damaged frontal lobe

A

Paralysis
Repeated single thought
Can’t focus
Mood swing, impulsiveness
Personality changes
Difficulty problem solving
Difficulty with language (aphagia

505
Q

Sense of touch, pain, & temperature
Distinguishing size, shape, & colour
Visuospatial perception

A

Parietal lobe function

506
Q

Parietal lobe functions

A

Sense of touch, pain, & temperature
Distinguishing size, shape, & colour
Visuospatial perception

507
Q

Difficulty distinguishing left vs right
Lack of awareness of body parts
Difficulty with hand-eye-coordination
Problems reading, writing, & naming things
Difficulty with math

A

damage to parietal lobe

508
Q

Damage to parietal lobe

A

Difficulty distinguishing left vs right
Lack of awareness of body parts
Difficulty with hand-eye-coordination
Problems reading, writing, & naming things
Difficulty with math

509
Q

Vision

A

Occipital lobe

510
Q

Occipital lobe

A

vision

511
Q

Defects in vision or blind spots
Blurred vision
Visual illusions/hallucinations
Problems reading/writing

A

Damage to occipital lobe

512
Q

damage to occipital lobe

A

Defects in vision or blind spots
Blurred vision
Visual illusions/hallucinations
Problems reading/writing

513
Q

Speech (wernickes aphasia understanding)
memory
hearing
sequencing
organization

A

functions of the temporal lobe

514
Q

functions of the temporal lobe

A

Speech (wernickes aphasia understanding)
memory
hearing
sequencing
organization

515
Q

Difficulty understanding language & speaking
Difficulty recognizing faces
Difficulty ID objects
Problems with short/long term memory
Changes in sexual behavior
Increased behaviour

A

damaged temporal lobe

516
Q

Damaged temporal lobe

A

Difficulty understanding language & speaking
Difficulty recognizing faces
Difficulty ID objects
Problems with short/long term memory
Changes in sexual behavior
Increased behaviour

517
Q

Balance & coordination

A

Cerebellum

518
Q

Function of the cerebellum

A

Balance & coordination

519
Q

Difficulty coordinating fine movements & walking
Tremors
Dizziness (Vertigo)
Slurred speech

A

Damaged Cerebellum

520
Q

Damaged Cerebellum

A

Difficulty coordinating fine movements & walking
Tremors
Dizziness (Vertigo)
Slurred speech

521
Q

Breathing
Heart rate
Alertness/consciousness

A

Functions of the brainstem

522
Q

Functions of the brainstem

A

Breathing
Heart rate
Alertness/consciousness

523
Q

Changes in breathing
Difficulty swallowing food & water
Problems with balance & movement

A

Damage to the brainstem

524
Q

Damage to the brainstem

A

Changes in breathing
Difficulty swallowing food & water
Problems with balance & movement

525
Q

Aphasia

A

Impairment of language affecting one’s ability to speak/understand speech, read, or write

526
Q

Dominant (Left)

A
  • Parietal lobe dysfunction (most right-handed plp)
  • Language disorders (aphasia & alexia)
  • Gerstmann syndrome (Dyscalculia, dysgraphia, finger agnosia, right-left confusion)
  • Apraxia
527
Q
  • Parietal lobe dysfunction (most right-handed plp)
  • Language disorders (aphasia & alexia)
  • Gerstmann syndrome (Dyscalculia, dysgraphia, finger agnosia, right-left confusion)
  • Apraxia
A

Dominant (Left)

528
Q

Non-Dominant (Right)

A
  • Parietal lobe dysfunction
  • Hemispatial neglect
  • Sensory & visual inattention
  • Constructional & dressing apraxia (more severe for right-sided lesions)
529
Q
  • Parietal lobe dysfunction
  • Hemispatial neglect
  • Sensory & visual inattention
  • Constructional & dressing apraxia

(indicate_______-sided lesions)

A

Non-dominant (right)

530
Q

Common Symptoms use of Opiates:
Methadone
Morphine
Heroin

A

1) Decreased heart rate
2) Decreased breathing
3) Deeping voice
4) Chang in sleep
5) Pin point pupils

531
Q

Common signs of effects of use of _______include
1) Decreased heart rate
2) Decreased breathing
3) Deeping voice
4) Chang in sleep
5) Pin point pupils

A

Common Symptoms use of Opiates:
Methadone
Morphine
Heroin

532
Q

Common signs of withdrawal of opiate use: Methadone, Morphine, & Heroin

A

1) Mood swings
2) Rapid pulse
3) Dilated pupils
4) Signs can last up to 18 months

533
Q

Common withdrawal signs of _______ use:1) Mood swings
2) Rapid pulse
3) Dilated pupils
4) Signs can last up to 18 months

A

Common signs of withdrawal of opiate use: Methadone, Morphine, & Heroin

534
Q

Common signs of opiate overdose:
Methadone
Morphine
Heroin

A

1) Decreased respiratory rate
2) Arrythmia
3) Clammy skin
4) Coma
5) Nausea/vomiting
6) Anxiety

535
Q

Common overdose signs from ______ use1) Decreased respiratory rate
2) Arrythmia
3) Clammy skin
4) Coma
5) Nausea/vomiting
6) Anxiety

A

Common signs of opiate overdose:
Methadone
Morphine
Heroin

536
Q

Common signs of benzodiazepine overdose:

A

1) depressed respiratory rate
2) clammy skin
3) Dilated pupils

537
Q

Common signs of ________overdose:
1) depressed respiratory rate
2) clammy skin
3) Dilated pupils

A

Benzodiazepine overdose

538
Q

Common signs of Benzodiazepine withdrawal:

A

1) Dilated pupils
2) Possible Death
3) Headaches/tremors
4) Muscle twitches
5) Can’t focus

539
Q

Common signs of ________ withdrawal:
1) Dilated pupils
2) Possible Death
3) Headaches/tremors
4) Muscle twitches
5) Can’t focus

A

Benzodiazepine withdrawal

540
Q

Common signs of effects of use of Benzodiazepines

A

1) Double vision
2) Drowsiness
3) Change in behavior
4) Slowed speech
5) Loss of memory

541
Q

Common signs of effects of use of _______
1) Double vision
2) Drowsiness
3) Change in behavior
4) Slowed speech
5) Loss of memory

A

Benzodiazepines effects of use

542
Q

Common signs of effects of alcohol use

A

1) Blurred vision
2) Unsteady gait
3) Slowed/Slurred speech
4) Vomiting
5) Blackouts

543
Q

Common signs of effects of________use

1) Change in behaviour
2) Hunger
3) Red eyes
3) Dilated pupils
4) Slowed Speech
5) Slowed Heart rate

A

Weed effects of use

544
Q

Common signs of effects of weed use

A

1) Change in behaviour
2) Hunger
3) Red eyes
3) Dilated pupils
4) Slowed Speech
5) Slowed Heart rate

545
Q

Common signs of withdrawal of weed use

A

1) Headache
2) Shakiness
3) Sweating
4) Stomach pain/nausea

546
Q

Common signs of withdrawal of using _________

1) Headache
2) Shakiness
3) Sweating
4) Stomach pain/nausea

A

weed withdrawal

547
Q

Common signs of weed overdose is when it’s

A

mixed with other drugs son!

548
Q

Common signs of LSD use

A

1) Blurred vision
2) Flashbacks after long use
3) Tremors
4) Facial flushing
5) loss of consciousness
6) anxiety + mood swings

549
Q

Common signs of LSD use

A

1) Blurred vision & Dilated pupils
2) Flashbacks after long use
3) Tremors
4) Facial flushing
5) loss of consciousness
6) anxiety + mood swings

550
Q

Common signs of effects of use for MDMA

A

1) Shutter vision
2) Insomnia + wakefulness
3) Uncontrolled movements
4) Talkative
5) Bruxism

551
Q

Common signs of effects of use of _________
2) Insomnia + wakefulness
3) Uncontrolled movements
4) Talkative
5) Bruxism
6) Increased Heart rate

A

MDMA

552
Q

Common signs of withdrawal of MDMA

A

1) Agitation
2) Increased body temperature
3) Hallucinations
4) High blood pressure
5) Severe depression that can last for months

553
Q

Common signs of withdrawal of ______ use
1) Agitation
2) Increased body temperature
3) Hallucinations
4) High blood pressure
5) Severe depression that can last for months

A

withdrawal of MDMA

554
Q

Common signs of overdose of MDMA

A

1) High body temperature
2) Fainting spells
3) Seizures
4) Loss of consciousness

555
Q

Common signs of overdose of _______
1) High body temperature
2) Fainting spells
3) Seizures
4) Loss of consciousness

A

overdose of MDMA

556
Q

Common signs of effects of use of Amphetamines (Ritalin) & cocaine

A

1) Shutter vision + Dilated pupils
2) Insomnia + wakefulness
3) Uncontrolled movements
4) Talkative
5) Bruxism
6) Increased Heart rate
7) Loss of appetite

557
Q

Common signs of effects of use of _________ use

A

1) Shutter vision + Dilated pupils
2) Insomnia + wakefulness
3) Uncontrolled movements
4) Talkative
5) Bruxism
6) Increased Heart rate
7) Loss of appetite

558
Q

Common signs of withdrawal of ______ use
1) Agitation + Dilated pupils
2) Increased body temperature
3) Hallucinations
4) Convulsions & apathy
5) Long periods of sleep
6) Disorientation
7) High blood pressure
8) Severe depression that can last for months

A

Amphetamines (Ritalin) & Cocaine withdrawal

559
Q

Common signs of overdose of Amphetamines (Ritalin) & Cocaine

A

1) Cardiac issues
2) Stroke
3) Seizures
4) Hallucinations
5) Fainting
6) Coma

Behavioural (6 decks)

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