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CT Registry > Simulated Examination One > Flashcards

Simulated Examination One Flashcards

1
Q

The average range for activated partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is:

A. 10-12 seconds
B. 17-21 seconds
C. 25-35 seconds
D. 43-55 seconds

A

C. 25-35 seconds

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2
Q

Which of the following is the correct angle of insertion for placing a butterfly needle into a vein for intravenous administration of a contrast agent?

A. 5 degrees
B. 15 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 60 degrees

A

B. 15 degrees

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3
Q

A total volume of 125 mL of an iodinated contrast agent is administered intravenously via automatic injector in 50 seconds. The flow rate for this injection is:

A. 0.75 mL/sec
B. 1.25 mL/sec
C. 1.75 mL/sec
D. 2.5 mL/sec

A

D. 2.5 mL/sec

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4
Q

The condition whereby the patient suffers from a low concentration of oxygen in the blood is called:

A. Hypoxemia
B. Hypotension
C. Hypoxia
D. Hyponatermia

A

A. Hypoxemia

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5
Q

While one is obtaining a thorough history from a patient before the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast material, which of the following topics should be included?
1. Any prior allergic reactions to contrast media
2. Presence of HIV or hepatitis infection
3. History of asthma

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 1 and 3 only

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6
Q

Which of the following factors may affect a patients calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
1. Age
2. Sex
3. Race

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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7
Q

Which of the following intravenous contrast agent administration methods provides the greatest overall plasma iodine concentration?

A. Drip infusion
B. Bolus injection
C. Biphasic technique
D. CT portography

A

B. Bolus injection

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8
Q

A patient in shock may exhibit which of the following symptoms?
1. Tachycardia
2. Rapid, shallow breathing
3. Cyanosis

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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9
Q

The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified as which of the following?

A. Anticholinergic
B. Bronchodilator
C. Antihistamine
D. Corticosteroid

A

D. Corticosteroid

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10
Q

Which of the following is a nonionic contrast material?

A. Iodamide
B. Iothalamate
C. Iohexol
D. Diatrizoate

A

C. Iohexol

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11
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient who is having difficulty breathing?

A. Dyslexia
B. Dyspnea
C. Dysphagia
D. Dysphasia

A

B. Dyspnea

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12
Q

Which of the following describes the situation in which an assumption is made that an unconscious or otherwise physically unable patient consents to medical treatment?

A. Informed consent
B. Witnessed consent
C. Patient proxy
D. Implied consent

A

D. Implied consent

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13
Q

Complete cardiac diastole corresponds to which portion of the cardiac cycle on a electrocardiogram (ECG)?

A. P wave
B. QRS wave
C. Alpha wave
D. T wave

A

D. T wave

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14
Q

During CT arthrography, iodinated contrast media is injected into the:

A. Joint space
B. Intrathecal space
C. Subarachnoid space
D. Venous bloodstream

A

A. Joint space

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15
Q

Which of the following is considered one of the iso-osmolar contrast media (IOCM)?

A. Iodixanol
B. Iopamidol
C. Iohexol
D. Ioversol

A

A. Iodixanol

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16
Q

A common site for the IV administration of iodinated contrast media is the anterior recess of the elbow, otherwise known as the:

A. Brachial fossa
B. Olecranon fossa
C. Retroulnar space
D. Antecubital space

A

D. Antecubital space

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17
Q

The potentially serious decline in renal function after the IV administration of contrast material is called:

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Bronchospasm
C. Contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
D. Uriticaria

A

C. Contrast-induced nephrotoxicity

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18
Q

Advantages of saline flush immediately after the IV administration of iodinated contrast material include:
1. Reduction in required contrast agent dose
2. Reduction in the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
3. Reduction of streak artifact from dense contrast when in the vasculature

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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19
Q

Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination?

A. Sublingual nitroglycerine
B. A ß-adrenergic receptor blocking agent (ß-blocker)
C. Atropine
D. Albuterol

A

A. Sublingual nitroglycerine

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20
Q

A normal range for diastolic blood pressure in an adult is:

A. 40-60 mm Hg
B. 60-90 mm Hg
C. 80-120 mm Hg
D. 95-140 mm Hg

A

B. 60-90 mm Hg

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21
Q

Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration?

A. Sublingual
B. Intramuscular
C. Transdermal
D. Oral

A

B. Intramuscular

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22
Q

Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?

A. Acid-fast bacillus isolation
B. Contact isolation
C. Enteric precautions
D. Drainage-secretion precautions

A

C. Enteric precautions

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23
Q

Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?

A. Iohexol
B. Iothalamate meglumine
C. Iopamidol
D. Ioversol

A

B. Iothalamate meglumine

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24
Q

A patient who appears drowsy but can be aroused is said to be:

A. Comatose
B. Lethargic
C. Obtunded
D. Semicomatose

A

B. Lethargic

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25
Q

Direct contraindications to the administration of iodinated contrast material include:
1. Prior life-threatening reaction to iodinated contrast material
2. Multiple myeloma
3. Diabetes

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 only

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26
Q

The acronym CTDI is used to describe which of the following?

A. A specialized CT imaging technique used to measure bone material density
B. The quality control test that measures the accuracy of the laser lighting system
C. The radiation dose to the patient during a CT scan
D. A high-speed CT scanner used for cardiac imaging

A

C. The radiation dose to the patient during a CT scan

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27
Q

Contact shields made of ____ may be used to selectively protect radiosensitive organs that lie within the scanned region during a CT acquisition.

A. Bismuth
B. Aluminum
C. Lead
D. Molybdenum

A

A. Bismuth

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28
Q

Which of the following technical factors has a direct effect on patient dose?

A. Matrix size
B. Algorithm
C. mAs
D. Window level

A

C. mAs

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29
Q

Which of the following devices is used to measure the patient dose from a CT examination?

A. Geiger counter
B. Proportional counter
C. Ionization chamber
D. Film badge

A

C. Ionization chamber

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30
Q

To meet current industry standards for required dose reduction measures, a CT system must employ which if the following:
1. Automatic exposure control (AEC)
2. Adult and pediatric protocols
3. Digital imaging and communications in medicine (DICOM) radiation dose structured reporting (RDSR)

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2, and 3

A

D. 1,2, and 3

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31
Q

When implementing a scan protocol for a CT of the abdomen without contrast on a pediatric patient (40 lb/18 kg), which technical factor should be primarily adjusted?

A. Detector configuration
B. Tube milliamperage (mAs)
C. Scan field of view (SFOV)
D. Reconstruction algorithm

A

B. Tube milliamperage (mAs)

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32
Q

Whole-body risk based upon the radiosensivity of exposed tissues may be estimated using the unit:

A. Stochastic dose
B. Karma
C. Effective dose
D. CT dose index (CTDI)

A

C. Effective dose

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33
Q

The use of iterative reconstruction techniques for CT data processing results in:
1. Decreased noise on the reconstructed image
2. Deceased radiation dose to the patient
3. Decreased image reconstruction time

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

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34
Q

Which of the following methods may be employed to reduce the radiation dose to the pediatric patient undergoing CT?
1. Reduce mA
2. Limit phases of acquisition
3. Increased pitch

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2, and 3

A

D. 1,2, and 3

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35
Q

A decrease in the focus-to-detector distance of a mulidetector CT (MDCT) system would result in:

A. Increased patient dose
B. Decreased patient dose
C. Magnification of the image
D. Loss of contrast resolution

A

A. Increased patient dose

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36
Q

The radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variation in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed:

A. CTDI W
B. CTDI 100
C. CTDI VOL
D. MSAD

A

A. CTDI W

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37
Q

The radiation dose structured report (RDSR) must include which of the following details regarding a CT acquisition:
1. Tube current (mA)
2. Display field of view (DFOV)
3. Tube voltage (kVp)
4. Acquisition time (seconds)
5. Acquisition length (millimeters)

A. 1 only
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 1, 3, 4, and 5
D. All (1-5)

A

C. 1, 3, 4, and 5

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38
Q

The reduction in intensity of the CT x-ray beam as it passes through patient tissue may be generally termed:

A. Isotropy
B. Photodisintegration
C. Attenuation
D. Absorption

A

C. Attenuation

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39
Q

Which of the following clinical scenarios could result in a unnecessary increase in radiation dose to the patient?
1. Using in-plane bismuth shielding with longitudinal and angular tube current modulation (ATCM)
2. Increasing the tube potential (kVp) without a compensatory decrease in tube current (mA)
3. Increasing technical parameters to produce a noise-free image

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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40
Q

The dose length product (DLP) of a given CT acquisition may be calculated according to which of the following?
1. MSAD x slice width (cm) x number of slices in scan volume
2. CTDI vol x scan length (cm)
3. pitch x CTDI w

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

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41
Q

A modern CT system may employ complex collimation along the z-axis to reduce patient radiation exposure due to:

A. Binning
B. Beam hardening
C. Overbeaming
D. Interpolation

A

C. Overbeaming

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42
Q

Which of the following units is used to express the total patient does from a helically acquired CT examination?

A. Roentgen (R)
B. Curie (Ci)
C. R-cm (roentgen per centimeter)
D. mGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)

A

D. mGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)

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43
Q

Components of a comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically include:
1. Precontrast sequence of the brain
2. CT angiogram (CTA) of the brain and carotids
3. CT perfusion (CTP) of the brain

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

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44
Q

Use Fig. 6.1

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Left pulmonary artery
B. Ascending aorta
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Descending aorta

A

A. Left pulmonary artery

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45
Q

Use Fig. 6.1

Which number on the figure corresponds to the superior vena cava?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

C. 4

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46
Q

Use Fig. 6.1

The abnormal density located in the posterior portion of the left lung field on the figure has an average attenuation value of +5.0 Hounsfield units. This density most likely represents:

A. Pneumothorax
B. Hemothorax
C. Atelectasis
D. Pleural effusion

A

D. Pleural effusion

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47
Q

Simple cysts of the kidney have average attenuation values in the range of:

A. -40 to 0 Hounsfield units
B. 0 to +20 Hounsfield units
C. +30 to +50 Hounsfield units
D. Above +60 Hounsfield units

A

B. 0 to +20 Hounsfield units

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48
Q

After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approximately:

A. 15-20 seconds
B. 25-35 seconds
C. 60-70 seconds
D. 120-180 seconds

A

B. 25-35 seconds

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49
Q

Use Fig 6.2

Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Left internal jugular vein
B. Left external carotid artery
C. Left internal carotid artery
D. Left external jugular vein

A

C. Left internal carotid artery

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50
Q

Use Fig 6.2

Number 5 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Right internal jugular vein
B. Right external carotid artery
C. Right internal carotid artery
D. Right external jugular vein

A

A. Right internal jugular vein

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51
Q

Use Fig 6.2

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Vocal cords
B. Uvula
C. Aryepiglottic fold
D. Epiglottis

A

D. Epiglottis

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52
Q

The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of:

A. T10
B. T12
C. L2
D. L4

A

D. L4

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53
Q

The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral disc is called the:

A. Aeration effect
B. Vacuum phenomenon
C. Oxygen saturation point
D. Carbonization sign

A

B. Vacuum phenomenon

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54
Q

Which of the following Ct studies of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?

A. CT angiogram for circle of Willis
B. Coronal scan to rule out (R/O) pituitary tumor
C. CT of the brain to R/O subdural hematoma
D. CT of the brain to R/O metastatic disease

A

C. CT of the brain to R/O subdural hematoma

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55
Q

Which of the following phases of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder?

A. Early arterial
B. Corticomedullary
C. Nephrographic
D. Excretory

A

D. Excretory

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56
Q

Use Fig. 6.3

Number 5 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Transverse colon
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Hepatic flexure

A

B. Stomach

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57
Q

Use Fig. 6.3

Which of the following most likely describes the patient position during the formation of the figure?

A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Left lateral decubitus
D. Right lateral decubitus

A

D. Right lateral decubitus

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58
Q

Use Fig. 6.3

CT examination of the abdomen are often performed in the position on the figure to demonstrate the relationship between the:

A. Ureters and renal collection system
B. Duodenum and pancreatic head
C. Large and small colon
D. Liver and gallbladder

A

B. Duodenum and pancreatic head

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59
Q

Use Fig. 6.3

Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Right ureter
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Renal calculi
D. Right renal artery

A

A. Right ureter

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60
Q

The still-viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the:

A. Thrombolytic zone
B. Hemorrhage focus
C. Ischemic penumbra
D. Stroke volume

A

C. Ischemic penumbra

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61
Q

Complex fractures of the wrist are most common in which of the following carpal bones?

A. Hamate
B. Scaphoid
C. Capitate
D. Triquetrum

A

B. Scaphoid

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62
Q

A complete CT study of the orbits should include:

A. Thick section (5-10 mm) axial images only
B. Thick section (5-10 mm) axial and coronal images
C. Thin section (1-3 mm) coronal sections only
D. Thin section (1-3 mm) axial and coronal sections

A

D. Thin section (1-3 mm) axial and coronal sections

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63
Q

High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) is most commonly used for the evaluation of the:

A. Pancreas
B. Brain
C. Lung
D. Pelvis

A

C. Lung

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64
Q

During a general CT examination of the abdomen, an intravenous contrast agent is indicated and is administered with the aid of an automatic injection. Which of the following ranges of flow rate should be used?

A. 0.2-1.0 mL/sec
B. 1.0-3.0 mL/sec
C. 4.0-6.0 mL/sec
D. 7.0-10.0 mL/sec

A

B. 1.0-3.0 mL/sec

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65
Q

Diffuse fatty infiltration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:

A. Chromatosis
B. Steatosis
C. Cirrhosis
D. Lipomatosis

A

B. Steatosis

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66
Q

Use Fig. 6.4

Which of the following corresponds to the low-attenuation area indicated by number 3 on the figure?

A. Renal cortex
B. Renal pelvis
C. Renal calyx
D. Renal pyramid

A

D. Renal pyramid

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67
Q

Use Fig. 6.4

The data for this reformatted image of the abdomen was most likely acquired in which of the following renal enhancement phases?

A. Precontrast
B. Corticomedullary
C. Nephrographic
D. Excretory

A

B. Corticomedullary

68
Q

Use Fig. 6.4

Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Hepatic vein
B. Suprarenal lymph node
C. Adrenal gland
D. Common bile duct

A

C. Adrenal gland

69
Q

Use Fig. 6.4

Number 6 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Psoas muscle
B. Omentum
C. Piriformis muscle
D. Erector spinae muscle

A

A. Psoas muscle

70
Q

CT images of the chest should be acquired with the patient:

A. At full inspiration
B. Breathing quietly
C. At full expiration
D. Breathing normally

A

A. At full inspiration

71
Q

During CT scanning of the head, the gantry should be angled:

A. 15 degrees above the infraorbital-meatal line (IOML)
B. 10 degrees below the IOML
C. 0 degrees
D. 20 degrees above the skull base

A

A. 15 degrees above the infraorbital-meatal line (IOML)

72
Q

During CT examination of the larynx, the patient is often instructed to phonate the letter “E” in order to properly evaluate the:

A. Epiglottis
B. Uvula
C. Trachea
D. Vocal cords

A

D. Vocal cords

73
Q

Use Fig. 6.5

Number 2 corresponds to which of the following?

A. Carotid canal
B. Incus
C. Cochlea
D. Vestibule

A

C. Cochlea

74
Q

Use Fig. 6.5

Number 4 corresponds to which of the following?

A. External auditory meatus
B. Internal auditory canal
C. Vestibule
D. Carotid canal

A

D. Caroid canal

75
Q

Use Fig. 6.5

Which of the following display field of view (DFOV) values was most likely used to display the image?

A. 9.6 cm
B. 18.0 cm
C. 25.6 cm
D. 51.2 cm

A

A. 9.6 cm

76
Q

Use Fig. 6.5

Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Vestibule
B. Semicircular canal
C. Cochlea
D. Incus

A

A. Vestibule

77
Q

During a CT examination of a female pelvis for a suspected malignancy, ascites may be present in an area posterior to the uterus and ovaries known as:

A. The cul-de-sac
B. Morison pouch
C. The space of Ritzius
D. The prevesical compartment

A

A. The cul-de-sac

78
Q

Which of the following pathologic processes may be considered an interstitial disease of the lungs?

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
C. Pulmonary metastasis
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma

A

A. Bronchiectasis

79
Q

An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication between the bowel and the:

A. Uterus
B. Bladder
C. Vagina
D. Umbilicus

A

B. Bladder

80
Q

Positioning the patient with the knees flexed over a foam cushion during a CT examination of the lumbar spine assist in:
1. Decreasing the kyphotic curvature of the lumbar spine
2. Making the patient more comfortable through-out the examination
3. Decreasing the lordotic curvature of the lumbar spine

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

A

D. 2 and 3 only

81
Q

The imaging plane that is parallel to the foot’s plantar surface is called the:

A. Coronal plane
B. Sagittal plane
C. Axial plane
D. Oblique axial plane

A

C. Axial plane

82
Q

The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs due to poor circulation is called:

A. Varices
B. Claudication
C. Stenosis
D. Thrombosis

A

B. Claudication

83
Q

Use Fig. 6.6

The pathologic process indicated by number 3 on the figure most likely corresponds to:

A. Atelectasis
B. Lymphadenopathy
C. Pleural effusion
D. Ground-glass opacity

A

D. Ground-glass opacity

84
Q

Use Fig. 6.6

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Right atrium
B. Pulmonary trunk
C. Ascending aorta
D. Right ventricle

A

C. Ascending aorta

85
Q

Use Fig. 6.6

This high-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) image of the chest mast most likely acquired with a section width of:

A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 7 mm
D. 10 mm

A

A. 1 mm

86
Q

Use Fig. 6.6

Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Left mainstem bronchus
B. Anterior segment of the left upper lobe bronchus
C. Posterior segment of the left upper lobe bronchus
D. Anterior segment of the left lower lobe bronchus

A

B. Anterior segment of the left upper lobe bronchus

87
Q

The pituitary gland is best demonstrated during CT in which of the following imaging planes?

A. Axial
B. Coronal
C. Sagittal
D. Transaxial

A

B. Coronal

88
Q

The most common site of organ injury due to blunt abdominal trauma is the:

A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Pancreas

A

C. Spleen

89
Q

Use Fig. 6.7

Number 7 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Duodenum
B. Pancreatic head
C. Jejunum
D. Gallbladder

A

B. Pancreatic head

90
Q

Use Fig. 6.7

Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Superior mesenteric vein
B. Superior mesenteric artery
C. Renal artery
D. Portal vein

A

A. Superior mesenteric vein

91
Q

Use Fig. 6.7

Number 8 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Duodenum
B. Descending colon
C. Jejunum
D. Ascending colon

A

D. Ascending colon

92
Q

The adult spinal cord ends at what vertebral level?

A. T11-T12
B. L1-L2
C. L3-L4
D. Superior portion of the coccyx

A

B. L1-L2

93
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?

A. Leiomyoma
B. Cystic teratoma
C. Endometriosis
D. Corpus luteum

A

A. Leiomyoma

94
Q

Use. Fig. 6.8

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Sphenoid sinus
B. Ethmoid sinus
C. Frontal sinus
D. Maxillary sinus

A

B. Ethmoid sinus

95
Q

Use Fig. 6.8

The section thickness that would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is:

A. 3mm
B. 5mm
C. 7mm
D. 10mm

A

A. 3mm

96
Q

Use Fig. 6.8

Which number on the figure corresponds to the zygomatic bone?

A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 6

A

C. 2

97
Q

Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?

A. Pancreas
B. Kidneys
C. Uterus
D. Liver

A

D. Liver

98
Q

Which of the following may be included as part of a routine preparation for a general contrast-enhanced Ct examination of the abdomen and pelvis?
1. Instruction the patient to take nothing by mouth (NPO) for 4 hours before the examination
2. 1200 mL of oral contrast agent administered 90 mins before the examination
3. Having the patient drink 4 liters of polyethylene glycol (PEG) 24 hours before the examination

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only

A

C. 1 and 2 only

99
Q

During a complete CT scan of the pelvis, sections should be obtained from the:

A. Iliac crest to the pubic symphysis
B. Kidneys through the bladder
C. Bottom of the kidneys to the pubic symphysis
D. Iliac crests to the lesser trochanter

A

A. Iliac crest to the pubic symphysis

100
Q

Use Fig. 6.9

Number 4 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Navicular
B. Cuboid
C. Calcaneus
D. Talus

A

B. Cuboid

101
Q

Use Fig. 6.9

Which of the following best describes the type of image displayed in the figure?

A. Sagittal maximum intensity projection (MIP)
B. Direct sagittal acquisition
C. Sagittal multiplanar reformation (MPR)
D. Volume-rendered 3-D

A

C. Sagittal multiplanar reformation (MPR)

102
Q

Use Fig. 6.9

Number 6 on the figure corresponds to which of the following>

A. Navicular
B. Cuboid
C. Calcaneus
D. Talus

A

A. Navicular

103
Q

Use Fig. 6.9

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Navicular
B. Cuboid
C. Calcaneus
D. Talus

A

D. Talus

104
Q

Because of its inherent iodine concentration, the thyroid gland appears ___ on CT images.

A. Hypodense
B. Isodense
C. Hyperdense
D. Mottled

A

C. Hyperdense

105
Q

Air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree may be optimally demonstrated with multiplanar volume reconstruction (MPVRs) of the thorax known as:

A. Maximum intensity projections (MIPs)
B. 3-D volume renderings
C. Shaded-surface displays (SSDs)
D. Minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)

A

D. Minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)

106
Q

Use Fig. 6.10

Which number on the figure corresponds to the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 3
D. 2

A

B. 5

107
Q

Use Fig. 6.10

Number 3 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A. Caudate nucleus
B. Thalamus
C. Third ventricle
D. Pineal gland

A

B. Thalamus

108
Q

Use Fig. 6.10

Which number on the figure corresponds to the septum pellucidum?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

C. 4

109
Q

Which of the following is not a portion of the small bowel?

A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Cecum

A

D. Cecum

110
Q

The specialized CT examination of the bladder in which an iodinated contrast agent is directly administered under gravity into the bladder via Foley catheter is termed:

A. CT intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
B. CT urogram
C. CT enteroclysis
D. CT cystography

A

D. CT cystography

111
Q

Which of the following best describes the shape of the x-ray beam utilized in multidetector CT (MDCT)?

A. Pencil beam
B. Fan-shaped
C. Electron beam
D. Cone-shaped

A

D. Cone-shaped

112
Q

Collimation of the CT x-ray beam occurs:
1. At the x-ray tube, regulating slice thickness
2. Just beyond the patient, focusing off-axis transmitted radiation
3. Before the detectors, limiting the amount of scatter radiation absorbed

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 1 and 3 only

113
Q

CT numbers are usually provided in the form of:

A. Hounsfield units
B. EMI numbers
C. Cormacks
D. u

A

A. Hounsfield units

114
Q

The mathematical technique allowing the reconstruction of motion-free images from helically acquired CT data is called:

A. Convolution
B. Radon transformation
C. Interpolation
D. Fourier reconstruction

A

C. Interpolation

115
Q

The full width at half maximum (FWHM) of a CT scanner is used to describe:

A. Spatial resolution
B. Contrast resolution
C. Noise
D. Calibration accuracy

A

A. Spatial resolution

116
Q

A first-generation CT scanner consists of an x-ray tube and two detectors that translate across the patient’s head while rotating in 1-degree increments for a total of:

A. 45 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 360 degrees

A

C. 180 degrees

117
Q

Which of the following abbreviations is used to identify a computerized network that stores, retrieves, communicates, and displays digital medical images?

A. WORM
B. PACS
C. DICOM
D. HIPAA

A

B. PACS

118
Q

The CT “window” controls the _____ of the CT image as it appears to the viewer.

A. Density and detail
B. Spatial and contrast resolution
C. Contrast and brightness
D. Attenuation coefficient and Hounsfield value

A

C. Contrast and brightness

119
Q

Voxels with equal dimensions along the x-,y-, and z-axes are referred to as:

A. Prospective
B. Isotropic
C. Retrospective
D. Anisotropic

A

B. Isotropic

120
Q

Which of the following artifacts is not affected by the CT technologist?

A. Motion
B. Partial volume
C. Edge gradient
D. Ring

A

D. Ring

121
Q

When one is viewing a multiplanar reformation (MPR) image, each pixel represents:

A. The maximum attenuation occurring within the voxel
B. The average attenuation occurring within the voxel
C. The minimum attenuation occurring within the voxel
D. All attenuation occurs within the voxel above a set threshold value

A

B. The average attenuation occurring within the voxel

122
Q

Statistical noise appears as ______ on a CT image.

A. Decreased contrast
B. Increased brightness
C. Concentric circles
D. Graininess

A

D. Graininess

123
Q

An acquisition is made on a 64-slice multidetector CT (MDCT) system in which each detector element has a z-axis dimension of 0.625 mm. With a selected beam width of 40 mm and the beam pitch set at 1.50, how much will the table move with each rotation of the gantry?

A. 20 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 60 mm
D. 80 mm

A

C. 60 mm

124
Q

The componet of the CT computer system responsible for the data processing of image reconstruction is the:

A. Pipeline memory
B. Array processor
C. Hard disk drive
D. RAM microprocessor

A

B. Array processor

125
Q

The loss of anatomic information between contiguous sections due to inconsistent patient breathing is called:

A. Cupping artifact
B. Misregistration
C. Overshoot artifact
D. Out-of-field artifact

A

B. Misregistration

126
Q

Before a CT image can be reconstructed by a computer, the transmission signal produced by the detectors must be converted into numerical information by a(n):

A. Kernel
B. Analog-to-digital converter (ADC)
C. Array processor
D. Digital-to-analog converter (DAC)

A

B. Analog-to-digital converter (ADC)

127
Q

A CT image is formed in part by projection back all of the attenuation values recorded during data acquisition onto a:

A. Pixel
B. Voxel
C. Matrix
D. Reformat

A

C. Matrix

128
Q

Areas of a CT image that contain abrupt changes in tissue density are electronically represented by which of the following?

A. Positive CT numbers
B. High spatial frequencies
C. Negative CT numbers
D. Low spatial frequencies

A

B. High spatial frequencies

129
Q

Use Fig. 6.11

Which of the following components of CT image quality are being evaluated in the figure?
1. Low-contrast detectability
2. Noise
3. Uniformity

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

A

D. 2 and 3 only

130
Q

Use Fig. 6.11

The differences in Hounsfield value exhibited in the regions of interest (ROIs) measured on this CT image of a water-filled phantom are most likely due to the phenomenon referred to as:

A. Partial volume averaging
B. Noise
C. Beam hardening
D. Detector drift

A

C. Beam heardening

131
Q

Use Fig. 6.11

Which region of interest (ROI) on the figure demonstrates the greatest amount of image noise?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Impossible to determine from the information provided

A

A. 1

132
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe a set of rules for solving a mathematical problem?

A. Reconstruction
B. Algorithm
C. Function
D. Array

A

B. Algorithm

133
Q

Which of the following factors does not affect the dimensions of a voxel?

A. Slice thickness
B. Matrix size
C. Kernel
D. Display field of view

A

B. Matrix size

134
Q

The size of the CT image displayed on a computer monitor can be enlarged by increasing the:
1. Display field of view (DFOV)
2. Scan field of view (SFOV)
3. Image magnification

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only

A

B. 3 only

135
Q

The average photon energy of the primary beam of a CT scanner operating at a tube potential of 120 kVp is approximately:

A. 50 keV
B. 70 keV
C. 100 keV
D. 120 keV

A

B. 70 keV

136
Q

Multidetector CT (MDCT) systems typically employ which of the following detector geometries?

A. First gen
B. Second gen
C. Third gen
D. Fourth gen

A

C. Third gen

137
Q

The acquisition of a series of CT images at a single anatomic location over a set period is referred to as:

A. Ultrafast CT
B. Cine CT
C. Conventional CT
D. Temporal CT

A

B. Cine CT

138
Q

The rate at which a quantity of x-radiation emitted from a CT tube passes through a unit area over a unit of time is called :

A. Effective mAs
B. Photon flux
C. Constant mAs
D. Photon fluence

A

B. Photon flux

139
Q

An average CT number value for bone is:

A. +100 HU
B. +500 HU
C. +1000 HU
D. +3000 HU

A

C. +1000 HU

140
Q

A standard CT image reconstructed on a 512^2 matrix has a digital size of approximately:

A. 0.5 MB
B. 3.0 MB
C. 5.0 MB
D. 10.0 MB

A

A. 0.5 MB

141
Q

The term used to describe the relationship between the linear attenuation coefficient of an object and the calculated CT number is:

A. Linearity
B. Mottle
C. Quantum noise
D. Spatial resolution

A

A. Linearity

142
Q

Quality control measurements to test the accuracy of the CT scanner’s calibration should be performed:

A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Annually

A

A. Daily

143
Q

The 3-D CT technique that includes all of the acquired voxel information in the reconstructed model with adjustments to its opacity is termed:

A. Surface rendering
B. Maximum intensity projection (MIP)
C. Curved multiplanar reformation
D. Volume rendering

A

D. Volume rendering

144
Q

Where is the high-frequency generator often located in a modern CT scanner?

A. Inside the gantry
B. Just outside the scan room
C. Beneath the CT table
D. Inside the operator’s console

A

A. Inside the gantry

145
Q

The smallest unit of information used in the binary language of computers is the:

A. Bit
B. Chip
C. Bast
D. Byte

A

A. Bit

146
Q

The continuous gantry rotation required by helical CT acquisition is made possible by the application of:

A. Electromagnetic bushing
B. Titanium bearing
C. Slip-rings
D. Oil-cooled couplings

A

C. Slip-rings

147
Q

The process of applying a mathematical filter to remove blurring from the reconstructed CT image is termed:
A. Convolution
B. Interpolation
C. Iteration
D. Z-filtration

A

A. Convolution

148
Q

Which of the following acquisitions may be characterized as contiguous?

A. 2.5 mm sections reconstructed every 1.25 mm
B. 5.0 mm sections reconstructed every 7.5 mm
C. 3.75 mm sections reconstructed every 3.75 mm
D. 20 second cine acquisition with 1.25 mm sections

A

C. 3.75 mm sections reconstructed every 3.75 mm

149
Q

Pixels representing tissues with average attenuation coefficients greater than that of water have which of the following types of values?

A. Extremely small
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. Low contrast

A

B. Positive

150
Q

Digital CT images are networked and archived in accordance with a standardized computer protocol identified by which of the following abbreviations?

A. HIPAA
B. HTTP
C. TCP/IP
D. DICOM

A

D. DICOM

151
Q

The contrast resolution of a CT scanner is not related to which of the following?

A. Focal spot size
B. Section width
C. Reconstruction algorithm
D. Signal-to-noise ratio

A

A. Focal spot size

152
Q

Use Fig. 6.12

The artifact present on the lateral borders of the image in the figure most likely represents which of the following?

A. Edge gradient
B. Out-of-field artifact
C. Tube arching
D. Beam hardening

A

B. Out-of-field artifact

153
Q

Use Fig. 6.12

The image in the figure was produced using the following parameters: large (full) scan field of view (SFOV); maximum display field of view (DFOV) (48 cm); 200 mA, 120 kVp; soft tissue algorithm. Which of the following technical adjustments would serve to reduce the artifact present?

A. Switching to a detail or bone algorithm
B. Using a smaller SFOV
C. Increasing the mA to 240 and the kVp to 140
D. Centering the patient within the SFOV

A

D. Centering the patient within the SFOV

154
Q

The average photon energy of the CT x-ray beam can be increased by:

A. Increasing mAs
B. Increasing filtration
C. Increasing collimation
D. All of the above

A

B. Increasing filtration

155
Q

Which of the following is a solid-state device used to record the light flashes given off by a scintillation crystal?

A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Anode
C. Photodiode
D. Input phosphor

A

C. Photodiode

156
Q

Automatic tube current modulation (ATCM) software is used in current multidetector CT (MDCT) systems to control:

A. Patient radiation dose
B. Cardiac motion
C. Timing of the contrast agent bolus
D. Tissue perfusion assessment

A

A. Patient radiation dose

157
Q

The type of multidetector CT (MDCT) detector array that contains multiple rows of detector elements, each of the same length, is called a(n):

A. Uniform matrix array
B. Adaptive array
C. Hybrid array
D. Stationary array

A

A. Uniform matrix array

158
Q

A CT image is displayed in a window with a level of 0 and a width of 500. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Pixels with values between 0 HU and 500 HU will appear white.
B. Pixels with values between -250 HU and +250 HU will be assigned shades of gray.
C. Pixels with values greater than +500 HU will be black.
D. Pixels with values less than 0 HU will appear white.

A

B. Pixels with values between -250 HU and +250 HU will be assigned shades of gray.

159
Q

Reformatted CT image planes that lie perpendicular to the original plane of acquisition may be described as:

A. Oblique
B. Orthogonal
C. Obtuse
D. Orthographic

A

B. Orthogonal

160
Q

Segmenting the data acquisition process into separate components of smaller rotation angles may improve which of the following components of CT image quality?

A. Temporal resolution
B. Longitudinal spatial resolution
C. Contrast resolution
D. In-plane spatial resolution

A

A. Temporal resolution

161
Q

Which of the following image artifacts is unique to multidetector CT (MDCT) systems?

A. Step artifact
B. Aliasing artifact
C. Out-of-field artifact
D. Cone beam artifact

A

D. Cone beam artifact

162
Q

Which of the following is considered an analytic form of image reconstruction?
1. Iterative technique
2. Fourier reconstruction
3. Filtered back-projection

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

C. 2 and 3 only

163
Q

A 16-slice MDCT system utilizes an adaptive array of 24 detectors, each ranging in size from 0.625 to 1.25 mm. What is the maximum number of sections the system can acquire with each rotation for the gantry?

A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64

A

B. 16

164
Q

The measurement of transmitted radiation made by an individual detector is called a(n):

A. Attenuation coefficient
B. Hounsfield value
C. CT number
D. Ray sum

A

D. Ray sum

165
Q

The information included during the 3-D reconstruction of a CT scan is controlled by the:

A. Algorithm
B. Window setting
C. Threshold setting
D. Grayscale map

A

C. Threshold setting

CT Registry (3 decks)

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