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Interview Study > Sim Questions > Flashcards

Sim Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the time? What about in UTC?

A

NZDT (Summer) is 13 hours ahead of UTC
NZST (Winter) is 12 hours ahead of UTC

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2
Q

What’s 180kts in Miles per Minute?

A

3nm/min

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3
Q

What’s 120kts in nm/min

A

2nm/min

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4
Q

What’s 60kts in nm/min?

A

1nm/min

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5
Q

What’s 240kts in nm/min?

A

4nm/min

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6
Q

What’s 300kts in nm/min?

A

5nm/min

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7
Q

What’s 150kts in nm/min?

A

2.5nm/min

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8
Q

What’s 210kts in nm/min?

A

3.5nm/min

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9
Q

What’s 270kts in nm/min?

A

4.5nm/min

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10
Q

Travelling at 210kts, how long will it take to travel 12nm?

A

3 mins 25 seconds

(3.5nm/min)

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11
Q

Travelling at 180kts, how long will it take to travel 15nm?

A

5 minutes

(3nm/min)

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12
Q

Travelling at 150kts, how long will it take to travel 12nm?

A

4 minutes 48 seconds

(2.5nm/min)

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13
Q

Travelling at 120kts, how long will it take to travel 12nm?

A

6 minutes

(2nm/min)

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14
Q

Travelling at 190kts, how long will it take to travel 13nm?

A

4 minutes 6 Seconds (Approx 4 minutes is fine)

(Approx 3nm/min and approx 12nm)

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15
Q

Travelling at 200 kts, how long to travel 15nm?

A

4 minutes 30 seconds

(Approx 3.3nm/min)

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16
Q

Travelling at 210kts, how long will it take to travel 7nm?

A

2 minutes

(3.5nm/min)

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17
Q

Travelling at 250kts, how long will it take to travel 10nm?

A

2 minutes 24 seconds

(Approx 4nm/min. So Approx 2.5 minutes is fine)

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18
Q

Travelling at 190kts, how long to travel 15nm?

A

Just under 5 minutes

(4minutes 43 seconds to be exact)

Fine to use 180kts (3nm/min) then just assume slightly faster then that at 190kts. Therefore just under 5 minutes.

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19
Q

Travelling towards a DME at 6000ft. When overhead, what will the DME read?

A

1 DME

(1nm is 6076ft)

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20
Q

Travelling towards a DME at 12,000ft. When overhead, what will the DME read?

A

2 DME

(1nm is 6076ft)

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21
Q

Travelling towards a DME at 3000ft. When overhead, what will the DME read?

A

0.5 DME

(1nm is 6076ft)

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22
Q

Travelling towards a DME at 9000ft. When overhead, what will the DME read?

A

1.5 DME

(1nm is 6076ft)

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23
Q

9 x 3

A

27

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24
Q

3 x 6

A

18

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25
Q

5 x 8

A

40

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26
Q

3 x 7

A

21

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27
Q

What is the standard SID climb gradient?

A

3.3%

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28
Q

What is the standard IFR Takeoff Minima?

A

300ft Ceiling 1500m Visibility

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29
Q

Max IAS for Holding?
14,000ft and Below
Cat A & B

A

170kts

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30
Q

Max IAS for Holding?
14,000ft and Below
Cat C and above (normal conditions)

A

230kts

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31
Q

Max IAS for Holding?
Above 14,000ft up to 20,000ft
All Categories (normal conditions)

A

240kts

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32
Q

Max IAS for Holding?
Above 20,000ft up to 34,000ft
All categories (normal conditions)

A

265kts

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33
Q

Max IAS for Holding?
14,000ft and Below
Cat A&B (Turbulent conditions)

A

170kts

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34
Q

Max IAS for Holding?
14,000ft and Below
Cat C and Above (Turbulent Conditions)

A

280kts

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35
Q

Max IAS for Holding?
14,000ft up to 20,000ft
All categories (Turbulent Conditions)

A

Lesser of 280kts or M0.80

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36
Q

Max IAS for Holding?
20,000ft up to 34,000ft
All categories (Turbulent Conditions)

A

Lesser of 280kts or M0.80

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37
Q

Max IAS for Holding?
Above 34,000ft
All categories (Turbulent Conditions)

A

M0.83

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38
Q

What are the 4 types of Departure?

A
  1. SID
  2. Visual Departure (Day only)
  3. Radar SID within and Evaluated Climb Sector
  4. Climb via VORSEC chart or DME steps
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39
Q

SID has 3.3% Climb Gradient. You’re travelling 150kts. What ROC do you require?

A

500fpm

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40
Q

SID has 3.3% (200ft/nm) Climb gradient. You’re travelling at 120kts, what ROC do you require?

A

400fpm

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41
Q

SID has a 3.3% (200ft/nm) Climb Gradient. You’re travelling at 170kts, what climb gradient do you require?

A

Just under 600fpm

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42
Q

How do you calculate ROC on a SID?

A

ROC = Gradient x Groundspeed x 1.013

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43
Q

How do you calculate your ROD required on a 3° (5%) profile?

A

5 x Groundspeed

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44
Q

3° Profile. Travelling at 120kts, what ROD do you require?

A

600fpm

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45
Q

3° Profile. Your Groundspeed is 150kts, what ROD do you require?

A

750fpm

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46
Q

3° Profile. Your Groundspeed is 130kts, what ROD do you require?

A

650fpm

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47
Q

3° Profile. Your Groundspeed is 110kts, what ROD do you require?

A

550fpm

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48
Q

3° Profile. Your Groundspeed is 80kts, what ROD do you require?

A

400fpm

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49
Q

You’re flying an ILS. At 120kts, what ROD do you require?

A

600fpm

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50
Q

You’re flying an ILS. At 180kts, what ROD do you require?

A

900fpm

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51
Q

You’re flying an ILS. At 150kts, what ROD do you require?

A

750fpm

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52
Q

You’re flying an ILS. At 140kts, what ROD do you require?

A

700fpm

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53
Q

You have to descend 20,000ft. 3° Profile. How far is your TOD?

A

60nm

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54
Q

You have to descend 18,000ft, 3° profile. How far is your TOD?

A

54nm

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55
Q

You have to descend 10,000ft, 3° Profile. Where is your TOD?

A

30nm

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56
Q

You have to descend 12,000ft, 3° Profile. Where is your TOD?

A

36nm

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57
Q

You have to descend 15,000ft, 3° Profile. How far away is your TOD?
At 210kts G/S, what ROD do you require?

A

45nm

1050fpm - 1150fpm

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58
Q

You have to descend 22,000ft. How far away is you TOD?
At 180kts, what is your ROD required?

A

66nm

900fpm

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59
Q

Holding inbound is 010, what is the outbound?

A

190

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60
Q

Holding inbound is 320, what is the outbound?

A

140

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61
Q

What is the reciprocal of 110?

A

290

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62
Q

What is the reciprocal of 230?

A

050

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63
Q

What is the reciprocal of 070?

A

250

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64
Q

What is the standard holding pattern direction?

A

Right hand hold

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65
Q

What AOB are Holding turns to be made at?

A

25° AOB or Rate 1 whichever requires the lesser bank

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66
Q

How long is the outbound timing in the hold?
(14,000ft and below)

A

1 minute

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67
Q

How long is the outbound timing in the hold?
(Above 14,000ft)

A

1 and 1/2 minutes

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68
Q

What is Vat?

A

IAS at the threshold (1.3 x Vso)

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69
Q

What is the minimum height you can turn on a SID?

A

400ft (unless specified)

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70
Q

Where does a SID originate?

A

16ft above departure end of the runway

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71
Q

Where does a SID end?

A

Once established on cleared route above MSA

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72
Q

What is the IFR takeoff minima if not specified in operational data?

A

300ft Ceiling, 1500m Visibility

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73
Q

3 x 18

A

54

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74
Q

3 x 14

A

42

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75
Q

3 x 17

A

51

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76
Q

3x16

A

48

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77
Q

3x15

A

45

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78
Q

GS is 200kts, what ROD do you need for 3° profile?

A

1000fpm -1100fpm

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79
Q

GS is 240kts, what ROD do you need for 3° profile?

A

1200fpm - 1250fpm

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80
Q

What AOB does a SID assume?

A

Average 15° AOB

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81
Q

Max IAS for turns during a SID?
(Answer for each category)

A

Cat A - 120kts
Cat B - 165kts
Cat C - 265kts
Cat D - 290kts

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82
Q

What category is the Archer?

A

A

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83
Q

What category is the Dash 8?

A

Cat B

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84
Q

What Category is the ATR

A

Cat C and can go to Cat B when below certain weights

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85
Q

What obstacle and terrain clearance does a holding pattern provide?
(Non mountainous)

A

1000ft

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86
Q

What obstacle and terrain clearance does a holding pattern provide?
(Mountainous)

A

2000ft

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87
Q

How much wind is taken into account during Approach Design?

A

60kts of Head/Tail Wind

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88
Q

Cat A Initial Approach Speed range?

A

90-150kts

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89
Q

Cat B Final Approach Speed range?

A

85-130kts

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90
Q

Cat A Final Approach Speed range?

A

70-100kts

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91
Q

Cat C Initial Approach Speeds?

A

160 - 240kts

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92
Q

Cat C max circling speed?

A

180kts

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93
Q

Cat C Max Missed Approach Speed?

A

240kts

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94
Q

Cat B Max Missed Approach Speed?

A

150kts

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95
Q

Cat A Max Circling Speed?

A

100kts

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96
Q

Cat B max Circling Speed?

A

135kts

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97
Q

Cat B Initial Approach Speeds?

A

120-180kts

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98
Q

Cat C Final Approach Speeds?

A

115 - 160kts

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99
Q

Cat B max Speed for a reversal procedure?

A

140kts

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100
Q

Cat A max speed for a reversal procedure?

A

110kts

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101
Q

Cat A max speed on the missed approach?

A

110kts

102
Q

Cat D max speed on the missed approach?

A

265kts

103
Q

Cat D Initial Approach Speeds?

A

185 - 250kts

104
Q

Cat D Final Approach Speeds?

A

130 - 185kts

105
Q

Cat D max circling speed?

A

205kts

106
Q

Cat C max circling speed?

A

180kts

107
Q

Cat A Final Approach Speeds?

A

70 - 100kts

108
Q

Cat B Final Approach Speeds?

A

85 - 130kts

109
Q

Cat B Initial Approach Speeds?

A

120 - 180kts

110
Q

Cat B what is the max speed you can be crossing the IAF?

A

180kts

111
Q

Cat A what is the max speed you can cross the FAF?

A

100kts

112
Q

Cat B what is the max speed you can cross the FAF?

A

130kts

113
Q

Cat C what is the max speed you can cross the IAF?

A

240kts

114
Q

Cat C what is the max speed you can cross the FAF?

A

160kts

115
Q

Cat A what’s the max speed you can cross the IAF?

A

150kts

116
Q

You are about to do a procedure turn, you are Cat B, what is the max speed you can do this manoeuvre?

A

140kts

117
Q

You are about to do a procedure turn, you are Cat A, what is the max speed you can do this manoeuvre?

A

110kts

118
Q

You are about to enter a hold at 12,000ft. Cat B. What is your max speed in the hold, and how long is your outbound timing?

A

170kts

1 minute

119
Q

You are about to enter a hold at 14,000ft, you are Cat C. What is your max speed in the hold? What is your outbound timing?

A

230kts (normal conditions)
280kts (turbulent conditions)

1 minute

120
Q

5 x 140

A

700

121
Q

5 x 160

A

800

122
Q

5 x 170

A

850

123
Q

5 x 80

A

400

124
Q

5 x 70

A

350

125
Q

What the minimum AOB for a missed approach?

A

15° MINIMUM

126
Q

What’s the Vat for Cat A Aircraft?

A

<91kts

127
Q

What’s the Vat for Cat B Aircraft?

A

<121kts

128
Q

What’s the Vat for Cat C Aircraft?

A

<141kts

129
Q

What’s the Vat for Cat D Aircraft?

A

<166kts

130
Q

Minimum initial approach altitude must be the higher of?

A

Minimum procedure commencement altitude

Or

MSA for the route sector (DME steps, VORSEC charts, 25nm MSA, TAA diagram)

131
Q

When can the base turn be joined directly from overhead the Navaid?

A

When within +/- 30° of the base turn outbound leg. Otherwise the holding pattern or a reversal procedure must be used?

132
Q

ATC will protect the missed approach. This may be done by instruction to enter the aerodrome circuit visually. This will only be done when the weather is better than?

A

Turboprop (Day only) : 1200ft Ceiling and 5km or circling minima whichever is higher.

Jet & All Night Ops : 2000ft Ceiling and 8km or circling minima whichever is higher.

Cat D aircraft will not be instructed to enter the circuit

133
Q

NZDT is 1830 on 26th February. What is UTC time?

A

0530 on 26th February

134
Q

It’s 0340 NZDT on 30th June. What’s the time in UTC?

A

1440 on the 29th June UTC

135
Q

UTC is 2200 on the 18th December. What’s NZDT and NZST?

A

NZDT is 1100 on the 19th December
NZST is 1000 on the 19th December

136
Q

When can you do a visual approach in uncontrolled airspace?

A

When a pilot can maintain visual reference to the terrain, and the cloud base is not below the initial approach altitude. (If at night the pilot must have the runway lights in sight)

137
Q

When can you do a visual approach in controlled airspace?

A
  1. The pilot states “request visual approach”
  2. The pilot can maintain visual reference to the terrain
  3. The reported ceiling is not below the approved initial approach level or the pilot reports at the initial approach level or during an instrument approach that the weather is good enough for a visual approach.
    NOTE: If it is night time the pilot must also have the runway lights in sight.
138
Q

Is an IFR flight conducting a visual approach still an IFR flight?

A

Yes

139
Q

Does a clearance for a visual approach cancel speed and descent altitude restrictions?

A

Yes, clearance for a visual approach cancels all speed and altitude restrictions unless specified by ATC

140
Q

When will ATC advertise that conditions are suitable for a visual approach on the ATIS?

A

By Day: greater then 16km Vis, Ceiling 1000ft above minimum radar vectoring altitude or initial approach altitude.

By Night: Only at CHC with greater then 16km Vis and it is Runway 11 or 29 and there is no cloud at all below 5000ft

141
Q

What are the visual references able to be used to descend below DA, DH or MDA?

(Distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot)

A

At least one of the following:
1. The Approach Lighting System (ALS)
2. The threshold markings
3. The threshold lights
4. The runway end identifier lights (REILs)
5. The slope indicator lights (PAPI, VASIS etc)
6. The touchdown zone lights or markings
7. The runway lights or runway markings

142
Q

What 3 things do you need to descend below DA, DH or MDA?

A
  1. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal manoeuvres that will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone.
  2. The Visibility in flight is not less then minima.
  3. At least one of the applicable visual references is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot.
143
Q

What terrain clearance does a DME arc provide?

A

1000ft terrain clearance within 2.5nm each side of the arc.

144
Q

When can you be considered established inbound on a conventional approach?

A

Within Half Scale Deflection on a VOR/ILS

Or

Within 5° of an NDB track

145
Q

What does the pilot need to have in sight before doing a visual approach at night?

A

The runway lights

146
Q

You are inbound on the 020 radial. What is you track?

A

200

147
Q

You are outbound on the 280 radial. What is your track?

A

280

148
Q

You are inbound on the 090 radial at GS200kts. You are instructed to join the left hand 15DME Arc. Which direction will you turn onto the arc, and at what DME will you start the turn? What initial heading will you target?

A

Right

17 DME

Initial HDG Approx 355°

149
Q

You are inbound on the 090 radial. You are instructed to join the left hand 15DME arc. The Approach inbound is 190. How many degrees of Arc will you have to fly? How many miles on the arc will you have to fly?

A

80°

20nm

(On a 15DME arc, 4° is 1nm, 80° is 20nm)

150
Q

You are tracking inbound 150. You plan to join the right hand 10DME arc, and fly the arc until intercepting the ILS approach, which has an inbound of 196. How many degrees of arc will you be flying? What distance will you travel on the arc?

A

46°

7.6nm of arc

151
Q

Cat B, what is the maximum speed join the DME arc?

A

180kts

152
Q

Cat C, what is the max speed you can join the DME arc?

A

240kts

153
Q

How many km in a nm?

A

1.852km in a nm

154
Q

Approx how many km is 5nm?

A

9km

155
Q

At 100kts, what is your speed in km/hr?

A

185km/hr

156
Q

At 200kts, what is your speed in km/hr?

A

370km/hr

157
Q

How many ft in a metre?

A

3.3ft

158
Q

What is QNE?

A

Reference datum of 1013hPA sea level pressure

159
Q

Who’s the CEO of Air NZ?

A

Greg Foran

160
Q

Who was the previous CEO of Air NZ before Greg Foran?

A

Chris Luxon

161
Q

What is best angle of climb speed in the warrior?

A
162
Q

What is the HP of the warrior, what type of engine does it have?

A
163
Q

What is normal VFR met minima? What about special VFR?

A
164
Q

How many kg is 1000L of Avgas?

A

720kg

165
Q

How many kg is 1000L of Jet A1?

A

800kg

166
Q

What is the requirements to send a student first solo?

A
167
Q

What is your stable gate criteria?

A
168
Q

What are you SOPs for weather at IAANZ?

A
169
Q

What are the hour requirements for an ATPL?

A
170
Q

What are the hours requirements for flying Part 121?

A
171
Q

Is it NZDT or NZST at the moment?

A
172
Q

How much oil does the tomohawk engine need?

A
173
Q

What is the fuel capacity of the Warrior, Tomohawk and Cessna?

A
174
Q

What’s the max range and endurance of the Warrior, Archer?

A
175
Q

What’s the maximum flying hours you can do per month in your current job?

A
176
Q

How do you keep an Instrument Rating Current?

A
177
Q

How do you keep you Bcat current?

A
178
Q

How do you keep an ATPL current?

A
179
Q

What colour are Taxiway Edge lights?

A

Blue

180
Q

What colour is taxiway centreline lighting?

A

Green

181
Q

What does a flashing red lights from the Tower mean?

A

In the air: Aerodrome unsafe, do not land.

On the ground: Taxi clear of the landing area in use

(AIP AD 1.10)

182
Q

What does PCN mean on the aerodrome operational data?

A

Pavement Classification Number. May be used to specify the strength of pavements at aerodromes with paved runways.

(AIP AD1.11)

183
Q

What Group rating number is your aircraft?

A
184
Q

What does 0.37U mean in operational data of the aerodrome plate?

A

0.37% upslope

185
Q

What does ASDA mean?

A

Accelerate stop distance available.

Takeoff length plus any stopway length.

186
Q

What is a RESA?

A

Runway end safety area

187
Q

What section on the AIP has info on Wale Turbulence?

A

AIP Vol. 1 AD 1.7

188
Q

What wake turbulence category is the ATR/Dash 8 and A320?

A

Medium

189
Q

What’s the minimum wake turbulence distance between a Heavy and a Medium A/C which is flying behind them?

A

5nm

190
Q

A 777 Heavy has just taken off. How long do you have to wait to takeoff behind them?

A

2minutes (both light and medium)

3 minutes if using an intermediate takeoff position (both light an lad medium)

191
Q

Is there any wake turbulence separation between two Medium A/C?

A

No

192
Q

What does NOSIG mean when appended to a METAR?

A

That is a trend, and is indicating that no significant change to the weather is forecast within the next 2 hours.

193
Q

What does WDI stand for in the NOTAMs?

A

Wind Direction Indicator (windsock)

194
Q

What does TAA stand for?

A

Terminal Arrival Altitude

195
Q

How often is an AIP Supplement issued?

A

Every 28 days

(AIP Vol 1. Gen 3.1 - 6)

196
Q

Approx how many times per year is the AIP updated?

A

6 times

(AIP Vol 1 GEN 3.1-16)

197
Q

What is an AMA?

A

Area minimum altitude. Provided on the Enroute Charts.

198
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

VHF Omni-directional Radio Range

199
Q

What does DME stand for?

A

Distance Measuring Equipment

200
Q

What does ILS stand for?

A

Instrument Landing System

201
Q

What does NDB stand for?

A

MF Non-Directional Beacon
(Medium Frequency)

202
Q

What does AWIB stand for?

A

Aerodrome and Weather Information Broadcasts

(AIP Vol 1 3.4-13)

203
Q

How often are METAR issued?

A

Every 30mins.

Unless they are non automatic ones. In which case is is only every 1hour. Not common these days.

204
Q

Why would a SPECI be issued?

A

Special aerodrome reports used in the METAR when the weather changes significantly.

205
Q

What is a TREND?

A

Appended to METAR AUTO’s to forecast a change in the weather conditions over the next 2 hours

206
Q

What does ATIS stand for?

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

207
Q

What does RVR stand for? When will RVR be used?

A

Runway Visual Range. Used when visibility is less then 1500m

208
Q

What is a ROFOR?

A

Route Forecast. Provide info on wind, temperature and significant weather covering a specific route.

209
Q

What does TAF stand for?

A

Terminal Area Forecast

210
Q

How long are TAFs at AKL, WLG and CHC valid for?

How often are they issued?

A

24hours.

4 times a day (every 6 hours)

211
Q

How often are TAFs issues at all aerodrome other then AKL, WLG and CHC?

A

Twice a day

212
Q

Is the wind in a TAF in True or Magnetic?

A

True

213
Q

Is the wind in a METAR in true or magnetic?

A

True

214
Q

Is the wind in the ATIS true or magnetic?

A

Magnetic

215
Q

What constitutes a “ceiling”?

A

BKN or OVC cloud layer.

216
Q

What is a VOLMET?

A

Weather info pack broadcast for Oceanic Flights.

217
Q

What does SIGMET stand for?

A

SIGnificant METeorological information for pilots

218
Q

How long are SIGMETS usually valid for?

A

4 or 6 Hours

219
Q

What does SH stand for?

A

Showers

220
Q

What does FU stand for?

A

Smoke

221
Q

What does VA stand for?

A

Volcanic Ash

222
Q

What does BR stand for?

A

Mist

223
Q

What does HZ stand for?

A

Haze

224
Q

What does SN and SG stand for?

A

Snow and Snow Grains

225
Q

What does PR stand for?

A

Partial

226
Q

What does MI stand for?

A

Shallow

227
Q

What does MIFG stand for?

A

Shallow Fog

228
Q

What does SQ stand for?

A

Squall

229
Q

What doesDS stand for?

A

Dust storm

230
Q

What does TS stand for?

A

Thunderstorms

231
Q

What does BC stand for?

A

Patches

232
Q

What does BCFG stand for?

A

Patches of Fog

233
Q

What does BLSN stand for?

A

Blowing Snow

234
Q

What does FZRA stand for?

A

Freezing Rain

235
Q

What does FZFG stand for?

A

Freezing Fog

236
Q

What does PL stand for?

A

Ice Pellets

237
Q

What does GS stand for?

A

Small Hail

238
Q

What does GR stand for?

A

Hail

239
Q

What does DZ stand for?

A

Drizzle

240
Q

What does DU stand for?

A

Widespread dust

241
Q

What does SS stand for?

A

Sandstorm

242
Q

What does DS stand for?

A

Dust storm

243
Q

What does FC stand for?

A

Funnel Cloud (tornado or waterspout)

244
Q

What area around an aerodrome does the TAF cover?

What about when VC is used?

A

8km radius from aerodrome reference point.

Vicinity 8-16km from aerodrome.

245
Q

Who is Air NZ chief pilot?

A

David Morgan (technically known as Chief Operational Integrity and Safety Officer)

246
Q

Who is Air NZ CFO (Chief Finance Officer)?

A

Richard Thomson

247
Q

Who is Air NZ Chief People Officer?

A

Nikki Dines

248
Q

Who is the Air NZ General Manager (GM) of Pilots?

A

Christine Ody

249
Q

Who is Air NZ Chief Operating Officer (COO)?

A

Alex Marren (female)

250
Q

What is Air NZ current share price?

A

Approx 70cents atm

Interview Study (7 decks)

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