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RTP/IFR Questions Flashcards

(72 cards)

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1
Q

What is the required validity period that a weather forecast must cover for destination and alternate aerodromes?

A

Not less than 30 mins before and 60 mins after the planned ETA

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2
Q

What is the time window allowed to remain compliant with allocated COBT?

A

Arrivals SYD BNE MEL PER -5min to +15min

Departure PER -5min to +10min

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3
Q

When ATC allocates a waypoint crossing time, what time must the aircraft arrive at the waypoint?

A

On time or up to 30 seconds early

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4
Q

What is the maximum obstacle clearance required when circling in a Cat C aircraft?

A

400 Feet

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5
Q

Max speed for circling Cat C?

A

180 Kts

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6
Q

Max speed for missed approach Cat C?

A

240 Kts

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7
Q

Range of final approach speeds Cat C?

A

115 - 160 Kts

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8
Q

What is the Cat C Circling radius Pans Ops?

A

4.1 NM @ sea level

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9
Q

What is the Cat C Circling radius TERPS OLD

A

1.7 NM

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10
Q

What is the Cat C Circling radius TERPS NEW

A

2.7 NM

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11
Q

Visual approach requirements by day?

A

-Within 30NM
-Not below LSALT/MSA
-Clear of cloud
-In sight of ground or water
-5Km VIS
-Maintain altitude not less than VFR min heights of 1000AGL over populated and 500AGL over non populated

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12
Q

Visual approach requirements by night?

A

-Not below LSALT/MSA
-Clear of cloud
-In sight of ground or water
-5Km VIS
-Within circling area if the airport has a useable approach OR
-Within 3NM OR
-Within 5NM of aerodrome established not below PAPI
-Within 7NM of aerodrome established not below PAPI if the runway has an ILS
-Within 10NM if established not below PAPI and established on an ILS
-Within 14NM of 16L or 34L in SYD and established not below PAPI and established on an ILS

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13
Q

What is the maximum allowable in flight difference between captain and FO altimeters for RVSM operations?

A

200 Feet

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14
Q

Do standby altimeters meet the requirements for RVSM?

A

No

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15
Q

What is the altimeter tolerance for IFR flight?

A

-Elevation within +/- 60 Feet
-Ok for one to be up to +/- 75 Feet for one sector then MUST be with 60 Feet

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16
Q

RVSM max differences between Captain and FO altimeters?

A

Classic
Sea Level - 40 Feet
5000 Feet - 45 Feet
10000 Feet - 50 Feet

NG
Sea Level - 5000 Feet - 50 Feet
5001 Feet - 10000 Feet - 60 Feet

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17
Q

What is the Range of Speeds for Cat C for initial and intermediate approach

A

160-240KTS

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18
Q

Max Holding Speed up to FL140

A

230 Kts

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19
Q

Max Holding Speed FL140-FL200

A

240 Kts

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20
Q

Max Holding Speed above FL200

A

265 Kts

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21
Q

Standard Holding direction and leg times

A

Right turns / 1 Min below FL140, 1.5 Min above FL140

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22
Q

IFR Take Off Minima

A

The higher of the following

-The vis requirement on the chart
-800m (Part91)
-550m - ONLY IF EDGE LIGHTS ARE MAX 60M, CENTRELINE LIGHTS/MARKING EXIST, STANDBY POWER HAS A MAX 1 SEC CHANGEOVER AND IT’S DAYTIME UNLESS THE AERODROME IS CONTROLLED. (Company Min + Part91)

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23
Q

What are the privileges of the Company OPC?

A

Operate a company aircraft under the IFR

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24
Q

Does an expired OPC remove all company IFR privileges?

A

Yes. OPC must be current to operate

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25
How often must you complete an OPC?
Every 6 months. Can extend to 8 months but must complete 2 in a 12 month period
26
Can pilot operate company aircraft after failing an OPC?
No
27
Who is authorised to conduct an OPC?
Company check pilot with 121.010 approval
28
What are the recency requirements for company IFR flights?
Participate in an approved check and training system
29
Do simulator approaches count towards IFR recency?
Yes. If conducted in an approved sim under supervision
30
How many approaches and landings must company pilots have completed in the previous 90 days?
3 of each
31
How can a pilot regain recency?
Complete an OPC or supervised approaches by an instructor in aircraft or sim
32
Which instruments must be serviceable for IFR flight?
Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator, ASI, VSI, Altimeter, Turn Coordinator, Clock and Navaids
33
What redundancy is required for Attitude Indicators for IFR flight?
2 x indépendant attitude sources - one powered electrically
34
Can a IFR flight commence with one altimeter U/S?
No
35
What must be included in the aircrafts MEL for IFR approval?
Minimum equipment for safe IFR operation including navigation and communication
36
What does TEMPO 3000 SHRA mean in a TAF?
Temporary conditions 30 mins to 60 mins in duration of visibility 3000M in Showers
37
How can you identify a NOTAM that affects your route?
Check the FIR NOTAMS
38
What document lists lights for aerodromes?
Jeppesen or ERSA
39
What does SIGMET for 'SEV TURB FL280-FL360' imply?
Severe turbulence between flight level 280 and 360. May require routing changes
40
What is the company minimum VIS for take off?
550M
41
When must an alternate be planned?
If the destination is below alternate minima or no suitable approach is available
42
When is holding fuel required?
When forecast includes Prob 30 or 40 or INTER/TEMPO conditions at destination
43
In which airspace class is a clearance required for IFR flight?
All controlled airspaces A,C,D and E
44
Is separation provided in Class E airspace under IFR?
Yes with other IFR aircraft
45
What is required to enter Class C airspace?
A clearance and 2 way radio comms
46
Can IFR aircraft operate in Class G airspace without a clearance?
Yes. But traffic info may be limited.
47
What is a SID?
Standard Instrument Departure - published departure route ensuring obstacle clearance.
48
What is a STAR?
Standard Terminal Arrival Route - Link between en-route phase and initial approach
49
What's the difference between RNAV and conventional SIDs?
RNAV uses GPS or INS instead of ground based aids
50
When must a pilot comply with a STAR?
When assigned by ATC or published in the clearance
51
When may you descend below LSALT?
Conducting an approach or visual descent with appropriate visual reference
52
What is the LSALT in mountainous terrain?
1500 FT above the highest obstacle within 5NM
53
How is MSA determined?
Surveyed areas based on 25NM sectors where 1000ft terrain clearance is assured
54
Is LSALT required in controlled airspace?
Yes. Unless ATC provides terrain clearance (MVA)
55
What does RNP 1 mean?
Aircraft must maintain track keeping accuracy of +/- 1 NM 95% of the time
56
Can a NON RNP certified aircraft fly an RNAV GNSS approach?
No, unless it meets RNP-APCH requirements
57
What is the consequence of a RAIM alert during approach?
The approach must be discontinued
58
Is BARO-VNAV permitted for LNAV/VNAV approaches in Aus?
Yes. If the aircraft is approved and the temperature is within chart limits
59
What visual reference must be maintained during a circling approach?
Runway environment from inside circling area
60
Can circling be conducted at night?
Yes. If trained and current and the procedure is authorised
61
What is the typical MDA for circling?
Chart published. Must not descend below until visual
62
What is wind shear and why is it dangerous?
A sudden change in wind speed and/or direction which can cause a loss of lift and control
63
What should you do if thunderstorm activity is present on approach?
Hold or divert until the storm passes
64
How can a pilot detect icing in a jet?
Airframe or windshield indications, change in handling, TAT indications
65
Can an RNAV approach be flown through heavy rain?
Yes. If RAIM is available and the GPS signal is not degraded
66
Where can you find emergency frequencies for a location?
ERSA Emergency Procedures Scection
67
What is the emergency VHF frequency in Aus?
121.5MHz
68
What information is found in Jeppessen Airport Directory/ERSA FAC?
Aerodrome layout, lighting, services, circuit direction, frequencies
69
What emergency services are listed in Jeppesen/ERSA?
Fire, Ambulance, Fuel Availability, Lighting for Emergencies
70
What must be included in an IFR alternate fuel calculation?
Destination, Approach, Missed Approach, Alternate and reserves
71
Can a pilot use forecast TAF weather for alternate planning?
Yes, including valid TAF and weather trends
72
What performance category affects approach minima?
Cat B, C, or D depending on aircraft Vref or approach speed

Nauru Airlines (11 decks)

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