Simulation Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

During a craniotomy, the patients blood pressure increases from 120/80 to 240/150. Which of the following would happen?

A

Cerebral vessels would constrict and cerebral blood flow would increase

In response to an increased MAP, cerebral vessels constrict. Between MAPs of 60 and 140 this mechanism is able to keep CBF constant but outside of this range CBF becomes pressure dependent. This patient’s MAP rose to 180, therefore CBF would increase despite compensatory mechanisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

All of the following local anesthetics exert a vasodilating effect except for

A

Ropivacaine

All local anesthetics cause vasodilation except for cocaine, lidocaine, and ropivacaine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A patient has experienced a high spinal and exhibits hypotension, bradycardia, and weakened respirations. Which intervention would be most appropriate to help prevent further cephalad spread of the local anesthetic?

A

Flex the head at the neck

Total spinal anesthesia occurs when the local anesthetic spreads throughout the subarachnoid space high enough to block sympathetic outflow and produce hypotension, bradycardia, and even cardiac arrest. Blocks as high as the C3-C5 levels will impair respiration and the patient will likely need prompt ventilatory support. To prevent further cephalad spread of the anesthetic, do not place the patient in reverse Trendelenburg as this will worsen hypotension. Instead, flex the patient’s head at the neck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following ECG changes is an indication of subendocardial ischemia?

A

ST depression

Depression of the ST segment is typically associated with subendocardial ischemia. ST segment elevation is typically associated with transmural ischemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following would best exemplify a diagnosis of hypertensive emergency?

A

A parturient with a blood pressure of 179/110 an no other symptoms

Hypertensive emergency is defined as hypertension with evidence of end-organ damage such as myocardial ischemia, dissecting aortic aneurysm, renal insufficiency, pulmonary edema, encephalopathy, eclampsia, or intracerebral hemorrhage. Hypertension without signs of end-organ damage is termed ‘hypertensive urgency’. These patients often present with hypertension and symptoms such as headache, epistaxis, or anxiety. The exception to the rule is parturients. A parturient with a diastolic blood pressure greater than 109 mmHg is defined as being in a state of hypertensive emergency even if no other symptoms are present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A poorly-controlled hyperthyroid patient is undergoing emergency surgery for an appendectomy. At what point would the patient be most likely to experience a thyrotoxic crisis?

A

12 hours postop

Patients can experience thyrotoxic crisis at any point during an anesthetic, but it is most likely to occur within 6 to 18 hours postoperatively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following statements regarding tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy is true?

A

Adenoidectomy is associated with minimal pain

Although tonsillectomy is associated with severe pain, adenoidectomy is associated with minimal pain. Up to 65% of patients undergoing tonsillectomy experience postoperative vomiting. LMA’s were first described for use in tonsillectomy in 1990 and are especially useful for preventing exposure of the lower airway to blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most important action to take after the surgeon has placed a mouth gag in a patient undergoing tonsillectomy?

A

It is important to verify the placement of the ETT immediately after placement of the mouth gag. The mouth gag can dislodge, kink, or obstruct the ETT, as evidenced by a change in chest movement, breath sounds, and PIP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following classes of oral hypoglycemic agents increase insulin secretion?

A

sylfonylureas

Sulfonylureas increase insulin secretion by beta cells, thiazolinediones and metformin (a biguanide) enhance tissue sensitivity to insulin, and alpha-glucosidase inhibitors decrease postprandial glucose absorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with chronic renal failure?

A

Hyperlipidemia

Renal failure is associated with a wide range of conditions including metabolic acidosis, anemia, uremic coagulopathy, peripheral neuropathy, encephalopathy, osteodystrophy, congestive heart failure, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, hypocalcemia, and elevated potassium, magnesium, and phosphate levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The most important factor determining the rate of diffusion of a drug across a membrane is

A

Conc gradient

According to the Fick equation, the most important factor in determining the rate of diffusion of a drug across a membrane is the concentration gradient of the drug. Membrane thickness is an important factor in the rate of diffusion as is molecular weight, which affects the diffusion coefficient (p) in the equation, but neither of these variables are as important as the concentration gradient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following statements regarding COX-2 inhibitors is false?

A

COX-2 inhibitors decrease platelet aggregation

COX-1 receptor inhibition by NSAIDs is responsible for the gastric irritation, decrease in renal blood flow, and platelet inhibition associated with nonselective NSAIDs. COX-2 receptor inhibition is responsible for the decrease in pain and inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What sensory level block would be appropriate for performing a cesarean section under epidural anesthesia?

A

A T4 level is sufficient for performing a cesarean section under epidural anesthesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During induction for a parathyroidectomy for relief of hyperparathyroidism, which ECG alteration would you most expect to see?

A

long Pr then short QT
Hyperparathyroidism results in hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia which can distort the ECG resulting in a shortened QT Interval and prolonged PR interval. It is also associated with hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most common causative agent of acute epiglottitis is

A

The most common causative agent in epiglottitis is Haemophilus influenza type B. The condition typically affects children ages 2-6 years. It can rapidly progress from sore throat to dysphagia to complete airway obstruction. The incidence of epiglottitis has increasingly become a disease of adulthood because of the widespread use of the Haemophilus influenza vaccines in children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding carcinoid syndrome?

A

Carcinoid syndrome consists of a wide array of symptoms such as hypotension, flushing, and bronchospasm due to the release of serotonin, histamine, and kallikrein from enterochromaffin tumors. The condition can be confirmed by detection of urinary 5-hydroindoleacetic acid. Administration of catecholamines can increase hormone release from the tumor, so hypotension should be treated with volume expansion. Elevated serotonin levels can result in right-sided heart failure. The lungs metabolize the compounds, thus sparing the left side of the heart.

17
Q

What is the most significant anesthetic concern for the patient with Huntington’s chorea?

A

Huntington’s chorea is characterized by choreiform movements, athetosis, and dystonia resulting from genetically-linked neuronal atrophy. As the disease progresses, weakness of the pharyngeal muscles predisposes the patient to aspiration pneumonia, a common cause of death. Drugs that reduce dopaminergic transmission such as thioxanthines, butyrophenones, and phenothiazines reduce the severity of chorea. Decreased plasma cholinesterase may prolong the effect of succinylcholine. There are no specific contraindications to the use of any inhaled or intravenous anesthetics with Huntington’s chorea.

18
Q

Click the Exhibit button at the top of the screen. A normal cardiac pressure-volume loop is displayed in the exhibit and shaded in pink. What pathology does the black and white loop represent?

shift down and left

A

Mitral stenosis is a mechanical obstruction to left ventricular diastolic filling due to a decrease in the size of the mitral valve orifice. It is most commonly caused by rheumatic heart disease, but may also result from carcinoid syndrome, left atrial myxoma, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, or thrombus formation. It results in an increase in left atrial volume and pressure. An increase in left atrial pressure usually maintains stroke volume, but it may decrease with tachycardia or loss of atrial contraction.

19
Q

Which of the following medications would you expect a patient with Alzheimer’s disease to be taking to slow the rate of cognitive deterioration?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

Patients with Alzheimer’s disease are often prescribed cholinesterase inhibitors such as tacrine, donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine to slow the progression of cognitive deterioration. Anticholinesterase drugs are utilized to reverse nondepolarizing muscle relaxant blockade. Anticholinergics and antimuscarinics refer to the same class of drugs that block the effects of acetylcholine. Anticholinesterase inhibitor is not a true class of drugs and is only presented as a distractor due to its similarity to acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (another term for cholinesterase inhibitor).

20
Q

Factors known to inhibit hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction include: (select four)

A

Factors that inhibit hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction include: inhalation anesthetics, very high or very low pulmonary artery pressures, hypocapnia, beta-adrenergic agonists, vasodilators such as nitroglycerin and nitroprusside, pulmonary infection, high or very low mixed venous PO2, and calcium channel blockers.

21
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is associated with hypothyroidism?

A

Hyponatremia and impaired free water excretion are common findings in hypothyroidism.

22
Q

Hyperthermia is defined as a core patient temperature above

A

38 degrees Celsius

Hyperthermia is defined as anything exceeding 38 degrees Celsius (100.4 degrees Fahrenheit).

23
Q

What is the most effective anesthetic for preventing autonomic hyperreflexia and providing pain relief in a laboring parturient?

A

Epidural anesthesia has been reported to be effective in preventing autonomic hyperreflexia from occurring due to uterine contractions, but, because epidurals may spare the sacral segments, spinal anesthesia is more protective.

24
Q

An extreme form of thyroid enlargement that results from simple goiter in which the thyroid enlargement is severe enough to produce dysphagia and inspiratory stridor is referred to as

A

Toxic multinodular goiter is an extreme form of thyroid enlargement that results from simple goiter in which the thyroid enlargement is severe enough to produce dysphagia and inspiratory stridor.

25
Q

Myxedema coma most commonly appears in

A

Myxedema coma most commonly occurs in elderly females with a longstanding history of hypothyroidism.

26
Q

The only condition that epidural steroids have proven efficacious in speeding healing is

A

Although they are used in treating a variety of disorders such as spondylolisthesis, spinal stenosis, vertebral fractures, and postlaminectomy syndrome, the only condition that epidural steroids have proven efficacy in treating is leg pain, also known as sciatica in patients with disc herniation and radicular pain.