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Behavioural > SJSM Behavioral (psychosexual development) Block 2 > Flashcards

SJSM Behavioral (psychosexual development) Block 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Frauds stages of Psychosexual development:

Oral stage

A

0-18 months

Controlled by ID

Pleasure comes from the mouth (eating, kissing, nail-biting etc.)

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2
Q

Oral retentitive
- What’s it caused by?
- What does it lead to in adulthood?

A

When parents give too much attention it makes the person:
- Dependent
- Gullible
- Prone to excessive (eating, kissing etc.)

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3
Q

Oral sadistic
- What’s it caused by?
- What does it lead to in adulthood?

A

When parents are under attentive is makes the person:
- Hostile
- Critical
- Exploitive

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4
Q

Frauds stages of Psychosexual development:

Anal (bootyhole)

A

18m-3yrs

Controlled by EGO

Personality is somehow linked to potty training: Anal retentive (successful) or Anal expulsive (unsuccessful)

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5
Q

Anal Retentive
- What’s it caused by?
- What does it lead to in adulthood?

A

Child underwent good potty training making them more (OCD-ish):
- Stringy
- Orderly
- Perfectionistic

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6
Q

Anal Expulsive
- What’s it caused by?
- What does it lead to in adulthood?

A

Child’s potty training doesn’t go well making them less aware of things importance:
- Messy
- Generous
- Wasteful

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7
Q

Frauds stages of Psychosexual development:

Phallic (wiener Fraud hates women)

A

3yrs-6yrs

Controlled by SUPEREGO

Children are sex curious (genitals mostly) but they also undergo:
1. Oedipus (son sexually attracted to mommy and jealous of dad (castration anxiety))
2. Electra (Daughter sexually attracted to daddy and jealous of mom (penis envy))

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8
Q

Frauds stages of Psychosexual development:

Latency stage

A

6-12yrs

Child is distracted by social events (school & curious about the world) aka sublimation psychosexual development with other things

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9
Q

Frauds stages of Psychosexual development:

Genital (sexy times)

A

12+yrs

People seek relationships, sex, and undergo adult-like behaviors

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10
Q

Describe the pleasure principle

A

Controlled by ID (instinct), seek pleasure and avoid discomfort (regardless of social norms)

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11
Q

Describe the reality principle

A

Controlled by EGO this is self-control, using rationale and abiding by social norms when seeking/fulfilling a desire

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12
Q

Describe the transference principle

Positive & negative

A

Transference is when we project past feelings on someone i.e a therapist

Positive feelings = like the therapist
Negative feelings = therapist is a dick

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13
Q

What is counter transference and why do we want to avoid it?

A

It’s when the therapist reacts to the clients transference. this interferes with therapy!

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14
Q

General stages of development (Erik Erikson):

Infancy

A

Trust vs mistrust (HOPE)

they trust/mistrust basic needs (food) will be met

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15
Q

General stages of development (Erik Erikson):

Early childhood

A

1-3yrs

Autonomy vs shame (WILL)

they become more independent

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16
Q

General stages of development (Erik Erikson):

Play

A

3-6yrs

Initiative vs Guilt (Purpose)

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17
Q

General stages of development (Erik Erikson):

School

A

7-11yrs

Industry vs Inferiority (Competence)

they develop self-confidence and a sense of inferiority depending on whether they can accomplish something

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18
Q

General stages of development (Erik Erikson):

Adolescence

A

12-18yrs

Identity vs Confusion (FIDELITY)

they experiment with roles and Identity (I.e gender roles)

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19
Q

General stages of development (Erik Erikson):

Early adulthood

A

19-29yrs

Intimacy vs Isolation (LOVE)

they establish intimate relationships with others

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20
Q

General stages of development (Erik Erikson):

Middle age

A

30-64yrs

Generavity vs Stagnation (CARE)

they want to have a family and contribute to society

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21
Q

General stages of development (Erik Erikson):

Old age

A

65+yrs

Integrity vs Despair (WISDOM)

they develop life sense at this point

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22
Q

Describe repression

A

Controlled by EGO

when we keep internal/personal threatening thoughts/memories from our conscious awareness

Ex. child sexual abuse might later on in life

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23
Q

Describe denial

A

When we refuse to accept reality about an external threat

Ex. Smoker keeps smoking and doesn’t accept it’s bad for them

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24
Q

Describe displacement

A

When we’re have an impulse (anger) and satisfy it by directing it at something/someone else

Ex. Angry at prof so you go home and hit you dog

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25
Q

Describe regression

A

When were faced with stress and revert back to an earlier stage in our psychosexual development

Ex. grade-schooler sucking their thumb or an adult crying

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26
Q

Describe Sublimation

A

When we have an impulse/urge (anger) and channel it into something more socially acceptable or productive

anger —> working out

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27
Q

Describe reaction formation

A

When we turn an unpleasant feeling/emotion into its opposite

Ex. acting aggressive towards you crush

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28
Q

Describe rationalization

A

When we give logical reasons to justify our unacceptable behaviors this is usually motivated by ID (unconscious desires)

Ex. Eating unhealthy food but justifying it by saying we’re all going to die anyways

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29
Q

Describe what CBT (cog-behavioral therapy) is used for

A

For treating mild-moderate depression, somatoform, or eating disorders by addressing/changing patients thought process

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30
Q

Describe what biofeedback is used for

A

For treating physical medical conditions (hypertension, Raynaud’s, chronic pain etc.)

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31
Q

Describe what token economy is

A

It is increasing positive behaviors in severely disorganized, autistic, or challenged people

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32
Q

What is systematic desensitization used to treat

A

Phobias

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33
Q

What is aversive conditioning used to treat?

A

Paraphilias (pedos) & addition

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34
Q

Pavlov’s:

Describe an unconditioned stimulus

A

Something that evokes an automatic response/reflex that DOESN’T need to be taught (Food = saliva)

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35
Q

Pavlov’s:

Describe a conditioned stimulus

A

Something that has been taught to elicit a response/reflex (Bell + food = saliva)

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36
Q

Pavlov’s:

Describe a conditioned response

A

A reflex/response that has been taught to be associated with a certain stimulus (Bell = saliva)

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37
Q

Pavlov’s:

Describe an unconditioned response

A

An automatic reflex/response that doesn’t have to be taught

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38
Q

Operant conditioning:

Positive reinforcement

A

Adding a positive stimulus (give a reward) to encourage a behaviour

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39
Q

Operant conditioning:

Negative reinforcement

A

Removing a negative stimulus (take away pain)

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40
Q

Operant conditioning:

Positive punishment

A

Adding a negative stimulus (adding something painful)

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41
Q

Operant conditioning:

Negative punishment

A

Removing a positive stimulus (take away reward)

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42
Q

Operant conditioning made easy

A

positive =add
negative = remove
Reinforce = good
Punish = bad

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43
Q

Describe habituation

A

aka desensitization, when repeated exposure to a stimulus decreases a response

ex. getting a horse used to grooming

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44
Q

Describe sensitization

A

when repeated exposure of a stimulus increases a response

ex a kid afraid of spiders feels anxiety every time he sees one

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45
Q

Describe what learned helplessness is

A

When negative stimulus can’t be escapes it teaches someone to associate the negative stimulus with being unable to escape causing them to become hopeless & apathetic, no longer trying to escape

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46
Q

Describe the features of anterograde amnesia

A

when you can’t retain/form new memories
(Hippocampus)

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47
Q

Describe the features of reterograde amnesia

A

When you can’t retain older memories
(Thalamus)

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48
Q

What are the levels of neurotransmitters present in Anxiety?

A

High Norepinephrine
High Serotonin
Low GABA

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49
Q

What are the levels of neurotransmitters present in Alzheimers?

A

Low Acetylcholine
High Glutamate

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50
Q

What are the levels of neurotransmitters present in Depression?

A

Low Serotonin
Low Dopamine
Low Norepinephrine

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51
Q

What are the levels of neurotransmitters present in Mania?

A

High Dopamine
Low GABA

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52
Q

What are the levels of neurotransmitters present in Schizophrenia?

A

High Dopamine
High Serotonin
High Glutamate

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53
Q

What are the 2 main dopaminergic tracts in the CNS?

A

Nigrostriatal & Mesolimbic

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54
Q

What are the main dopaminergic receptors?

A

D1-like receptors (D1&D5) &
D2-like receptors (D2,D3,D4)

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55
Q

What are the main nuclei involved in dopamine production in the CNS?

A

Substantia nigra & ventral tegmental area

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56
Q

Describe the functions of dopamine in the body (4)

A

Mood regulation
Reward/pleasure
Motor control
Planning/decisions (executive functions)

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57
Q

Parkinsons is associated with _____

A

a decreased in dopamine

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58
Q

Schizophrenia is associated with _____

A

an increase in dopamine

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59
Q

What is the name of the collection of tracts for serotonin in the CNS?

A

Serotonergic pathways

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60
Q

What are the main receptors for serotonin?

A

5HT1 through 5HT7

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61
Q

What is the main nuclei involved with serotonin in the CNS?

A

The Raphe nuclei (brainstem)

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62
Q

What are the functions of serotonin in the body? (4)

A

Sleep-wake cycle
Mood
Appetite
Emotional stability

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63
Q

What is the treatment of most mood disorders

A

SSRI’s

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64
Q

What disorders are associated with Serotonin imbalances

A

mood disorders like depression and anxiety

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65
Q

What is the tract associated with Norepinephrine?

A

The Locus coeruleus-noradrenergic pathway
(it starts in the locus coeruleus –> pons –> brain+spine)

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66
Q

What are the norepinephrine receptors ?

A

alpha & beta adrenergic receptors

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67
Q

What is the main nuclei of norepinephrine production in the CNS?

A

Locus coeruleus (pons)

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68
Q

Describe the functions of norepinephrine in the CNS?

A

CNS: Regulate arousal, attention, sleep-wake cycle, & the stress/emotional response)

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69
Q

Describe the functions of serotonin in the PNS & where is it released from?

A

PNS: It’s released by the adrenal medulla it regulates the fight/flight response (vasoconstriction and tachycardia)

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70
Q

Describe the psychological factors most likely to influence health

A

Poor health behavior
Maladaptive personality type
Chronic/acute life stress

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71
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Dead spouse

A

Very high stress (100)

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72
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Retirement

A

High (45)

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73
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Child leaves home

A

Moderate (29)

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74
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Divorce

A

Very high (73)

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75
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Separation

A

Very high (65)

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76
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Death of a close family member

A

Very high (63)

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77
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Major loss from illness/injury

A

High (53)

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78
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Moving

A

Low (20)

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79
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Major dept

A

Moderate (31)

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80
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Promotion/demotion at work

A

Moderate (29)

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81
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Birth/child adoption

A

High (39)

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82
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Marriage

A

High (50)

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83
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Job loss

A

High (47)

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84
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Major loss of health of a close family member

A

High (44)

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85
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Vacation

A

Low (15)

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86
Q

On the relative stress scale:

Major holiday

A

Low (12)

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87
Q

How are some of the ways culture impacts illness

A
  • Different treatments
  • Spiritual/ritualistic beliefs
  • Influence symptoms
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88
Q

Describe features of the Baby blues

A

33-50% of new moms, with symptoms lasting ~2weeks:

  • Exaggerated emotions/crying
  • Mom interacts well with friends/family
  • Mom is well groomed
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89
Q

Describe the features of post partum major depressive disorder

A

5-10% of new moms, happens within 4 weeks with symptoms lasting ~1yr without treatment & 3-6wks with treatment:
- Hopelessness & helplessness
- No pleasure in regular activities anymore
- POOR SELF-CARE
- Can include psychotic symptoms (hallucinations etc)
- Mom may be a risk to baby

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90
Q

Describe the features of a post-partum brief psychotic disorder

A

0.1-0.2% of new moms, onset within 4 weeks with symptoms lasting up to a month:
- Somewhat like MDD
- MOM IS A BIG RISK TO BABY!!!

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91
Q

Primitive reflex:

Grasping things placed in their hand

A

Palmar grasp reflex
(ends ~2 months)

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92
Q

Primitive reflex:

Head turns in the direction of a stroke (nipple hunting)

A

Rooting/suckling reflex
(end ~3 months)

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93
Q

Primitive reflex:

When the plantar surface of the foot is stroke the big toe dorsiflexes

A

Babinski reflex
(ends ~4 months)

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94
Q

Primitive reflex:

Eyes follow human faces

A

Tracking reflex (continuous)

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95
Q

Primitive reflex:

arms and legs extend when spooked

A

startle reflex
(ends ~4 months)

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96
Q

Milestones:

At 2-3 months what motor, social, and verb/cog skills should baby be able to do?

A

motor: Lift their head when lying down

Social: smile at a human face

Verb/cog: Coo/gurgle in response to attention

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97
Q

motor: Lift their head when lying down

Social: smile at a human face

Verb/cog: Coo/gurgle in response to attention

A

2-3 months

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98
Q

Milestones:

Baby was able to turn over what’s the age range

A

5 months

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99
Q

Milestones:

At 4-6 months what motor, social, and verb/cog skills should baby be able to do?

A

Turn over (5m)
Sit alone (6m)
reach for things + grasp with whole hand
form an attachment to primary caregiver
babbles

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100
Q

Turn over
Sit alone
reach for things + grasp with whole hand
form an attachment to primary caregiver
babbles

A

4-6m

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101
Q

Milestones:

At 7-11 months what motor, social, and verb/cog skills should baby be able to do?

A

Crawling + pull up to stand
Move things hand to hand
Pincer grip
Stranger anxiety
Play social games (Peekaboo)
Imitates sounds, gestures, & responds to name
Can follow simple instructions

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102
Q

Crawling + pull up to stand
Move things hand to hand
Pincer grip
Stranger anxiety
Play social games (Peekaboo)
Imitates sounds, gestures, & responds to name
Can follow simple instructions

A

7-11m

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103
Q

Milestones:

At 12-15 months what motor, social, and verb/cog skills should baby be able to do?

A

Walk on their own
Separation anxiety
First words
Object permanence

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104
Q

Walk on their own
Separation anxiety
First words
Object permanence

A

12-15m

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105
Q

Skills:

Throw a ball &
Climb stairs 1 foot at a time

A

1.5yr old

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106
Q

Skills:

Throw a ball & scribbles

A

1.5yr old

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107
Q

Skills:

Kick a ball & balance on 1 foot (1 second)

A

2yr old

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108
Q

Skills:

Stack 3 blocks

A

1.5yr old

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109
Q

Skills:

Stack 6 blocks & eat with a spoon

A

2yr old

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110
Q

Skills:

Ride a tricycle & dress with help

A

3yr old

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111
Q

Skills:

Climb stairs with alternating feet & stack 9 blocks

A

3yr old

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112
Q

Skills:

Copy a circle

A

3yr old

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113
Q

Skills:

Catch a ball with arms & Dress alone

A

4yr old

How well did you know this?
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114
Q

Skills:

Self groom & Hop on 1 foot

A

4yr old

115
Q

Skills:

Draw a person & copy a cross

A

4yr old

116
Q

Skills:

Catch a ball with hand & draw a person in detail

A

5yr old

117
Q

Skills:

Skip with alternating feet & Copy a square

A

5yr old

118
Q

Skills:

Tie shoe laces &
Ride a bicycle

A

6yr old

119
Q

Skills:

Print letters & copy a triangle

A

6yr old

120
Q

Skills:

Develop morals & understand the finality of death

A

6yr old

121
Q

Skills:

Develop Oedipus phase & over concern about injury

A

6yr old

122
Q

Skills:

Improved verbal & cognitive skills

A

6yr old

123
Q

Skills:

Starts thinking logically & reads

A

6yr old

124
Q

Skills:

Notice gender, develop bowel/bladder control, & can stay a day away from mom

A

3yr old

125
Q

Skills:

Do cooperative play (with others), explore role play (mommy vs daddy), have imaginary friends, curious about sex differences (play doctor), develop nightmares & transient phobias

A

4yr old

126
Q

Skills:

Use 900 words but can understand 3500, can ID colours, & use complete sentences

A

3yr old

127
Q

Skills:

Good verbal self expression & they understand and use predispositions

A

4yr old

128
Q

Skills:

Rapprochement to mom (moves away then returns) & uses 10 words

A

1.5yr old

129
Q

Skills:

Develop a love for negativity (fav word is NO) & they do parallel play (play alongside)

A

2yr old

130
Q

Skills:

Use 250 words, 2 word sentences, and can name body parts/objects “Me do”

A

2yr old

131
Q

Chum period is described as

A

The time during school years (~10yrs old) where they develop a friend of the same sex

132
Q

Absent chum period is theorized to prelude _____

A

schizophrenia

133
Q

Treatment for complicated grief may include

A

antidepressants & antipsychotics, Electroconvulsive therapy, and more physician time

134
Q

Treatment for normal grief may include

A

More calls/visits to their physician, support groups, and short acting sleep aids

135
Q

ID is described as our

A

unconscious urges & instincts that are usually selfish and socially unacceptable

136
Q

EGO is described as our

A

control center, that balances between ID & SUPEREGO

137
Q

ID follows which principle

A

Pleasure principle

138
Q

EGO follows which principle

A

Reality principle

139
Q

Pre-consciousness is described as

A

recallable memories and knowledge within our awareness

140
Q

SUPEREGO follows which principle

A

Morality principle

141
Q

Adolescent deliquency:

Early adolescence

A

11-14yrs

Critique their family’s usual habits
insist more unsupervised peer time
more aware of style/appearance
question previously accepted family values
new sexuality awareness
more modesty/embarrassment with body
more interest in the opposite sex

142
Q

Adolescent deliquency:

Middle adolescence

A

14-17yrs

lifestyle reflects attempts to be independent
self esteem is pivotal in positive and negative risk taking behaviors
Identify with a peer group who influences their choices/activities/personality etc
underestimate risks with recreational behaviors
Want to be autonomous

143
Q

Adolescent deliquency:

Late adolescence

A

17-20yrs

Continues exploring academic pursuits & hobbies
social bonds are important for creating a sense of slef/belonging

144
Q

Risk factors for adolescent delinquency

A

hyperactivity
risk-taking behavior
aggressiveness
antisocial behavior

145
Q

Stages of grief

A

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression’
Acceptance

146
Q

Abnormal grief reaction

A

o Significant weight loss
o Significant sleep disturbances
o Intense feelings of guilt and worthlessness
o Hallucinations and delusions
o Attempts suicide
o Symptoms persist for more than 2 months
o Treatment- antidepressants
 antipsychotic
 electroconvulsive therapy

147
Q

Normal grief reaction

A
  • Bereavement is the period of grief and mourning after a death of loved one
    o Minor weight loss and sleep disturbances
    o Some guilty feelings
    o Illusions
    o Attempts to return to work
    o Cries and expresses sadness
    o Symptoms resolve within 2 months
    o Treatment- supportive psychotherapy
     short acting benzodiazepines
148
Q

Older folks are more vulnerable to which conditions/feelings

A

o - depression,
o - hypochondriasis,
o - low self-esteem,
o - feelings of worthlessness, and
o - self-accusatory trends (especially about sex and sinfulness) with
o - paranoid and suicidal ideation.
Dementia
Schizophrenia

149
Q

Describe the features of somatoform disorder

A

Physical symptoms that resemble a medical disease & are more common in older adults

150
Q

Describe the features of Delusional disorder

A

Onset is between 40-55 but can happen at any time during the geriatric period
- paranoia
-violent
-reclusive

triggers can be:
 - the death of a spouse,
 - loss of a job,
 - retirement,
 - social isolation,
 - adverse financial circumstances,
 - debilitating medical illness or surgery,
 - visual impairment, and deafness.

151
Q

Schizophrenia

A

onset is late adolescence or early adulthood
more common in women

o Residual type of schizophrenia:
 The residual type of schizophrenia occurs in about 30 % of persons with schizophrenia.
 Its signs and symptoms include
* - emotional blunting,
* - social withdrawal,
* - eccentric behavior, and
* - illogical thinking.
 - Delusions and hallucinations are uncommon.

152
Q

Pseudo vs true dementia

A

o In true dementia, intellectual performance usually is global, and impairment is consistently poor; in pseudodementia, deficits in attention and concentration are variable

153
Q

Describe acting out

A

o Avoiding personally unacceptable emotions by behaving in an attention getting often socially inappropriate manner

154
Q

Describe altruism

A

o is the wilful sacrifice of one’s own interests or well-being for the sake of something that is non-self.

155
Q

Describe disassociation

A

o Mentally separating part of one’s consciousness from real life events or mentally distancing oneself from others.

156
Q

Describe Humor

A

o Expressing personally uncomfortable feelings without causing emotional discomfort
o Humor involves dealing with stress by emphasizing the amusing or ironic aspects of the situation.

157
Q

Describe identification

A

o Unconsciously patterning one’s behavior after that someone more powerful
o The unconscious modelling of one’s self upon another person.

158
Q

Describe intellectualization (sheldon cooper)

A

o Using the mind’s higher functions to avoid experiencing emotion.
o Intellectualization involves dealing with stress by excessively using abstract thinking and generalizations to avoid or minimize unpleasant feelings.

159
Q

Isolation effect

A

o Using the mind’s higher functions to avoid experiencing emotion

160
Q

Describe splitting

A

o Categorizing people or situations into categories of either good or bad because of intolerance of uncertainty
o e.g. A patient tells the doctor that while all of the doctors in the group practice are wonderful, all of the nurses and office help are unfriendly and curt

161
Q

Describe undoing

A

o believing that one can magically reverse past events caused by incorrect behavior by now adopting correct behavior
o e.g. A woman who is terminally ill with AIDS caused by drug abuse, stops using drugs and alcohol and starts an exercise and healthful diet program

162
Q

Describe somatization

A

o Somatization occurs where a psychological problem turns into physical and subconscious symptoms.
o e.g. Getting headache while taking an exam

163
Q

Sensory memory

A

This type of memory allows you to remember sensory information after the stimulation has ended. It typically only holds onto information for brief periods2. There are three types of sensory memory: iconic (sight), echoic (sound), and haptic (touch)2.

164
Q

Short term memory

A

Also known as primary or active memory, short-term memory allows you to recall specific information about anything for a brief period2. Research estimates that short-term memories only last for about 30 seconds2.

165
Q

Working memory

A

This is a system for temporarily storing and managing the information required to carry out complex cognitive tasks such as learning, reasoning, and comprehension1.

166
Q

Long term memory

A

This type of memory involves the storage of information over an extended period. Long-term memory can be further categorized as either implicit (unconscious) or explicit (conscious)2.

167
Q

Implicit memory

A

Also known as non-declarative memory, it involves recollection that does not require conscious thought, such as motor skills

168
Q

Explicit memory

A

: Also known as declarative memory, it involves conscious thought, such as recalling who came to dinner last night.

169
Q

Episodic memory

A

This is a type of long-term memory that involves the recollection of specific events, situations, and experiences1.

170
Q

Semantic memory

A

Semantic memory is someone’s long-term store of knowledge: It’s composed of pieces of information such as facts learned in school, what concepts mean and how they are related, or the definition of a particular word1.

171
Q

procedural memory

A

This type of long-term memory is responsible for knowing how to do things, i.e., memory of motor skills. It does not involve conscious thought; for example, knowing how to ride a bike or type on a keyboard

172
Q

Lesions of the limbic lobes typically present with what changes

A
  • Anterograde amnesia (hippocampus especially pronounced in Alzheimer’s)
  • Kluver-Bucy syndrome
  • Decreased fear response (Amygdala)
  • A hard time recognizing and understanding people’s facial expressions and tone (especially if they are angry)
173
Q

What type of cognitive deficits might be expected in a patient with a _______ lobe lesion, such as difficulty with spatial perception, body awareness, and mathematical operations?

A

Lesion to the parietal lobe

174
Q

A 56-year-old man presents to the ER with complaints of severe emotional lability, episodic memory loss, and impaired sense of smell. He also reports experiencing vivid dreams and déjà vu episodes. Upon further examination, the patient displays preserved language and motor function. Imaging reveals a lesion in the _______ lobe

A

Limbic lobe

175
Q

Patients with parietal lobe lesions often present with changes to which forms of information processing by the brain?

A
  • Impaired visual-spatial information processing
    &
  • Verbal information processing
176
Q

Patient comes in after experiencing severe head trauma. Upon arrival patient is unable to tell their right from left, do simple math, copy simple drawings, & neglects the left side numbers of a clock face when asked to draw it out. Where is the lesion located?

A

Parietal lobe

177
Q

Kluver-Bucy syndrome is clinically described by what symptoms and tends to accompany what type of brain lesion?

A

Less aggression
More sexual behaviors and hyperorality (putting everything into the mouth)
&
Usually follows a lesion to the limbic lobes (hippocampus & amygdala)

178
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of Gerstmann syndrome & what brain lesion it tends to accompany

A
  • Agraphia (diff writing)
  • Alexia (diff reading written words)
  • Acalculia (diff with math)
  • Left-Right disorientation
    &
    Typically follows a lesion in the parietal lobe
179
Q

Describe the features of an occipital lobe lesion

A
  • Blindness
  • Visual hallucinations
  • Can’t see camouflaged objects
180
Q

Describe the features of a lesion to the hypothalamus

A
  • Uncontrolled hunger (ventromedial nucleus dmg)
  • Loss of appetite (Lateral nucleus dmg)
  • Effects sexual activity & temperature regulation
181
Q

Mr. Brown has been experiencing constant hunger, excessive thirst, and extreme fatigue. Despite eating frequently and consuming large quantities of water, he is unable to maintain a healthy weight and often feels weak and tired. In addition, Mr. Brown has been struggling with insomnia, experiencing difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep through the night. What type of brain lesion is he most likely to have?

A

Hypothalamus (specifically affective the ventromedial nucleus)

182
Q

Describe the features of a lesion to the Reticular system

A

Changes to the sleep-wake cycle (less REM)
&
Loss of consciousness

183
Q

Describe the feature of a lesion to the basal ganglia

A

Causes movement disorders

184
Q

A lesion to the where in the basal ganglia causes Parkinson’s?

A

Substantia Nigra

185
Q

A lesion to the where in the basal ganglia causes Huntingtons?

A

Caudate & putamen

186
Q

A lesion to the where in the basal ganglia causes Tourettes?

A

Caudate

187
Q

Describe the features of a lesion to the hippocampus?

A

Anterograde amnesia (can’t form new long-term memories)

188
Q

Describe the features of a lesion to the Thalamus?

A

Retrograde amnesia (can’t recall old memories)

189
Q

What is wrong with John, a patient who can’t seem to remember anything after his injury in a car accident? Despite his otherwise stable condition, John has trouble forming new memories and often wakes up wondering where he is and how he got there. When he is introduced to people, he will often forget their names within minutes, and repeatedly ask the same questions over and over again. His family members have become concerned as he has trouble remembering important events, appointments, and even where important household items are stored. While he can recall events before his accident quite well, he fails to remember any new events beyond a short-term memory span of just a few minutes.

A

Anterograde amnesia

190
Q

What year is it? What happened to me? These are the questions that Jeff, a 45-year-old man, keeps asking repeatedly. Jeff was brought to the emergency department after he was found wandering the streets alone. It is unclear what happened to him but his medical records show that he was in a car accident three days ago. Jeff has retrograde amnesia and cannot remember anything that happened before the accident. He doesn’t recognize his family or friends and is confused about his surroundings. When asked to provide personal information such as his address or phone number, he draws a blank. Jeff’s doctors are unsure if his memory will improve over time or if he may have permanent damage to his brain.

A

Retrograde

191
Q

Limbic system:

Hippocampus is responsible for what?

A

Emotion
Learning
Memory

192
Q

Limbic system:

Amygdala is responsible for what?

A

Aggression
Eating/drinking drives
Sexual behaviors

193
Q

Limbic system:

Hypothalamus is responsible for what?

A

Monitoring blood’s BP, sugar, salt, & hormone levels

194
Q

Describe the features of a frontal lobe lesion

A
  • Mood changes (dom depression, non-elevation)
  • Judgement & inhibition impairments
  • Emotional & personality changes
  • Broca’s aphasia
195
Q

What effects are specifically associated with dominant lesions of the frontal lobe?

A

Mood change (depression)
Broca’s aphasia

196
Q

What effect is specifically associated with lesions of the orbitofrontal cortex?

A

Personality changes

197
Q

Describe the features of temporal lobe lesion

A
  • Impaired memory (Explicit aka semantic (facts) & episodic (personal))
  • Psychomotor functions
  • Changes in aggressive behavior
  • Wernicke aphasia
198
Q

explicit memory concerns memories of facts, events, and people it’s split into episodic memory and semantic memory describe the difference between the two

A

Semantic memory includes our factual knowledge while episodic memory is our personal experiences

199
Q

Acetylcholine production primarily happens in what nucleus?

A

Nucleus basalis of meynert

200
Q

Donepezil (ricept), Rivastigmine (exelon), & Galantamine (reminyl) are all drugs with what funtion?

A

Block acetylcholinesterase (AchE) to reduce Ach breakdown to delay Alzheimer’s (they can’t reverse any damage)

201
Q

What are the 3 drugs used to block AchE in patients with Alzheimers?

A

Donepezil (aricept)
Rivastigmine (exelon)
Galatamine (reminyl)

202
Q

What enzymes are responsible for converting Tryptophan into serotonin (5HT)

A

Tryptophan hydroxylase & AA decarboxylase

203
Q

Where is Serotonin produced ?

A

In the dorsal Raphe nuclei

204
Q

What AA is the precursor for serotonin

A

Tryptophan

205
Q

Describe stereotyping

A

when we make assumptions or judgments about individuals based on their membership in a particular social or cultural group, rather than on their own unique characteristics or individual merits.

206
Q

Describe generalizing

A

involves drawing conclusions based on patterns or characteristics that are perceived in a specific situation, and then applying those conclusions to similar situations

207
Q

if someone has a positive experience with one person from a specific cultural group, they may assume that all individuals from that group are also likely to be friendly and welcoming what process does this describe?

A

Generalization

208
Q

Assuming that all Asians are good at math

A

Stereotyping

209
Q

Assuming that all teenagers are moody and rebellious.

A

Stereotype

210
Q

Believing that women are more emotional than men, and therefore less logical.

A

Stereotype

211
Q

Labeling individuals with mental health conditions as dangerous or unpredictable.

A

Stereotype

212
Q

Believing that people who are introverted are socially awkward.

A

Stereotype

213
Q

Assuming that people who are overweight are lazy or lack self-control.

A

Stereotype

214
Q

Believing that individuals with tattoos or piercings are unprofessional or rebellious.

A

Stereotype

215
Q

Assuming older adults as being technophobic or resistant to change

A

Stereotype

216
Q

Assuming that all people from a particular ethnicity or culture share similar traits or behaviors.

A

Stereotyping

217
Q

older adults tend to be less adaptable or slower in cognitive tasks therefor 78yr old mrs. green may not be able to use an iphone well

A

Generalization

218
Q

Teenagers tend to be more impulsive or rebellious, therefor 15yr old boys may be at more likely to do risky activities

A

Generalization

219
Q

Mexicans tend to have larger families, I wonder if maria has a large family?

A

Generalization

220
Q

A physician has commonly seen women complain loudly when in pain, and then has a female patient that does not complain loudly as a result he does not re-examine her this is described as

A

generalization

221
Q

Dopamine:

Elevated HVA (Homovanillic acid) may indicate what condition?

A

Schizophrenia and psychosis

222
Q

Dopamine:

Decreased levels of HVA (Homovanillic acid) may indicate which conditions?

A

Parkinson’s
Depression
Antipsychotic agents

223
Q

Norepinephrine:

Elevated VMA (Vanillylmandelic acid) can lead to what conditions

A

Adrenal medulla tumor (phenochromocytoma)

224
Q

Norepinephrine:

Low MHPG (3-Methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol) indicates which conditons

A

severe depression & attempts at suicide

225
Q

Serotonin:

Low 5HIAA (5 Hydroxyindolacetic acid) suggests which conditions

A
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Bulimia
  • Severe depression
  • Attempted suicide
  • Aggressiveness & violence
  • Impulsiveness & Tourette’s
226
Q

Norepinephrine has a role in regulating what ?

A

Mood, anxiety, arousal, learning, & memory

227
Q

What converts dopamine into norepinephrine in the ______ ?

A

Dopamine b-hydroxylase converts dopamine into norepinephrine in the noradrenergic neurons within the locus coeruleus

228
Q

A patient skips therapy appointments after deep
discomfort from dealing with his past.

A

Acting out

229
Q

Describe acting out

A

When we subconsciously cope with a stressor or conflict by using actions instead of reflecting on our feelings

230
Q

A patient with cancer plans a full-time work schedule despite being warned of significant fatigue during chemotherapy.

A

Denial

231
Q

Describe denial

A

When we avoid/don’t accept the awareness of a painful reality

232
Q

person or object (vs projection).
After being reprimanded by her principal, a frustrated teacher returns home and criticizes her wife’s cooking instead of confronting the
principal directly.

A

Displacement

233
Q

Describe displacement

A

When we redirect our emotions/impulses to another person/object

234
Q

A survivor of sexual abuse sees the abuser and suddenly becomes numb and detached.

A

Dissociation

235
Q

Describe dissociation

A

When there is a temporary but significant change in our personality, memory, or behavior to avoid emotional stress.
The patient probably has an incomplete or no memory of the trauma

236
Q

A surgeon throws a tantrum in the operating room because the last case ran very late.

A

Fixation

237
Q

Describe fixation

A

When we stay stuck at a more childish level of development

238
Q

Describe idealization

A

When we express extremely positive emotions/thoughts to ourselves/others and ignoring our negative thoughts

239
Q

patient boasts about his physician and his accomplishments while ignoring any flaws.

A

Idealization

240
Q

A resident starts putting her stethoscope in her pocket like her favorite attending, instead of
wearing it around her neck like before

A

Identification

241
Q

Describe identification

A

An unconscious assumption about the characteristics, qualities, or traits of another person or group

242
Q

A patient diagnosed with cancer discusses the pathophysiology of the disease

A

Intellectualization

243
Q

Describe intellectualization

A

When we use facts and logic to emotionally distance ourselves from stressful events

244
Q

Describing murder in graphic detail with no emotional response.

A

Isolation (affect)

245
Q

Describe Isolation (affect)

A

When we separate our feelings from ideas & events

246
Q

A disgruntled employee is repeatedly late to work, but won’t admit it is a way to get back at the manager.

A

Passive aggression

247
Q

Describe Passive aggression

A

When we demonstrate hostility in a non-confrontational way aka indirect opposition

248
Q

A man who wants to cheat on his wife accuses his wife of being unfaithful.

A

Projection

249
Q

Describe projection

A

When we attribute an unacceptable internal impulse to an another person/object (external source)

250
Q

An employee who was recently fired claims that the job was not important anyway.

A

Rationalization

251
Q

Describe rationalization

A

When we use a plausible explanation for things that happened for other reasons usually to avoid self-blame

252
Q

A stepfather treats a child he resents with excessive nurturing and overprotection

A

Reaction formation

253
Q

Describe Reaction formation

A

When we replace our actual feelings with actions that represent the opposite

254
Q

A previously toilet-trained child begins
bedwetting again following the birth of a
sibling.

A

Regression

255
Q

Describe regression

A

When we go back to an earlier psychosexual stage when exposed to a stressor

256
Q

A 20-year-old does not remember going to counseling during his parents’ divorce 10 years earlier.

A

Repression

257
Q

Describe repression

A

When our brains involuntarily withhold/suppress a memory from our awareness

258
Q

A patient says that all the nurses are cold and insensitive, but the physicians are warm and friendly

A

Splitting

259
Q

Describe splitting

A

Believing that people are either all good or all bad

260
Q

Manic episode “DIG FAST” marked by persistently elevated mood for over a week

A

Distractibility
Impulsivity/Indiscretion
Grandiosity
Flight of ideas
Agitation
Talkativeness

261
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Hallucinations
Delusions
Disorganized speech
Bizarre behavior

262
Q

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A
  • Flat/blunted affect
  • Apathy
  • Anhedonia
  • Alogia
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Behavioural (6 decks)

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