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CT Registry > Simulated Examination Two > Flashcards

Simulated Examination Two Flashcards

1
Q

As related to the cardiac cycle, the term ___ refers to the relaxation of heart muscle.

A. Diastole
B. Equilibrium
C. Systole
D. A-fib

A

A. Diastole

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2
Q

Which of the following may be considered one of the high-osmolar contrast media (HOCM)?
1. Iothalamate meglumine
2. Diatrizoate sodium
3. Iohexol

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 1 and 2 only

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3
Q

Which of the following medications may be administered to a patient who is having a sever anaphylactoid reaction to iodinated contrast material?
1. Epinephrine
2. Atropine
3. Diphenhydramine

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

C. 1 and 3 only

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4
Q

The escape of contrast material from a needle or blood vessel into the subcutaneous tissues is called:

A. Infusion
B. Extraversion
C. Influxation
D. Extravasation

A

D. Extravasation

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5
Q

Thorough explanation of the CT procedure and proper communication with the patient are vital in ensuring that:
1. Breathing instructions are properly followed
2. Motion artifact does not occur
3. Patient anxiety is kept at a minimum

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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6
Q

Risk factors for contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN) include:
1. Pheochromocytoma
2. Allergy to shellfish
3. Dehydration

A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 3 only

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7
Q

Normal range for oxygen (O2) saturation is:

A. 20%-25%
B. 50%-60%
C. 80%-85%
D. 95%-100%

A

D. 95%-100%

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8
Q

Which of the following laboratory measurements can be used to evaluate the renal function of a patient?
1. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
2. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
3. Creatine

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 1 and 3 only

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9
Q

Which of the following would be best suited for intravenous injection of contrast material with a power injector?

A. Butterfly needle
B. Central venous line
C. 23-guage spinal needle
D. Angiocatheter

A

D. Angiocatheter

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10
Q

Before the intravenous injection of iodinated contrast material, patients should be questioned regarding their:
1. Renal function
2. Allergic history
3. Cardiac history

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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11
Q

A(n) _____ infection is one that a patient acquires during a stay in a health care institution.

A. Blood-borne
B. Nosocomial
C. Iatrogenic
D. Staphylococcal

A

B. Nosocomial

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12
Q

Which of the following sets of values would be considered normal levels for creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN), respectively?

A. 3.1 mg/dL; 1.2 mg/dL
B. 1.2 mg/dL; 14 mg/dL
C. 0.7 mg/dL; 39 mg/dL
D. 5.2 mg/dL; 12 mg/dL

A

B. 1.2 mg/dL; 14 mg/dL

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13
Q

Which of the following sizes of butterfly needles allows for the most rapid administration of iodinated intravenous contrast media?

A. 19 gauge
B. 21 gauge
C. 23 gauge
D. 25 gauge

A

A. 19 gauge

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14
Q

The choice between ionic and nonionic contrast media should be based on:
1. The allergic history of the patient
2. The cost of the contrast material
3. The age and physical condition of the patient

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 1 and 3 only

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15
Q

Which of the following is an example of a mild reaction to iodinated intravenous contrast media?

A. Dyspnea
B. Shock
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Vomiting

A

D. Vomiting

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16
Q

During which of the following CT procedures is the patient required to give informed consent?

A. Noncontrast CT of the chest
B. Renal stone survey
C. 3-D reconstruction of the hip
D. Abdomen scan after IV contrast agent administration

A

D. Abdomen scan after IV contrast agent administration

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17
Q

The international normalized ratio (INR) is calculated to standardize which of the following laboratory values?

A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A

A. Prothrombin time (PT)

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18
Q

Which of the following infection control techniques is requited at the site of an intravenous injection of iodinated contrast media?

A. Contact isolation
B. Surgical asepsis
C. Medical asepsis
D. Enteric precautions

A

B. Surgical asepsis

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19
Q

Which of the following is a common site for the intravenous injection of iodinated contrast media?
1. Cephalic vein
2. Antecubital vein
3. Basilic vein

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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20
Q

An intrathecal injection before a CT examination of the lumbar spine administers iodinated contrast material directly into the:

A. Subarachnoid space
B. Dura mater
C. Vertebral foramen
D. Subdural space

A

A. Subarachnoid space

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21
Q

The range of serum iodine concentration for adequate tissue opacification during contrast-enhanced CT examinations is:

A. 2-8 mg/mL
B. 12-20 mg/mL
C. 30-42 mg/mL
D. 75-105 mg/mL

A

A. 2-8 mg/mL

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22
Q

Components of the aseptic technique utilized for the IV administration of contrast agents include:
1. Through hand washing between patients
2. Wearing of disposable gloves
3. Establishment of a sterile field around the site

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 and 2 only

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23
Q

During data acquisition, a CT system may continuously adject the mA relative to the measured image noise for a method of dose reduction referred to as:

A. Iterative reconstruction
B. Automatic tube current modulation
C. Attenuation correction
D. Nyquist sampling

A

B. Automatic tube current modulation

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24
Q

The amount of x-ray energy absorbed in a quantity of air is termed:

A. Dose profile
B. Kerma
C. Becquerel
D. Multiple scan average dose (MSAD)

A

B. Kerma

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25
Q

Which of the following technical changes would serve to decrease patient radiation dose during a CT examination?

A. Increased in matrix size
B. Change from soft tissue to bone algorithm
C. Decrease of tube rotation from 360 to 180 degrees
D. Decrease in display field of view (DFOV)

A

C. Decrease of the tube rotation from 360 to 180 degrees

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26
Q

In an effort to reduce patient radiation dose, the technical factors of the applied CT protocol should be optimized on the basis of:

A. Age
B. Sex
C. Size and weight
D. Physical condition

A

C. Size and weight

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27
Q

Which of the following is considered in the calculation of the multiple scan average dose (MSAD) for an axial (step-and-shoot) CT examination?

A. Bed index
B. Gantry rotation time
C. mA setting
D. Pitch

A

A. Bed index

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28
Q

During CT examinations, the patient’s body should be shielded above and below because of:

A. The rotational nature of the x-ray tube
B. Extremely high kVp techniques
C. Lack of filtration of the CT beam
D. Reduced collimation of the CT beam

A

A. The rotational nature of the x-ray tube

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29
Q

CTDI w is a weighted index that approximates radiation dose on the basis of the variations that occur across the field of view because of:
1. Beam hardening
2. Detector configuration
3. Ptich

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 only

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30
Q

The embryo or fetus is most sensitive to ionizing radiation during which portion of gestation?

A. First trimester
B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester
D. The fetus is equally radiosensitive during all trimesters

A

A. First trimester

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31
Q

To uniformly expose the entire detector array in a multidetector CT (MDCT) system, the primary beam must be expanded beyond the physical extent of the array in a process known as:

A. Interpolation
B. Overbeaming
C. Photon flux
D. Back-projection

A

B. Overbeaming

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32
Q

Automatic tube current modulation (ATCM) is employed by a multidetector CT (MDCT) system for the purpose of:

A. Z-axis interpolation
B. Improving 3-D and multiplanar reformation (MPR) image quality
C. Reducing patient radiation dose
D. Freezing heart motion during cardiac CT

A

C. Reducing patient radiation dose

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33
Q

In an effort to avoid excessive radiation exposure to the patient, a CT system may be equipped with a(n) ____ system that automatically notifies the technologist about improper technical factors before data acquisition.

A. Dose alert
B. Electrocardiogram (ECG) trigger
C. Multiple scan average dose (MSAD)
D. Interpolation

A

A. Dose alert

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34
Q

The distance between the x-ray source (CT tube) and the center of the gantry may be referred to as the:

A. Focus-to-detector distance
B. Focus-to-isocenter distance
C. Source-to-object distance
D. Source-to-image receptor distance

A

B. Focus-to-isocenter distance

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35
Q

The interaction between radiation and matter that results in the complete attenuation of an x-ray photon due to ionization of a target atom’s inner shell electron is termed:

A. Photodisintegration
B. Compton scatter
C. Bremsstrahlung
D. Photoelectric effect

A

D. Photoelectric effect

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36
Q

The inherent filtration of the x-ray tube used in a CT system typically amounts to an equivalent thickness of:

A. 0.5mm Al
B. 3.0 mm Al
C. 10.0 mm Al
D. 15.0 mm Al

A

B. 3.0 mm Al

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37
Q

Adaptive collimation may be utilized to reduce the unnecessary radiation exposure at the start and end of a helical acquisition that may be referred to as:

A. Overbeaming
B. Interpolation
C. Overranging
D. Binning

A

C. Overranging

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38
Q

Which of the following pitch settings would result in the largest radiation dose to the patient?

A. 1.0
B. 1.2
C. 1.7
D. 2.0

A

A. 1.0

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39
Q

Optimization of CT techniques and procedures for the purpose of radiation dose reduction for patients and personnel should include:
1. Restricting the acquired acquisition volume to the area of clinical interest
2. Controlling access to the CT imaging room to essential personnel only
3. Adjusting technical parameters (e.g., mA, kVp) to the size of the patient

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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40
Q

When employing bismuth shielding, which of the following techniques will reduce streaking artifact while still offering radiation dose savings to sensitive tissues?

A. Placing a foam spacer between the patient surface and the bismuth shield.
B. Placing the bismuth shielding outside of the scan acquisition range.
C. Placing the bismuth shielding after the acquisition of the localizer image.
D. Placing a foam spacer on top of the bismuth shield to intercept the incoming beam.

A

A. Placing a foam spacer between the patient surface and the bismuth shield.

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41
Q

The weighted computed tomography dose index (CTDI w) can be converted into a volumetric CT dose index (CTDI vol) that is useful for estimating patient dose during helical acquisition by dividing the CTDI w by the scan’s:

A. Milliamperage (mA)
B. Pitch
C. Multiple scan average dose (MSAD)
D. Section width

A

B. Pitch

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42
Q

During the use of CT fluoroscopy for guided interventional procedures, which of the following technical considerations may be used to reduce occupational radiation exposure?
1. Increased kVp
2. Lead shielding
3. Use of a needle holder

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

A

D. 2 and 3 only

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43
Q

Use Fig. 7.1

Number 4 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Spleen
B. Duodenum
C. Left adrenal gland
D. Large colon

A

D. Large colon

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44
Q

Use Fig. 7.1

Number 2 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Inferior vena cava
B. Common bile duct
C. Portal vein
D. Superior mesenteric vein

A

C. Portal vein

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45
Q

Use Fig. 7.1

The abdominal space indicated by number 7 in the figure is commonly referred to as:

A. Morison pouch
B. Cul-de-sac
C. Splenorenal recess
D. Subphrenic space

A

A. Morison pouch

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46
Q

Use Fig. 7.1

Number 5 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Superior mesenteric vein
B. Superior mesenteric artery
C. Gastric artery
D. Right renal vein

A

B. Superior mesenteric artery

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47
Q

Use Fig. 7.1

Number 3 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Duodenum
B. Splenic vein
C. Jejunum
D. Pancreas

A

D. Pancreas

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48
Q

Abnormalities of the middle and inner ear may be best demonstrated with CT utilizing ______ sections.

A. 1- to 2- mm
B. 3- to 4- mm
C. 5- mm
D. 10- mm

A

A. 1- to 2- mm

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49
Q

The Lisfranc joint is the articulation between the:

A. Tarsals and metatarsals
B. Tarsals and lower leg
C. Metatarsals and phalanges
D. Proximal and middle phalanges

A

A. Tarsals and metatarsals

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50
Q

The volume and density of calcium measured in the coronary arteries on multidetector CT (MDCT) examination are quantified with use of a value called the:

A. Euler constant
B. Hounsfield number
C. Agatston score
D. Lambert-Beer value

A

C. Agatston score

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51
Q

Which of the following is/are (a) component(s) of the adnexal area of the uterus?
1. Ovaries
2. Fallopian tubes
3. Vagina

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

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52
Q

Which of the following contrast media may be utilized during the CT evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract?
1. Diatrizoate meglumine (Gastrografin)
2. Effervescent agents
3. Iopamidol (Isovue)

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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53
Q

The liver has a dual blood supply and receives 75% of its blood from the:

A. Hepatic artery
B. Superior mesenteric artery
C. Portal vein
D. Superior mesenteric vein

A

C. Portal vein

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54
Q

Use Fig. 7.2

Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Superior rectus muscle
B. Lateral rectus muscle
C. Medial rectus muscle
D. Inferior rectus muscle

A

A. Superior rectus muscle

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55
Q

Use Fig. 7.2

Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Medial rectus muscle
B. Optic nerve
C. Lateral rectus muscle
D. Superior oblique muscle

A

B. Optic nerve

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56
Q

Use Fig. 7.2

Which of the following best describes the type of image featured in the figure?

A. Direct coronal acquisition
B. Sagittal maximum intensity projection (MIP)
C. Coronal multiplanar reformation (MPR)
D. Oblique sagittal MPR

A

D. Oblique sagittal MPR

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57
Q

Use Fig. 7.2

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Inferior rectus muscle
B. Optic chiasm
C. Interior oblique muscle
D. Levator palpebrae superioris

A

C. Interior oblique muscle

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58
Q

Use Fig. 7.3

Number 6 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Descending aorta
B. Azygos vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Brachiocephalic artery

A

B. Azygos vein

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59
Q

Use Fig. 7.3

Number 4 on the figure corresponds to which of the following muscles?

A. Pectoralis major
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Intercostal
D. Serratus posterior superior

A

B. Pectoralis minor

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60
Q

Use Fig. 7.3

Which of the following window settings was used to display the image in the figure?

A. WL -400, WW 1500
B. WL 0, WW 150
C. WL +50, WW 400
D. WL +275, WW 2500

A

C. WL +50, WW 400

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61
Q

Use Fig. 7.3

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Superior vena cava
B. Ascending aorta
C. Right brachiocephalic vein
D. Right brachiocephalic artery

A

A. Superior vena cava

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62
Q

At what percentage of overlap should CT sections be reconstructed to improve the quality of multiplanar reformation (MPR) images?

A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%

A

C. 50%

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63
Q

A primary responsibility of computed tomography in combined PET-CT is to:
1. Provide recuse anatomic location of tumor activity
2. Reduce patient radiation dose
3. Provide attenuation correction information

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 3 only

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64
Q

The degenerative pathologic process involving the forward slipping of an upper vertebral body over a lower vertebral body is called:

A. Spondylolisthesis
B. Spondylolysis
C. Herniated nucleus pulposus
D. Spinal stenosis

A

A. Spondylolisthesis

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65
Q

Use Fig. 7.4

Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Jejunum
B. Sigmoid colon
C. Ileum
D. Cecum

A

B. Sigmoid colon

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66
Q

Use Fig. 7.4

Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Uterus
B. Cervix
C. Seminal vesicles
D. Vaginal Cuff

A

C. Seminal vesicles

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67
Q

Use Fig. 7.4

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Rectus abdominis muscle
B. External oblique muscle
C. Transverse abdominis muscle
D. Internal oblique muscle

A

A. Rectus abdominis muscle

68
Q

Use Fig. 7.4

Number 4 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Ureteropelvic junction
B. Phlebolith
C. Ureterovesical junction
D. Appendicolith

A

C. Ureterovesical junction

69
Q

Accurate demonstration of _____ would most likely require the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast agent during a CT study of the chest.

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Pneumonia
C. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
D. Pulmonary module

A

C. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

70
Q

A focused, thin-section axial CT acquisition though just the region of the vocal cores should extend:

A. From the external auditory meatus inferiorly to the mandible
B. From the hard palate inferiorly to the hyoid bone
C. From just above the hyoid bond inferiorly though the cricoid cartilage
D. From the cricoid cartilage inferiorly though sternoclavicular joint

A

C. From just above the hyoid bone inferiorly though the cricoid cartilage

71
Q

Use Fig. 7.5

Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Coracoid process
B. Acromion
C. Glenoid process
D. Clavicle

A

C. Glenoid process

72
Q

Use Fig. 7.5

The anatomic plane of the image in the figure can be best described as the:

A. Coronal plane
B. Sagittal plane
C. Axial plane
D. Oblique axial plane

A

A. Coronal plane

73
Q

Use Fig. 7.5

Number 2 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Coracoid process
B. Acromion
C. Glenoid process
D. Clavicle

A

B. Acromion

74
Q

Which of the following contrast agent administration techniques should be used for a general CT survey of the abdomen?
1. 400-600 mL oral contrast agent 45-90 mins before the exam
2. 250 mL oral contrast agent immediately before the exam
3. 700-900 mL contrast agent administered as an enema immediately before the exam

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

75
Q

During CT perfusion studies, the quantity of blood (in mL) that moves through 100 g of tissue each minute is termed the:

A. Mean transit time (MTT)
B. Cerebral blood flow (CBF)
C. Cerebral blood volume (CBV)
D. Percentage washout value (PWV)

A

B. Cerebral blood flow (CBF)

76
Q

Use Fig. 7.6

Which number in the figure corresponds to the trapezius muscle?

A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 5

A

B. 3

77
Q

Use Fig. 7.6

An adequate volume of intravenous contrast agent for the single-slice CT (SSCT) examination of the neck in this figure would be:

A. 25 mL
B. 50 mL
C. 125 mL
D. 225 mL

A

C. 125 mL

78
Q

Use Fig. 7.6

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Common carotid artery
B. External jugular vein
C. Internal jugular vein
D. Brachiocephalic artery

A

A. Common carotid artery

79
Q

Use Fig. 7.6

Number 4 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Erector spinae muscle
B. Rhomboid major muscle
C. Deltoid muscle
D. Levator scapulae muscle

A

D. Levator scapulae muscle

80
Q

The enhancement washout technique for CT characterization of adrenal masses includes:
1. Thin-section precontrast acquisition through the adrenals
2. Arterial phase post contrast acquisition through the adrenals
3. 10 to 15 minute delayed post contrast acquisition through the adrenals

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 3 only

81
Q

Bowel obstruction due to loss of normal contractile motion in an area of intestine is termed:

A. Dyspepsia
B. Intussusception
C. Ileus
D. Adhesion

A

C. Ileus

82
Q

Use Fig. 7.7

Number 5 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Ascending colon
B. Descending colon
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Cecum

A

B. Descending colon

83
Q

Use Fig. 7.7

Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Inferior vena cava
B. Common iliac artery
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Superior mesenteric artery

A

C. Abdominal aorta

84
Q

Use Fig. 7.7

Which of the following reformation techniques best describes the image in the figure?

A. Multiplanar reformation (MPR)
B. Volume-rendered 3-D
C. Maximum intensity projection (MIP)
D. Minimum intensity projection (min-IP)

A

A. Multiplanar reformation (MPR)

85
Q

Use Fig. 7.7

Number 6 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Uterus
B. Rectum
C. Bladder
D. Sigmoid colon

A

C. Bladder

86
Q

The third ventricle of the brain communicates with the fourth ventricle through the:

A. Anterior commissure
B. Septum pellucidum
C. Cerebral aqueduct
D. Fornix

A

C. Cerebral aqueduct

87
Q

Complete CT examinations of the chest for investigation of bronchogenic carcinoma should include sections of the:

A. Mandible through liver
B. Apices to the diaphragm
C. Top of the apices through the liver
D. Clavicles through the adrenals

A

C. Top of the apices through the liver

88
Q

The mediastinum includes which of the following anatomic structures?
1. Superior vena cava
2. Stomach
3. Ascending aorta

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 1 and 3 only

89
Q

The proper scan field of view (SFOV) for a CT of the abdomen of a patient who measures 42 cm is:

A. Head (25 cm)
B. Small (25 cm)
C. Medium (35 cm)
D. Large (48 cm)

A

D. Large (48 cm)

90
Q

The kidneys are located in the retroperitoneum and are bound by a band of fibrous connective tissue called:

A. Cooper ligament
B. Camper fascia
C. Linea alba
D. Gerota’s fascia

A

D. Gerota’s fascia

91
Q

After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the poral venous phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approximately:

A. 15-20 seconds
B. 25-35 seconds
C. 60-70 seconds
D. 120-180 seconds

A

C. 60-70 seconds

92
Q

Use Fig. 7.8

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Splenium of the corpus callosum
B. Internal capsule
C. Body of the corpus callosum
D. Genu of the corpus callosum

A

D. Genu of the corpus callosum

93
Q

Use Fig. 7.8

Number 6 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Falx cerebri
C. Callosal marginal artery
D. Middle cerebral artery

A

B. Falx cerebri

94
Q

Use Fig. 7.8

Which number on the figure corresponds to the internal capsule?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

A

B. 2

95
Q

Use Fig. 7.8

Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Pineal gland
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Fourth ventricle
D. Aqueduct of Sylvius

A

A. Pineal gland

96
Q

The prone position may be used for a postmyelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine in an effort to:

A. Reduce the lordotic curve
B. Decrease patient gonadal radiation dose
C. Reduce metrizamide pooling
D. Increase the lordotic curve

A

C. Reduce metrizamide pooling

97
Q

The bolus duration of any IV contrast agent administration can be calculated as the product of injection flow rate and:

A. Scan time
B. Osmolality
C. Cardiac output
D. Contrast agent volume

A

D. Contrast agent volume

98
Q

Use Fig. 7.9

Number 4 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Spinous process
B. Lamina
C. Transverse process
D. Pedicle

A

B. Lamina

99
Q

Use Fig. 7.9

Which number on the figure corresponds to the pedicle?

A. 1
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3

A

A. 1

100
Q

Use. Fig. 7.9

The intrathecal administration of an iodinated contrast agent in the patient in the figure would allow for greater visualization of the:
1. Spinal cord
2. Nerve roots
3. Anulus fibrosis

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

101
Q

Use Fig. 7.9

Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Pedicle
B. Transverse process
C. Lamina
D. Spinous process

A

D. Spinous process

102
Q

After initiation of rapid bolus administration of iodinated contrast material, the pancreatic phase of contrast enhancement occurs at approximately:

A. 15-25 seconds
B. 35-45 seconds
C. 60-70 seconds
D. 120-180 seconds

A

B. 35-45 seconds

103
Q

Following the IV administration of iodinated contrast media, a tumor that exhibits a greater density than the surrounding parenchyma is characterized as:

A. Hypervascular
B. Isovasular
C. Hypovascular
D. Cavernous

A

A. Hypervascular

104
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of the “triple rule-out” multidetector CT (MDCT) protocol for patients complaining of chest pain?

A. Computed tomography angiogram (CTA) of the pulmonary arteries
B. Prone high-resolution CT (HRCT) of the lungs
C. CTA of the aorta
D. Coronary CTA

A

B. Prone high-resolution CT (HRCT) of the lung

105
Q

During contrast-enhanced CT examinations of the chest, streaking artifact may obscure portions of the superior mediastinum because of dense concentrations of iodine in the:

A. Descending aorta
B. Superior vena cava
C. Ascending aorta
D. Pulmonary arteries

A

B. Superior vena cava

106
Q

Use Fig. 7.10

Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Esophagus
B. Left pulmonary vein
C. Trachea
D. Left primary bronchus

A

D. Left primary bronchus

107
Q

Use Fig. 7.10

The image in the figure was most likely acquired during which of the following phases of contrast enhancement?

A. Precontrast
B. Arterial phase
C. Venous phase
D. Delay phase

A

B. Arterial phase

108
Q

Use Fig. 7.10

Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Left pulmonary artery
B. Descending aorta
C. Left brachiocephalic artery
D. Left subclavian artery

A

A. Left pulmonary artery

109
Q

Use Fig. 7.10

Number 6 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Right atrium
B. Pulmonary trunk
C. Ascending aorta
D. Descending aorta

A

C. Ascending aorta

110
Q

The average density of a mass within the kidney measures -75 Hounsfield units (HU). The mass is most likely a:

A. Cyst
B. Lipoma
C. Stone
D. Hydrocele

A

B. Lipoma

111
Q

The component of the CT scanner responsible for the mathematical calculations of the image reconstruction process is the:

A. Data acquisition system (DAS)
B. Analog-to-digital converter (ADC)
C. Digital-to-analog converter (DAC)
D. Array processor

A

D. Array processor

112
Q

Filament sizes for modern CT x-ray tubes range between:

A. 0.5 and 1.2 mm
B. 2.0 and 3.0 mm
C. 5.5 to 7.8 mm
D. 25.0 to 31.5 mm

A

A. 0.5 to 1.2 mm

113
Q

Which of the following would serve to increase spatial resolution of a CT examinations using a large focal spot size, 5-mm sections, and a 512^2 matrix?
1. Change to small focal spot size
2. Acquire 2.5-mm sections
3. Reconstruct images in a 320^2 matrix

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

114
Q

A CT image is formed in part by projecting back all of the attenuation values recorded during data acquisition onto a:

A. Pixel
B. Voxel
C. Matrix
D. Reformat

A

C. Matrix

115
Q

The mathematical process that allows multidetector CT (MDCT) images to be reconstructed at any point along the acquired volume is commonly referred to as:

A. Iteration
B. Filtered back-projection
C. Fourier reconstruction
D. Z-filtering

A

D. Z-filtering

116
Q

Fourth-generation CT scanners use a _____ tube-detector configuration.

A. Rotate translate
B. Electron beam stationary
C. Rotate stationary
D. Rotate rotate

A

C. Rotate stationary

117
Q

Which of the following is considered an equipment-induced CT image artifact?

A. Step artifact
B. Metallic artifact
C. Cupping artifact
D. Aliasing artifact

A

D. Aliasing artifact

118
Q

The measurement of CT system performance through quality testing procedures and evaluation of the test results in referred to as:

A. Calibration
B. Uniformity
C. Quality assurance
D. Linearity

A

C. Quality assurance

119
Q

During CT x-ray exposure, the product of the selected mA setting and the scan time is called the:

A. Effective mAs
B. Peak mAs
C. Absorbed mAs
D. Constant mAs

A

D. Constant mAs

120
Q

Which of the following mathematical reconstruction methods may be used by a CT system to decrease image noise and offer patient dose savings?

A. Convolution
B. Iterative reconstruction
C. Fourier transform
D. Back-projection

A

B. Iterative reconstruction

121
Q

What matrix size was used to reconstruct an image with a display field of view (DFOV) of 25 cm and a pixel area 0.25 mm^2?

A. 80 x 80 pixels
B. 256 x 256 pixels
C. 320 x 320 pixels
D. 512 x 512 pixels

A

D. 512 x 512 pixels

122
Q

When on is viewing a minimum intensity projection (min-IP) image, each pixel represents:

A. The maximum attenuation occurring within the voxel
B. The average attenuation occurring within the voxel
C. The minimum attenuation occurring within the voxel
D. All attenuation occurring within the voxel above a set threshold value

A

C. The minimum attenuation occurring within the voxel

123
Q

Which of the following statements regarding predetecor collimation of the CT x-ray beam is true?

A. Predetector collimation reduces patient radiation dose.
B. Predetector collimation reduces the production of scatter radiation.
C. Predetector collimation determines the scan field of view (SFOV).
D. Predetector collimation removes scatter radiation before it reaches the detectors.

A

D. Predetector collimation removes scatter radiation before it reaches the detectors.

124
Q

What is the Lambert-Berr law, which describes the relationship between matter and attenuation?

A

I = I0e^ux

125
Q

Use Fig. 7.11

The graph in the figure is used to evaluate which of the following components of CT image quality?

A. In-plane spatial resolution
B. Longitudinal spatial resolution
C. Temporal resolution
D. Contrast resolution

A

B. Longitudinal spatial resolution

126
Q

Use Fig. 7.11

On the basis of the information provided on the graph in the figure, which of the following statements is true?

A. The limiting resolution is section A is less than that in section B
B. The signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) of section A is greater than that of section B
C. The effective width of section B is greater than section A
D. Section B is isotropic in dimension

A

C. The effective width of section B is greater than section A

127
Q

Which of the following would be considered the best method to reduce respiratory motion on the CT image?

A. Good patient-technologist communication
B. Reduced scan time
C. Immobilization devices
D. Glucagon administration

A

A. Good patient-technologist communication

128
Q

Power output for a modern multidetector CT (MDCT) x-ray tube has an approximate range of:

A. 3-5 kilowatts (kW)
B. 15-20 kilowatts (kW)
C. 40-48 kilowatts (kW)
D. 60-100 kilowatts (kW)

A

D. 60-100 kilowatts (kW)

129
Q

The mathematical manipulations required during the reconstruction of a CT image are accomplished using a(n):
1. Algorithm
2. Kernel
3. Mathematical filter function

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

130
Q

When an operator reduces the scan field of view for a particular body part, which of the following technical changes occurs?

A. The displayed image appears larger
B. Spatial resolution increases
C. A smaller number of detectors are activated
D. The displayed image appears smaller

A

C. A smaller number of detectors are activated

131
Q

An average CT number value for blood is:

A. -20 HU
B. +10 HU
C. +45 HU
D. +100 HU

A

C. +45 HU

132
Q

The electronic combination of signals from adjacent detectors to form a CT image is called:

A. Binning
B. Interpolation
C. Z-filtering
D. Partial volume averaging

A

A. Binning

133
Q

Which of the following technical adjustments may be employed to improve the temporal resolution of a multidetector CT (MDCT) system?
1. Decrease in section width
2. Image segmentation
3. Physiologic gating

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

A

D. 2 and 3 only

134
Q

The streaking artifact that occurs in the area of the posterior fossa during a CT examination of the brain may be referred to as:

A. Cupping
B. The “boiled egg” artifact
C. Stairstep
D. The Hounsfield bar

A

D. The Hounsfield bar

135
Q

The relative accuracy between calculated CT numbers and their respective linear attenuation coefficients is referred to as:

A. Linearity
B. Calibration
C. Uniformity
D. Contrast resolution

A

A. Linearity

136
Q

To maintain security and patient privacy when medical images are transmitted across a network, the images may be coded in a form decipherable only by software at the destination location. This process is referred to as:

A. Write-once, read-many (WORM)
B. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
C. Teleradiology
D. Encryption

A

D. Encryption

137
Q

Which of the following 3-D imaging techniques is utilized to provide “fly-through” images during CT colonography?

A. Orthographic volume rendering
B. Shaded surface display (SSD)
C. Perspective volume rendering
D. Minimum intensity projection (min-IP)

A

C. Perspective volume rendering

138
Q

Which of the following sets of technical factors would yield an isotropic data set when a multidetector CT (MDCT) image is reconstructed using a 512^2 matrix?

A. 5.0 mm sections, 17 cm DFOV
B. 3.0 mm sections, 24 cm DFOV
C. 1.25 mm sections, 48 cm DFOV
D. 0.625 mm sections, 32 cm DFOV

A

D. 0.625 mm sections, 32 cm DFOV

139
Q

Which of the following is not commonly used as a CT scintillation detector material?

A. Ceramic rare earth
B. Silver halide
C. Bismuth germinate
D. Cadmium tungstate

A

B. Silver halide

140
Q

The mathematical technique that involves the estimation of an unknown value from values on either side of it is known as:

A. Filtering
B. Interpolation
C. Convolution
D. Summation

A

B. Interpolation

141
Q

During which of the following CT examinations is a misregisration artifact most likely to occur?

A. Brain
B. Pelvis
C. Neck
D. Abdomen

A

D. Abdomen

142
Q

In a single-slice CT (SSCT) system, which of the following technical parameters may be adjusted retrospectively?
1. Section width
2. Section increment
3. Reconstruction algorithm

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 2 and 3 only

143
Q

Bow-tie filters are employed in a CT x-ray system to reduce:

A. Image noise
B. Low spatial frequency signal
C. Patient radiation dose
D. High spatial frequency signal

A

C. Patient radiation dose

144
Q

Which of the following technical factors is/are involved in the determination of sections width for multidetector CT (MDCT) images?
1. Scan field of view (SFOV)
2. Beam collimation
3. Detector configuration

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

A

D. 2 and 3 only

145
Q

The fluctuation of CT numbers in an image of uniform, homogeneous material may occur because of:

A. Linearity
B. Noise
C. Aliasing
D. Partial volume effect

A

B. Noise

146
Q

A region of interest (ROI) measurement placed over a portion of a CT image provides which of the following?

A. Distance (mm)
B. Diameter (mm)
C. Linear attenuation coefficient (u)
D. Average CT number (HU)

A

D. Average CT number (HU)

147
Q

A multidetector CT (MDCT) image is reconstructed using a 512^2 matrix and a display field of view (DFOV) of 38 cm. If the detector collimation is set to a section width of 1.25 mm, what is the volume of each voxel?

A. 0.69 mm^3
B. 0.93 mm^3
C. 1.26 mm ^3
D. 1.68 mm^3

A

A. 0.69 mm^3

148
Q

Use Fig. 7.12

Which of the following is the common term for the artifact present on the image in the figure?

A. Aliasing
B. Streaking
C. Edge gradient
D. Tube arching

A

B. Streaking

149
Q

Use Fig. 7.12

Which of the following would be the most common cause of the artifact in the figure?

A. Metallic dental fillings
B. Partial volume averaging
C. Beam hardening
D. Detector malfunction

A

A. Metallic dental fillings

150
Q

Use Fig. 7.12

Reduction of the type of artifact seen in the figure on a coronal multidetector CT (MDCT) view of the sinuses may be accomplished through:

A. An increase in the mA
B. A decrease in the kVp
C. Coronal multiplanar reformation (MPR) images built from an axial acquisition
D. A reduction in the scan field for view (SFOV)

A

C. Coronal multiplanar reformation (MPR) images built from an axial acquisition

151
Q

First-generation CT scanners used a method of data acquisition based on a ______ principle.

A. Multiplanar
B. Rotation- only
C. Translate-rotate
D. Transaxial

A

C. Translate-rotate

152
Q

The maximum beam collimation for a multidetector CT (MDCT) system with a detector array of 64 detectors, each 0.625 mm wide is:

A. 1.25 mm
B. 5.00 mm
C. 10.00 mm
D. 40.00 mm

A

D. 40.00 mm

153
Q

Compared with conventional radiography, computed tomography produces diagnostic images with better:

A. Low-contrast resolution
B. Spatial resolution
C. Minute detail
D. Patient radiation dose reduction

A

A. Low-contrast resolution

154
Q

Writeable CD and DVD media are optical disks that may be described as:

A. Read-only
B. Lossy
C. Write-once, read-many (WORM)
D. Lossless

A

C. Write-once, read-many (WORM)

155
Q

A CT system measures the average linear attenuation coefficient of a voxel of tissue to be 0.008. The linear attenuation coefficient of water for this scanner equals 0.181. The CT number assigned to the pixel representing this voxel of tissue equals:

A. -956 HU
B. -173 HU
C. +44 HU
D. +1044 HU

A

A. -956 HU

156
Q

Which of the following statements comparing the efficiency of scintillation and gas ionization detectors is correct?

A. Both have approximately the same capture efficiency
B. The scintillation detector has a higher capture efficiency
C. Unlike the scintillation detector, the gas ionization detector has a problem with afterglow
D. Gas ionization detectors have a higher conversion efficiency

A

B. The scintillation detector has a higher capture efficiency

157
Q

The data acquisition system (DAS) of a CT scanner is responsible for:
1. Measuring transmitted intensity
2. Converting the transmission data into a digital signal
3. Sending the digital information to the computer for processing

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

158
Q

Which of the following is used to remove image blurring during the back-projection method of CT image reconstruction?
1. Z-filtration
2. Convolution kernel
3. Feldkamp-Davis-Kress (FDK) algorithm

A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

A

A. 2 only

159
Q

During CT x-ray production, the electromagnetic steering of the electron beam from the cathode to two alternating targets is referred to as:

A. Prospective gating
B. Ultrafast CT
C. Twin CAT
D. Flying focal spot

A

D. Flying focal spot

160
Q

Use Fig. 7.13

The region of interest (ROI) measurement in the figure provides an average density of +1.9 HI. This material is most likely:

A. Fat
B. Blood
C. Tumor
D. Water

A

D. Water

161
Q

Use Fig. 7.13

The material within the region of intreat (ROI) measurement in the figure has a linear attenuation coefficient of:

A. 0.0007
B. 0.185
C. 0.206
D. 0.530

A

C. 0.206

162
Q

Use Fig. 7.13

The image in the figure was most likely displayed with the use of which of the following window widths?

A. 70
B. 400
C. 1300
D. 3800

A

B. 400

163
Q

Areas of a CT image that contain minimal changes in tissue density are electronically represented by:

A. Positive CT numbers
B. High spatial frequencies
C. Negative CT numbers
D. Low spatial frequencies

A

D. Low spatial frequencies

164
Q

A CT image is displayed in a window with a level of +200 and a width of 1000. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Pixels with values between +200 HU and -1000 HU will appear white
B. Pixels with values greater than +200 HU will appear black
C. Pixels with values between -300 HU and +700 HU will be assigned shades of gray
D. Pixels with values between -1200 HU and +1200 HU will be assigned shades of gray

A

C. Pixels with values between -300 HU and +700 HU will be assigned shades of gray

165
Q

The binary number system, a byte is a series of ______ bits of information.

A. Two
B. Four
C. Eight
D. Sixteen

A

C. Sixteen

CT Registry (3 decks)

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