shynra practice ? exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Epitope-specific receptors of T lymphocytes are found
A. as either cytosolic or membrane-bound proteins.
B. in blood plasma, lymph, and other secretory fluids.
C. on the surface of plasma cells.
D. as transmembrane polypeptides.
E. in the nuclear lipid bilayer.

A

D. as transmembrane polypeptides.

The epitope specific TCRs are displayed as membrane-bound molecules on their cell surfaces.
TCRs are not found as soluble molecules. Epitope-specific molecules produced by plasma cells
are genetically distinct from T cell receptor molecules.

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2
Q

Antibodies (immunoglobulins)
A. are synthesized and secreted by both B and T cells.
B. bind to several different epitopes simultaneously.
C. contain four different light chain polypeptides.
D. recognize specific epitopes together with self-molecules.
E. tag antigens for destruction and removal.

A

E. tag antigens for destruction and removal

Antibodies bind to epitopes on antigens to identify them or tag them for destruction by other
elements of the immune system. They are synthesized only by B cells and plasma cells. An
antibody molecule contains two (lgD, lgG, lgE, and serum lgA), four (secretory lgA), or ten
(secreted lgM) identical epitope-binding sites. An antibody monomer contains two identical light
chains and two identical heavy chains. Self-recognition is not required for antibody molecules.

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3
Q
The constant regions of the five major types of heavy chains of immunoglobulin molecules
dictate the molecule's
A. epitope.
B. Fab fragment.
C. isotype.
D. tyrosine activation motif.
E. variable domain.
A

C. isotype

The heavy chain constant regions determine immunoglobulin isotypes: mu (, lgM), delta (,
lgD), gamma (, lgG), epsilon (, lgE), and alpha (, lgA). ab fragments are enzymatic cleavage
products of immunoglobulin monomers. Immuno-receptor tyrosine activation motifs are not
present on immunoglobulin molecules. Variable domains show extensive amino acid sequence
variability among immunoglobulins, even within the same isotype.

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4
Q

When an immunoglobulin molecule is subjected to cleavage by pepsin, the product(s)
A. are individual heavy and light chains.
B. can no longer bind to antigen.
C. consist of two separated antigen-binding fragments.
D. crystallize during storage in the cold.
E. is a dimeric antigen-binding molecule.

A

E. is a dimeric antigen-binding molecule

Enzymatic cleavage of the immunoglobulin monomer by pepsin occurs distal to the variable
domain and distal to heavy-heavy chain disulfide bonds, which remain intact resulting in a
molecule with two epitope-binding sites. lnterchain disulfide bonds are unaffected by pep- sin
cleavage. The epitope-binding site remains intact on pepsin cleavage of the heavy chain. Papain
cleavage of the immunoglobulin monomer occurs distal to the variable domain but proximal to
the heavy-heavy chain disulfide bond, resulting in two separate epitope-binding ab fragments.
Pepsin enzymatically degrades the CH2 portion of the immunoglobulin molecule resulting in
fragments that rarely, if ever, form crystals.

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5
Q

In humans, MHC class II molecules are expressed by
A. all nucleated cells.
B. B cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages.
C. erythrocytes.
D. mast cells.
E. naïve T cells.

A

B. B cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages

B cells, dendritic cells, monocytes, and macrophages constitutively express MHC class II
molecules. Only professional APCs expresses MHC class II molecules and it does not include
mast cells or naive T cells. Erythrocytes do not express MHC class II molecules
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6
Q

The basic structure of a T cell receptor consists of
A. a membrane-bound α/β or γ/δ heterodimer.
B. a complex of disulfide-linked heavy and light chains.
C. covalently linked CD3 and CD247 molecules.
D. peptide-MHC complexes.
E. soluble antigen-binding homodimers.

A

A. a membrane-bound α/β or γ/δ heterodimer.

The T-cell receptor (TCR) is a heterodimer composed of α/β or γ/δ polypeptide chains. Neither
the α/β or γ/δ heterodimers nor their associated molecules (CD3 and CD247) are linked by
disulfide bonds. TCR recognize peptide-MHC complexes on APCs. TCRs are found only on the
surfaces of T cells and are not soluble.

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7
Q
Migration of a B lymphocyte to specific sites (such as a lymph node) is dependent in part on the
use of
A. antibodies.
B. CD8.
C. CD3.
D. complement.
E. selectins.
A

E. selectins.

Selectins are adhesion molecules that participate in the recognition that occurs between
different types of cells and tissues. Antibodies do not serve as guides for such homing. CD8 and
CD3 are expressed on T cells, not on B cells, and are responsible for lymphocyte homing.
Complement fragments may be chemoattractants for leukocytes, but they attract those cells to
the site of immune responses rather than to specific organs.

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8
Q
Which of the following molecules is expressed by a mature T cell that functions as a helper T
cell?
A. CD4
B. CD8
C. GlyCAM-1
D. lgA
E. lgG
A

A. CD4

CD4+ T cells are also called T-helper cells. CD8+ T cells have cytotoxic or suppressive functions.
GlyCAM-1 is an adhesion molecule found on certain vascular epithelial cells within lymph nodes.
lgA and lgG are not expressed on T cells.

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9
Q

Following cytokine binding to a specific cell-surface receptor, a lymphocyte is stimulated to
undergo signaling via the JAK-STAT pathway. In this pathway, which of the following will be
induced to translocate to the cell’s nucleus to regulate transcription?
A. JAK
B. Ras
C. SH2-containing adapter proteins
D. STAT dimers
E, tyrosine kinase

A

D. STAT dimers

STAT dimers translocate into the nucleus. JAKs are cytosolic tyrosine kinases that bind to the
intracellular domain of the tyrosine-phosphorylated receptor and never enter the nucleus. Ras is
a membrane-bound GTP binding protein that is bound by cytosolic proteins with SH2 domains
that also bind to phosphotyrosine residues within the intracellular portion of the receptor.
Catalytic receptors signal by stimulating tyrosine kinase, either of the receptor itself (intrinsic
activity) or by associating with nonreceptor tyrosine kinases (e.g., JAK), neither of which enters
the nucleus.

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10
Q

B lymphocytes synthesize and express immunoglobulin
A. containing multiple epitope specificities.
B. in cytoplasmic phagosomes.
C. in membrane complexes also containing CD3.
D. on their cell membrane surface.
E. only after leaving the bone marrow.

A

D. on their cell membrane surface.

B cells synthesize and express immunoglobulin on their cell surfaces. Immunoglobulins within an
individual B cell contain specificity for one epitope, not several. Cytoplasmic phagosomes are
involved in degradation of unwanted materials. Membrane complexes also containing CD3 are
T-cell receptors (TCR) on the surfaces of T cells. B cells express surface lgM/IgD before leaving
the bone marrow.

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11
Q
Which of the following molecules is expressed on the surface of mature CD4+ T cells?
A. BCRs
B. CD1d
C. CD3
D. CD8
E. CD19
A

C. CD3

Mature T cells (both CD4+ and CD8+) express CD3, a molecular complex associated with the TCR.
CD4+ cells are T cells with T helper function and do not express B-cell receptors. CD1d is a
specialized, non-classical MHC class I molecule on NKT cells. CD8 is a molecule expressed by T
cytotoxic and suppressor cells. CD19 is expressed on B cells.

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12
Q

Positive selection refers to
A. the ability of single positive cells to bind both MHC class I and II.
B. cortical thymocytes’ acquisition of TCR.
C. migration of stem cells to the thymus to become T cells.
D. programmed cell death of single positive T cells.
E. recognition of MHC by CD4+CD8+ thymocytes.

A

E. recognition of MHC by CD4+CD8+ thymocytes.

Positive selection refers to recognition of MHC class I (by CD8) or MHC class II (by CD4) by
double-positive (CD4+CD8+) thymocytes. Single positive thymocytes (and T cells) are either
CD4+ or CD8+ and recognize either MHC class II (CD4) or MHC class I (CD8), but not both.
Cortical thymocytes acquire a nascent TCR as well as CD4 and CD8 surface molecules, resulting
in formation of double-positive (CD4+CD8+) thymocytes. Precursor T cells migrate or traffic from
the bone marrow to the thymus before acquiring CD4 and CD8, which they will do as cortical 
thymocytes. Cells that fail to complete positive selection undergo programmed cell death
(apoptosis).
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13
Q

The white pulp of the spleen is enriched in
A. erythrocytes carrying hemoglobin.
B. CD4+CD8+ T cells binding to MHC.
C. NK cells recognizing targets.
D. plasma cells secreting immunoglobulin.
E. precursor cells developing into mature B cells.

A

D. plasma cells secreting immunoglobulin

The white pulp of the spleen is enriched in plasma cells secreting immunoglobulin, in addition to
B and T lymphocytes. Erythrocytes are found within the red pulp of the spleen. CD4+CD8+ T cells
are found in the thymus. Natural killer cells function within peripheral blood. Precursors of B
cells are located in the bone marrow

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14
Q

A 2-year-old child exposed to an antigen for the first time already possesses a B cell with
immunoglobulin specific for that antigen. This finding is best explained by
A. antigen-independent immunoglobulin gene rearrangements.
B. antigen stimulation of T cell cytokine production.
C. maternally derived antibodies to that antigen.
D. memory B cells that recognize the antigen.
E. somatic hypermutation of immunoglobulins.

A

A. antigen-independent immunoglobulin gene rearrangements.
Determination of antibody specificity occurs prior to and independent from an individual’s first
encounter with antigen. This process begins developmentally during prenatal and neonatal life.
This process is independent of soluble factors (cytokines) produced by T cells and occurs
independently of maternal immune function. By definition, memory B cells have previously
encountered antigen. Somatic hypermutation occurs only after previous exposure to antigen.

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15
Q

Serum immunoglobulins containing both maternally and paternally derived Vκ light chains are
found within an individual. A given B cell, however, expresses only maternally derived or
paternally derived Vκ chains but never both. This finding is the result of
A. allelic exclusion.
B. antibody diversity.
C. isotype switching.
D. junctional diversity.
E. random VD and VDJ joining.

A

A. allelic exclusion.

A given B cell or plasma cell expresses a single maternal or paternal allele of a chromosome pair.
This process, known as allelic exclusion, applies to both heavy and light chain genes. An
additional exclusion allows for the expression of only a κ (chromosome 2) or λ (chromosome 22)
gene, never both within the same cell. Allelic exclusion has only a slight impact on genetic
variation. lsotype switching, junctional diversity, and random V(D)J joining occur after allelic
exclusion.

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16
Q

When Ag-loaded B cell is stimulated by a follicular T helper cell via CD40-CD40L, small point
mutations that accumulate in the DNA encoding variable regions of both light and heavy chains
may result in
A. antigen-stimulated VDJ joining and new antigen specificity.
B. change from production of lgM to lgG.
C. DNA chromosomal rearrangement and altered antigen specificity.
D. inactivation of either the maternal or paternal VL
and VH allele.
E. generation of antibody with increased binding affinity for its epitope.

A

E. generation of antibody with increased binding affinity for its epitope.

Accumulation of point mutations that affect light and heavy chain variable regions may increase
binding affinity for antigen, by “fine-tuning” the antigen-binding site of the resulting
immunoglobulin molecule. This is known as affinity maturation. These point mutations occur
after allelic exclusion and VDJ joining. They do not affect DNA rearrangement, and they do not
appear to affect isotype switching.

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17
Q
T cell precursors, known as pro-thymocytes, migrate from the bone marrow to the thymus in
response to
A. eotactin.
B. IL-4.
C. IL-5.
D. IL-10.
E. lymphotactin.
A

E. lymphotactin

Lymphotactin is one of the thymic products that help to guide pro-thymocytes from the bone
marrow to the thymus. IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10 are cytokines produced by mature, activated T cells
as well as by other cell types. Eotactin guides the movement of eosinophils.

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18
Q
What will be the fate of an early thymocyte that fails to express IL-7 receptors?
A. apoptotic cell death
B. development as a γ/δ T cell
C. development as an NKT cell
D. failure to traffic to the thymus
E. maturation along the B-cell lineage
A

A. apoptotic cell death

ailure to bind IL-7 dooms the developing thymocyte. It will be unable to develop into either an
α/β or γ/δ thymocyte. This interaction occurs after migration of the thymocytes into the thymus.
Thymocytes cannot switch to the B cell developmental pathway.

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19
Q

γ/δ T cells
A. contain very extensive antigen recognition repertoires.
B. express surface markers that are also characteristic of NK cells.
C. generate memory when recognizing antigen on multiple occasions.
D. migrate preferentially to respiratory or organs, skin, and peritoneal cavity.
E. respond more slowly to antigen than do α/β T cells.

A

D. migrate preferentially to respiratory or organs, skin, and peritoneal cavity.

γ/δ T cells are found predominantly in the respiratory organs, skin, and peritoneal cavity. Their
recognition repertoire is far less extensive that found in a T cells. They do not express significant
immunologic memory but do react to antigenic stimuli more rapidly than do α/β T cells.

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20
Q

NKT cells
A. are usually CD8 single positive cells.
B. bind epitopes presented by MHC class II molecules.
C. express TCRs generated by DNA rearrangement and junctional diversity.
D. recognize carbohydrates and complex proteins.
E. synthesize immunoglobulin and display it on their cell surfaces.

A

C. express TCRs generated by DNA rearrangement and junctional diversity.

NKT cells do express TCRs generated (like those of other T cells) by DNA rearrangement and
junctional diversity. They are CD4+ or CD4+CD8+. Despite this, their TCRs recognize lipid-related
molecular fragments presented by the non-classical class I molecule CD1d. They do not
synthesize or express immunoglobulins.

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21
Q

Pre-pro-B cells
A. contain either κ or λ light chains.
B. demonstrate surface expression of pseudo-lgM.
C. express lgα and lgβ BCR accessory molecules.
D. have VDJ joining of genes.
E. express surrogate light chains.

A

C. express lgα and lgβ BCR accessory molecules.

Pre-pro-B cells initially express lgα and lβ molecules. The synthesis of heavy and light chains
(including surrogate light chains) occurs at later stages of development.

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22
Q

. In contrast to B-2 B cells, B-1 B cells
A. appear later in development.
B. function in innate-related immune responses.
C. express more lgD than lgM on their cell surfaces.
D. have a more extensive antigen recognition repertoire.
E. require interaction with T cells for their activation.

A

B. function in innate-related immune responses.

B-1 B cells appear to be transitional types of lymphocytes whose functions are reminiscent of
the innate immune system. B-1 B cells express more surface lgM than lgD and B-2 B cells express
more surface lgD than lgM. The B-1 B cell repertoire is more limited, and their need for
interaction with T cells is more limited than is seen for B-2 B cells. B-1 B cells appear
developmentally earlier than B-2 B cells.

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23
Q

T cells recognize epitopes they have never before encountered by
A. randomly generating enormous numbers of TCRs prior to antigenic encounter.
B. sampling the environment using phagocytosis and pinocytosis.
C. synthesizing immunoglobulins specific for a wide variety of epitopes.
D. selecting widely expressed molecules as TCR ligands.
E. using germline encoded pattern recognition receptors.

A

A. randomly generating enormous numbers of TCRs prior to antigenic encounter.

T-cell receptors are randomly generated prior to any engagement with antigens. Phagocytic cells
use phagocytosis and pinocytosis to internalize antigens without regard to the specificity of the
ingested material. T cells do not synthesize immunoglobulins. The selection for receptors
recognizing a widely expressed set of microbial molecules is a property of toll-like receptors, not
of T-cell receptors. The germline encoded pattern recognition receptors are toll-like receptors.

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24
Q
Which of the following naïve cells load peptide fragments into MHC class II molecules?
A. CD4+ T cells
B. CD8+ T cells
C. dendritic cells
D. γ/δ T cells
E. neutrophils
A

C. dendritic cells

Of those cell types listed, only dendritic cells can process peptide fragments and load them on
MHC II molecules for presentation. Lymphocytes, whether of the C04+, CD8+, or γ/δ type,
cannot do this. Neutrophils can ingest peptides and degrade them but do not synthesize MHC II
molecules

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25
Fragments of a cytoplasmic pathogen are presented to T cells by A. direct engagement of cell surface pattern recognition receptors. B. macropinocytosis into γ/δ T cells. C. MHC class I molecules to CD8+ T cells. D. phagocytosis and presentation to CD4+ T cells. E. placement into endocytic vesicles or complexing with class II MHC
C. MHC class I molecules to CD8+ T cells ``` Peptides derived in cytoplasm are presented by class I MHC molecules. Pattern recognition receptors do not present peptides to T cells nor do γ/δ TT cells. CD8+ T cells recognize peptide fragments presented by class I MHC molecules. They are not processed in endocytic vesicles for presentation by class II MHC to CD4+ T cells. ```
26
The term immunologic synapse refers to A. PAMP recognition by pattern recognition receptors. B. restriction of CD4+ T cells to MHC class I. C. selective unresponsiveness of T cells. D. T cell recognition of soluble molecules. E. the interface between antigen-presenting cells and T cells.
E. the interface between antigen-presenting cells and T cells. The immunologic synapse is the interface between T cells and APCs. It does not refer to the recognition and binding by pattern recognition receptors. CD4+ T cells are restricted to the recognition of peptide presented by MHC II molecules. The selective unresponsiveness of T cells is called tolerance or anergy. T-cell receptors do not recognize soluble molecules.
27
``` CD4+ T cells that respond to intracellular pathogens by recruiting and activating phagocytic cells are termed A. antigen-presenting cells. B. cytotoxic T lymphocytes. C. Th0 cells. D. Th1 cells. E. Th2 cells. ```
D. Th1 cells CD4+ Th1 cells recruit and activate macrophages to destroy intracellular pathogens. Antigenpresenting cells are not T cells. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are CD8+. Th0 and Th2 cells, although also being CD4+, do not engage in this activity.
28
Upon encountering an appropriate peptide-MHC I on an infected cell, A. B-cell receptors become cross-linked and signaling ensues. B. CD4+ cells release IL-4. C. CD8+ cytotoxic T cells destroy the infected cell. D. naïve Th1 cells secrete cytokines. E. Th0 cells differentiate into Th2 cells
C. CD8+ cytotoxic T cells destroy the infected cell. Once activated, cytotoxic T lymphocytes can bind and destroy infected cells expressing peptideMHC I complexes recognized by their T-cell receptors. Neither B cells nor CD4+ T cells recognize peptide-MHC I. T helper cells – whether Th0, Th1, or Th2 – are CD4+ and do not recognize peptide-MHC I.
29
Activation of an individual naïve B cell involves binding of Ag-associated epitopes leading to A. dendritic cell presentation of MHC class I. B. recognition of different epitopes by surface lgD and lgM. C. signaling from the B-cell receptor. D. the isotype switch. E. ubiquitination and destruction of antigen by proteasomes.
C. signaling from the B-cell receptor. Activation of a naïve B calls requires the engagement of its BCR (immunoglobulin). The B cell does not require interaction with antigen-presenting cells such as dendritic cells. The IgD and lgM on its surface have the same epitope specificity. Turnover of cytoplasmic molecules by proteasomes is a normal ongoing activity, but is not involved in the naïve B cell's activation. The isotype switch occurs only after B cell interaction with TH cell.
30
``` A state of T-lymphocyte nonresponsiveness that occurs following peptide-MHC engagement is known as A. allergy. B. apoptosis. C. anergy. D. autoimmunity. E. hypersensitivity. ```
C. anergy. Anergy is a state of nonreactivity that occurs when a lymphocyte receives a stimulus through its TCR or BCR in the absence of the additional appropriate signals provides by antigen-presenting cells or T cells. Allergy involves the degranulation of mast cells following binding of antigen to lgE molecules already affixed to the mast cell surfaces. Apoptosis is the programmed death of a cell through degradation of its nucleic acids. Autoimmunity is the active response of the immune system against self-epitopes. Hyper- sensitivity is a response mediated by activated lymphocytes or their products. Allergy is one form of hypersensitivity.
31
Which of the following cells have been implicated in the prevention of autoimmune responses (e.g., inflammatory bowel disease) and in the prevention of some nonself responses? A. Antigen-presenting cells B. Anergized T cells C. CD4+CD25+ Treg cells D. Follicular dendritic cells E. Naïve T cells
C. CD4+CD25+ Treg cells CD4+CD25+ Treg cells inhibit various responses against self-epitopes as well as some responses against epitopes associated with infectious agents and tumors. Antigen-presenting cells do not have this capacity. Anergized cells are inactive. Follicular dendritic cells are involved in the display of antigen to B cells in the LNs. Naïve T cells require activation before they can begin to carry out any of their effector functions.
32
``` Which of the following cells require interaction with both peptide-MHC (signal 1) and a set of costimulatory second signals (signal 2) from an Ag-loaded mature dendritic cell to become activated? A. Anergized T cells B. B cells C. Mast cells D. Naïve T cells E. Natural killer cells ```
D. Naïve T cells Dendritic cells are professional APCs which control the activation of naïve T cells cells. Anergized T cells remain refractory to subsequent engagement of peptide-MHC and remain quiescent. B cells do not require binding of peptide-MHC for activation. Mast cells become activated and degranulated via the binding of antigen to lgE molecules already affixed to the mast cell surfaces. Natural killer cells do not have receptors for binding peptide-MHC.
33
Which of the following comparisons between Th1 and Th2 cells is true? A. Th1 cells produce IL-1 but not IL-2, and Th2 cells produce IL-2 but not IL-1. B. Th1 cells are class I MHC restricted, and Th2 cells are class II MHC restricted. C. The chemokine receptors CXCR3 and CCR5 are more highly expressed on Th2 cells than on Th1 cells. D. Th2 cells are more likely to bind to E-selectin and P-selectin on endothelial cells than are Th1 cells. E. Th1 cells produce IFN-γ but not IL-4, and Th2 cells produce IL-4 but not IFN-γ
E. Th1 cells produce IFN-γ but not IL-4, and Th2 cells produce IL-4 but not IFN-γ The signature cytokines of Th1 and Th2 cells are IFN-γ and IL-4, respectively. IL-5 and IL-13 are also very specific for Th2 cells. IL-1 is not typically produced by helper T cells of either subset. IL- 2 is produced by Th1 cells. Both Th1 and Th2 cells are CD4+ helper T cells, and therefore are both restricted to recognizing peptide antigens bound to class II MHC molecules. The trafficking patterns of Th1 and Th2 cells differ, and this is related to differences in the expression of adhesion molecules and chemokine receptors. Th1 cells express abundant functional ligands for E-selectin and P-selectin and the chemokine receptors CXCR3 and CCR5, which bind to various chemokines found at sites of active innate immune responses. Th2 cells bind poorly to endothelial selectins and express less CXCR3 and CCR5.
34
``` Which of the following molecules is NOT important in the interaction between a cytolytic T lymphocyte and a target cell? A. B7-1 B. ICAM-1 C. LFA-1 D. T cell receptor E. Class I MHC ```
A. B7-1 Although naive CD8+ T cells require second signals, such as B7 costimulation, in order to differentiate into effector cytolytic T lymphocyte (CTL), once differentiated, the CTL can kill a target cell that does not express costimulatory molecules. The CTL only requires one signal for killing of the target cell, which depends on the T cell receptor binding to a peptide-class I MHC complex on the surface of the target cell. Tight adhesion between the CTL and target cell is also required, and this is often mediated by T cell integrin LFA-1 binding to target cell ICAM-1.
35
A 5-year-old boy has a history of recurrent pneumococcal pneumonia, Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), and bacterial ear infections. His maternal uncle and an older brother experienced the same symptoms, but he has an older sister who is healthy. Laboratory studies indicate normal numbers of B cells and T cells, and the serum contains mostly IgM and very little IgG. If this patient did have a sister affected with the same condition, which of the following genes would most likely contain a mutation? A. AID (activation-induced deaminase) B. CD40 C. CD40L D. CD28 E. CTLA-4
C. CD40L If the patient’s sister is also affected with hyper-IgM syndrome, then the inheritance pattern is autosomal recessive. Both the AID and CD40 genes are located on autosomal chromosomes, and mutations in both have been identified as causes of hyper-IgM syndrome. However, only a mutation in CD40 will result in reduced macrophage function and susceptibility to Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, as is observed in this patient.
36
Which one of the following statements accurately describes antigen recognition events in a lymph node during a helper T cell–dependent antibody response to a protein antigen? A. Naive B cells and naive T cells simultaneously recognize the intact protein antigen. B. Naive B cells recognize intact proteins, generate peptide fragments of these proteins, and present them in complexes with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules to naive helper T cells. C. Naive B cells recognize intact proteins, generate peptide fragments of these proteins, and present them in complexes with MHC molecules to differentiated helper T cells. D. Naive T cells recognize peptides bound to MHC molecules presented by dendritic cells, and naive B cells recognize the intact protein antigen bound to the surface of follicular dendritic cells. E. Differentiated helper T cells recognize peptides bound to MHC molecules on dendritic cells, and the T cells secrete cytokines that promote antibody production by any nearby B cells that have recognized different protein antigens.
C. Naive B cells recognize intact proteins, generate peptide fragments of these proteins, and present them in complexes with MHC molecules to differentiated helper T cells. T cells and B cells cannot recognize the same protein antigen molecule simultaneously because T cells only recognize peptide-MHC complexes. B cells bind intact proteins, internalize them via surface Ig, and then present peptide-MHC complexes to helper T cells, not to naive T cells. The helper T cells specific for the peptide-MHC complexes have been differentiated from naive T cells that recognized the same peptide-MHC complexes presented by dendritic cells. Follicular dendritic cells display intact protein antigens to previously activated (but not naive) B cells during the germinal center reaction. Collaboration of T cells and B cells requires direct contact of T cells and B cells specific for the same antigen, even though the antigen recognition events are not simultaneous, because the bidirectional activation requires membrane-bound molecules (i.e., CD40 ligand on the T cells and CD40 on the B cells).
37
Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the change from B cell production of membrane Ig to secreted Ig? A. V(D)J recombinase-mediated deletion of the exon encoding the transmembrane domain B. Alternative processing of primary RNA transcripts to remove the transmembrane domain and include a secretory tail piece C. Increased vesicular exocytosis of intracellular stores of the secretory form of Ig D. Switch recombinase-mediated recombination of the heavy chain locus to juxtapose the V(D)J segment with the exon encoding a secretory tail piece E. Up-regulation of enzymes that proteolytically cleave membrane Ig heavy chains just proximal to the membrane
B. Alternative processing of primary RNA transcripts to remove the transmembrane domain and include a secretory tail piece Primary transcripts of Ig genes include sequences encoding both transmembrane and secretory tail piece domains. Alternative splicing of these transcripts determines which form of Ig is ultimately made. V(D)J recombinases are not involved in modifications of Ig heavy chain expression, and switch recombinases are only involved in changes in DNA related to isotype switching. Membrane Ig is not cleaved to form secretory Ig.
38
``` Which one of the following molecules is important for the production of IgE antibodies? A. CD28 B. CD40 C. IFN-γ D. IL-2 E. TGF-β ```
B. CD40 Cytokines play essential roles in regulating the switch to particular heavy chain isotypes. IFN-γ is important in switching to the IgG isotype, whereas TGF-β is a stimulator of IgA production. The cytokine that promotes IgE production is IL-4, but this is not an answer choice. However, the process of isotype switching in general is known to depend on signaling through CD40L-CD40, and is also dependent on the activity of the enzyme activation-induced deaminase (AID). CD28 is a costimulatory molecule that is important for T cell activation and CD40L up-regulation. However, other costimulatory molecules are also present on T cells that can cause up-regulation of CD40L. IL-2 is a growth factor cytokine for T cells.
39
``` Which of the following antigenic structures might activate B cell antibody production without the aid of T cells? A. Lysozyme B. Benzene C. Glucose-6-phosphate D. ABO blood group antigen E. Rh factor antigen ```
D. ABO blood group antigen T cell–independent antigens consist of polysaccharides, glycolipids, and nucleic acids with multiple repeated epitopes, so that maximal cross-linking of the B cell receptor is induced, thus bypassing the need for T cell help. Of the answer choices, the best choice is the ABO blood group antigen, because of its polyvalent glycolipid structure. Lysozyme and the Rh factor are protein antigens. Benzene and glucose-6-phosphate are not polyvalent
40
``` The symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome result from excessive activation of: A. B-cells B. CD4+ T cells C. CD8+ T cells D. dendritic cells E. plasma cells ```
B. CD4+ T cells The superantigen exotoxins of Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes are among the most potent T cell mitogens known. The superantigens able to bind MHC class II and the TCR simultaneously. Toxic shock syndrome is a complication of Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes infections in which bacterial toxins act as superantigens, activating very large numbers of CD4+ T cells and generating an overwhelming immune-mediated cytokine avalanche that manifests clinically as fever, rash, shock, and rapidly progressive multiple organ failure, often in young, previously healthy patients
41
The role of the APC in the immune response is all of the following except: A. the limited catabolism of polypeptide antigens B. to allow selective association of MHC gene products and peptides C. to supply second signals required to fully activate T cells D. to present nonself-peptides associated with MHC class I molecules to CD4+ T cells E. to present peptide-MHC complexes to T cells with the appropriate receptor
D. to present nonself-peptides associated with MHC class I molecules to CD4+ T cells ``` The APC presents peptide-MHC class I to CD8+ T cells and peptide-MHC class II to CD4+ T cells. The other statements are all features of an APC such as a dendritic cell. ```
42
The DNA for an H chain in a B cell making IgG2 antibody for diphtheria toxoid has the following structure: 5'-V17D5J2---Cγ2-Cγ4-Cε-Cα2-3'. How many individual rearrangements were required to go from the embryonic DNA to this B-cell DNA? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
C. 3 Three DNA rearrangements are required. First, D5J2 rearrangement occurs, followed by V17D5J2. This permits synthesis of IgM and IgD molecules using V17D5J2. The third rearrangement is the class switch of V17D5J2CµCδ to V17D5J2Cγ2, leading to the synthesis of IgG2 molecules.
43
If you had 50 V, 20 D, and 6 J regions able to code for a heavy chain and 40 V and 5 J-region genes able to code for a light chain, you could have a maximum repertoire of: A. 76 +45 = 121 antibody specificities B. 76 x 45 = 3420 specificities C. (40 x 5) + (50 x 20 x 6) = 6200 specificities D. (40 x 5) x (50 x 20 x 6) = 1,200,000 specificities E. more than 1,200,000 specificities
E. more than 1,200,000 specificities While 1,200,000 would be the product of all possible combinations of genes, many more antibody specificities are likely to be generated as a result of junctional diversity at the sites of V, D, and J gene segment joining (caused by imprecise joining, deletions, and nucleotide insertions) and somatic hypermutation.
44
The ability of a single B cell to express both lgM and IgD molecules on its surface at the same time is made possible by: A. allelic exclusion B. isotype switching C. simultaneous recognition of two distinct antigens D. alternative RNA splicing E. use of genes from both parental chromosomes
D. alternative RNA splicing The simultaneous synthesis of lgM and IgD is made possible by the alternative splicing of the primary RNA transcript 5’-VDJ-CµCδ-3’ to give either 5’-VDJ-Cµ-3’ or 5’-VDJ-Cδ-3’.
45
Which of the following statements concerning the organization of lg genes is correct? A. V and J regions of embryonic DNA have already undergone a rearrangement. B. Light-chain genes undergo further rearrangement after surface IgM is expressed. C. VH gene segments can rearrange with Jκ or Jλ gene segments. D. The VDJ segments coding for an Ig VH region may associate with different heavy-chain constant-region genes. E. After VDJ joining has occurred, a further rearrangement is required to bring the VDJ unit next to the Cµ gene.
D. The VDJ segments coding for an Ig VH region may associate with different heavy-chain constant-region genes. ``` The association of VDJ segments coding for an Ig VH region with different heavy-chain constantregion genes is the basis of isotype or class switching. ```
46
Which of the following does not contribute to the antigen-binding site diversity of B-cell antigen receptors? A. multiple V genes in the germline B. random assortment of L and H chains C. imprecise recombination of V and J or V, D, and J segments D. inheritance of multiple C-region genes E. somatic hypermutation
D. inheritance of multiple C-region genes The presence of multiple CH region genes does provide the basis for functional diversity of lg molecules but does not contribute to the diversity of antigen-specific receptors.
47
Which of the following plays a role in changing the antigen binding site of a B cell after antigenic stimulation? A. junctional diversity B. combinatorial diversity C. germline diversity D. somatic hypermutation E. differential splicing of primary RNA transcripts
D. somatic hypermutation Of the mechanisms described for generating diversity of Ig molecules, only somatic hypermutation affects the antigen binding site after antigen stimulation.
48
The earliest stages of B-cell differentiation: A. occur in the embryonic thymus B. require the presence of antigen C. involve rearrangement of κ-chain gene segments D. involve rearrangement of surrogate light-chain gene segments E. involve rearrangement of heavy-chain gene segments
E. involve rearrangement of heavy-chain gene segments The earliest events in B-cell differentiation take place in fetal liver and bone marrow in the adult and involve rearrangement of heavy-chain V, D, and J gene segments.
49
``` Which of the following is expressed on the surface of the mature B lymphocyte? A. CD40 B. MHC class II molecules C. CD19 D. IgM and Ig D E. all of the above ```
E. all of the above All the molecules are expressed on the surface of the mature B cell.
50
When IL-2 is secreted by antigen-specific T cells activated due to presentation of antigen by APC, what happens to naive antigen-nonspecific T cells in the vicinity? A. They proliferate due to their exposure to IL-2. B. They often undergo apoptosis. C. They begin to express IL-2 receptors. D. They secrete cytokines associated with their T cell phenotype. E. Nothing happens.
E. Nothing happens Cytokines secreted by antigen-activated T cells only regulate the activities of other cells involved in that immune response by binding to cytokine receptors (e.g., high-affinity IL-2R ) expressed by these cells. Such cytokine receptors are upregulated only on anti gen-activated T cells that bear the appropriate TCR for that antigen; because they are not upregulated on antigennonspecific T cells in the vicinity, these cells will not be activated by IL-2.
51
Which of the following statements about IL-2 is incorrect? A. It is produced primarily by activated macrophages. B. It is produced by CD4+ T cells. C. It can induce the proliferation of CD4+ T cells. D. It binds to a specific receptor on CD4+ T cells. E. It can activate CD8+ T cells in the presence of antigen.
A. It is produced primarily by activated macrophages IL-2 is produced almost exclusively by activated T cells.
52
Which of the following statements about the activation of CD4+ T cells is incorrect? A. Activation results in rapid phosphorylation of tyrosine residues in proteins associated with the TCR. B. Intracellular calcium levels rise rapidly following activation. C. The interaction between peptide-MHC class II on an APC and the TCR of an appropriate CD4+ T cell is necessary and sufficient for full T-cell activation. D. Interaction of B7 and CD28 stabilizes IL-2 mRNA so that effective IL-2 translation occurs. E. The activated cell synthesizes IL-2 and IL-2Rα.
C. The interaction between peptide-MHC class II on an APC and the TCR of an appropriate CD4+ T cell is necessary and sufficient for full T-cell activation. ``` Peptide-MHC class II interacting with the TCR is the crit-ical, antigen-specific first signal required for CD4+ T-cell activation, but costimulatory or second signals are required for full activation ```
53
Which of the following statements about CD8+ CTL is incorrect? A. They lyse targets via perforin and granzymes. B. They cause target cell apoptosis. C. They cannot kill CD4+ T cells. D. They interact with their target through paired cell surface molecules. E. They must be activated before exerting their cytotoxic function.
C. They cannot kill CD4+ T cells. ``` A CD8+ CTL can kill any cell expressing an MHC class I molecule in association with a nonselfpeptide, including, for example, a CD4+ T cell infected with HIV. ```
54
Bacterial lipopolysaccharide, a T cell-independent antigen, stimulates antibody production in mice. Which of the following is incorrect? A. The antibody produced will be predominantly lgM. B. Memory B cells will not be induced. C. IL-4 and IL-5 are required for the production of antibody during the response. D. The polymeric nature of the antigen cross-links B-cell surface receptors. E. B-cell activation involves phosphorylation of intracellular molecules.
C. IL-4 and IL-5 are required for the production of antibody during the response T cell-independent antigens, because they do not generate T-cell-derived cytokines, do not produce IL-4 or IL-5. Thus, no isotype switching or memory cell induction occurs in the response to T cell-independent anti gens.
55
If you could analyze at the molecular level a plasma cell making lgA antibody, you would find all of the following except : A. DNA sequence for V, D, and J genes translocated near the Cα DNA exon B. mRNA specific for either κ or λ light chains C. mRNA specific for J chains D. mRNA specific for µ chains E. DNA sequence coding for the T-cell receptor for antigen
D. mRNA specific for µ chains As a consequence of the rearrangement of the VDJ to Cα in the lgA-producing cell, the gene will have been deleted. The other DNA sequences and mRNA species will be found in the cell.
56
A 5-year-old boy has a history of recurrent pneumococcal pneumonia, Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), and bacterial ear infections. His maternal uncle and an older brother experienced the same symptoms, but he has an older sister who is healthy. Laboratory studies indicate normal numbers of B cells and T cells, and the serum contains mostly IgM and very little IgG. Which of the following abnormalities would NOT be likely in this patient? A. The IgG antibodies that are present are of lower affinity for antigen than of those of a healthy individual. B. Lymph nodes are without well-developed follicles containing germinal centers. C. Macrophage killing of intracellular microbes is impaired. D. There is limited diversity in the repertoire of IgM antibodies produced. E. There is no evidence of somatic mutation of IgM variable regions.
D. There is limited diversity in the repertoire of IgM antibodies produced. This is a common presentation of hyper-IgM syndrome. Patients with this disease have B cells that are unable to undergo isotype switching, and therefore contain only IgM in the serum but very low levels of IgG, IgA, and IgE. Clinically, these patients are susceptible to bacterial infections and often present with a history of recurrent pneumonia, otitis media, and gastrointestinal infections. Mutations in genes coding for CD40L, CD40, and activation-induced deaminase (AID) have been identified in these patients. During an immune response, T cell interactions with B cells via CD40L-CD40, as well as active AID, are both essential for numerous processes, including isotype switching, somatic mutation, and germinal center formation. Thus, patients with hyper-IgM syndrome produce antibodies that typically have a lower affinity for antigen (due to the lack of somatic mutation) and do not develop large follicles containing a light zone and dark zone (germinal center) within lymph nodes. Mechanisms of generation of diversity of the Ig repertoire should not be impaired in this patient. Although somatic mutation of variable regions will be impaired, this will not be manifest in IgM antibodies. In addition, patients with either CD40L or CD40 mutations, but not AID mutations, will have an increased susceptibility to certain intracellular infections (such as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia), because the
57
``` Eosinophilia in allergic diseases such as allergic rhinitis or asthma is driven by allergen activated Th2 cells. Which cytokine is most important in mediating increased activation and survival eosinophils? A. IL-4 B. IL-13 C. IFN-gamma D. IL-5 E. Eotaxin ```
D. IL-5 IL-5 is recognized as the major maturation and differentiation factor for eosinophils in mice and humans. Over-expression of IL-5 significantly increases eosinophil numbers in vivo. Conversely, mice lacking a functional gene for IL-5 or the IL-5 receptor alpha chain (IL-5Rα) display a number of developmental and functional impairments in eosinophil lineages. IL-5 critically regulates expression of genes involved in proliferation, cell survival and maturation and effector functions of eosinophils. Thus, IL-5 plays a pivotal role in innate immune responses and eosinophilia
58
In addition to the well-established Th1 and Th2 subsets recently Th17 cells were described. Which cytokines are being released in high amounts by these subsets? A. Th1: Interferon-alpha, Th2: IL-15, Th17: IL-17 B. Th1: IL-1, Th2: IL-2, Th17: IL-17 C. Th1: IFN-γ, Th2: IL-4, Th17: IL-22 D. Th1: IL-12, Th2: IL-4, Th17: IL-17 E. Th1: TNF-β, Th2: IL-6, Th17: IL-22
C. Th1: IFN-γ, Th2: IL-4, Th17: IL-22 T helper cells can be subdivided into IL-2/IFN-γ-secreting Th1, IL-4/IL-5-secreting Th2, and IL- 17/IL-22-secreting Th17 cells.
59
Immunocompetent T lymphocytes are selected in the thymus. What is the fate of the T cells that have a high affinity for self-MHC? A. Clonal expansion and migration to the peripheral lymph nodes B. Clonal anergy C. Migration to the peripheral lymphoid organs where they go into apoptosis D. Deletion in the thymus via induction of apoptosis E. Homing to the bone marrow as part of a feedback loop
D. Deletion in the thymus via induction of apoptosis Somatic recombination of TCR genes in immature thymocytes results in some cells with useful TCR specificities, but also many with useless or potentially self-reactive specificities. Thus thymic selection mechanisms operate to shape the T-cell repertoire. Thymocytes that have a TCR with low affinity for self-peptide–MHC complexes are positively selected to further differentiate and function in adaptive immunity. Clonal deletion by apoptosis is the major processes in the thymus that eliminate self-reactive T cells. Although these processes are thought to be efficient, they fail to control self-reactivity in all circumstances. Thus, peripheral tolerance processes exist wherein self-reactive T cells become functionally unresponsive due to the presents Treg cell clones specific to the same Ag.
60
Members of the immunoglobulin superfamily are mainly molecules with a receptor function. Which of the following molecules have the MHC II as its natural ligand? A. CD2 B. CD3 C. CD4 D. TCRαβ E. CD28
C. CD4 CD4 is a critical component of the T cell receptor complex that recognizes peptides bound to MHC class II molecules. This can be observed at all stages of T cell development, activation, and function. CD4 has been termed a co-receptor to indicate that its most important activity is to bind class II MHC and to transduce positive activating signals in conjunction with the T cell recepto
61
``` The first immunoglobulin heavy chain class to be expressed on the surface of a newly produced B-cell is: A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG E. IgM ```
E. IgM ``` IgM is the first immunoglobulin class to be expressed on the surface of the developing B-cells, shortly followed by IgD. Early mature B-cells co-express IgM and IgD antibodies of identical antigen specificity ```
62
A B-cell is able to make cell-surface and secreted versions of antibody using: A. Different gene pools. B. Differential splicing. C. Different heavy chain class but the same light chain. D. Different light chain class but the same heavy chain. E. F(ab')2 fragments.
B. Differential splicing. Differential (alternative) splicing of a primary RNA transcript can produce antibody either with or without exons encoding a hydrophobic transmembrane sequence which leads to retention of antibody in the cell surface membrane.
63
The cytoplasmic region of surface IgM consists of: A. A single H chain constant region domain. B. A light chain. C. 110 amino acids. D. 3 amino acids. E. Carbohydrate.
D. 3 amino acids ``` This is too short to directly transmit a signal into the cell following antigen binding, a function carried out by the Ig-alpha and Ig-beta accessory molecules. ```
64
The percentage of human peripheral blood T-cells bearing a gamma delta T-cell receptor is: A. 30–80%. B. 1-5%. C. 100%. D. 0%. E. Only present during mycobacterial infections.
B. 1-5%. Although they constitute a minority of the peripheral blood T-cells in man, gamma delta T-cells are more heavily represented in intestinal epithelium and in skin.
65
``` A chromosome on which T-cell receptor alpha chain gene rearrangement has occurred lacks which of the following gene segments: A. Joining (J). B. Diversity (D). C. Variable (V). D. Constant (C). E. TCR beta chain. ```
B. Diversity (D). The T-cell receptor alpha chain genes do not possess D gene segments, although the delta chain genes do. However, because the delta chain locus is found entirely within the alpha chain locus and is located between the V alpha and the J alpha gene segments, any alpha chain gene rearrangements lead to the loss of the delta chain gene segments, including all of the D delta segments.
66
``` Expression of MHC genes is: A. Codominant. B. Dominant for maternal genes. C. Dominant for paternal genes. D. Dependent on thymic selection. E. Totally dependent on the antigenic exposure of the individual. ```
A. Codominant The MHC molecules encoded by both parental genes are expressed. .
67
``` The molecules mediating signal transduction following antigen binding to cell surface immunoglobulin on a B-cell are called: A. Ig Fc B. Ig-alpha and Ig-beta C. MHC D. CD4 E. CD8 ```
B. Ig-alpha and Ig-beta Ig-alpha and Ig-beta possess C-terminal cytoplasmic regions which become phosphorylated upon cross-linking of membrane immunoglobulin, leading to a rapid mobilization of intracellular calcium.
68
``` The T-cell receptor for antigen is: A. Derived from the immunoglobulin gene pool by alternative splicing. B. A tetramer. C. A homodimer. D. A heterodimer. E. A single chain molecule. ```
D. A heterodimer. There are two versions of the T-cell receptor, both of which are heterodimers consisting of an alpha chain and a beta chain, or a gamma chain and a delta chain
69
``` The T-cell receptor antigen recognition signal is transduced by: A. The TCR alpha chain. B. The TCR beta chain. C. CD1. D. CD2. E. CD3. ```
E. CD3 CD3 is a molecule composed of five polypeptide chains (CD3-gamma, -delta, and - epsilon plus zeta-zeta, eta-eta or zeta-eta), which transduces the antigen recognition signal received by the T-cell receptor heterodimer to the inside of the cell
70
MHC class II molecules are found on: A. Virtually all cells in the body. B. B cells, dendritic cells and macrophages. C. Only gamma-interferon activated cells. D. Virtually all nucleated cells in the body. E. Only on virally-infected cells.
B. B cells, dendritic cells and macrophages. These cells are able to present processed endogenous antigen to CD4+ T-cells
71
The following is characteristic of B- but not T-cells: A. Class I MHC. B. CD3. C. Measles virus receptor. D. Polyclonal activation by concanavalin A. E. Surface immunoglobulin.
E. Surface immunoglobulin. B-cells express surface immunoglobulin of a specificity created by that cell's particular immunoglobulin gene recombination. A totally different gene set encodes the T-cell receptor for antigen.
72
. When a resting naive T-cell engages its specific MHC/peptide complex displayed on the surface of a fibroblast it: A. Undergoes blast cell formation. B. Produces IL-2. C. Moves from Go to G1 of the cell cycle. D. Becomes anergic. E. Secretes IL-1.
D. Becomes anergic In the absence of costimulator, a cell becomes anergic and incapable of subsequent response to the specific antigen.
73
``` The T-cell ligand binding B7 on a professional antigen-presenting cell is: A. CD28 B. CD2 C. LFA-1 D. ICAM-1 E. VCAM-1 ```
A. CD28 An alternative ligand for B7, present on activated T-cells, is CTLA-4.
74
Protein tyrosine kinase activity following T-cell stimulation: A. Phosphorylates and thereby activates phospholipase C gamma 1. B. Is an inherent property of the T-cell receptor alpha and beta chains. C. Is an inherent property of CD3. D. Is unaffected by herbimycin A. E. Is unrelated to phosphorylation of the CD3-associated zeta chains.
A. Phosphorylates and thereby activates phospholipase C gamma 1 The tyrosine kinase activates the phospholipase, which accelerates the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-diphosphate to diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate
75
The early increase in phospholipase C gamma 1 activity following T-cell stimulation: A. Represents a sensitive regulatory negative feedback control mechanism. B. Dephosphorylates protein tyrosine kinase inhibitors. C. Accelerates hydrolysis of diacylglycerol. D. Accelerates hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol diphosphate. E. Accelerates hydrolysis of inositol triphosphate.
D. Accelerates hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol diphosphate The enzyme splits phosphatidylinositol diphosphate to diacylglycerol and inositol triphosphate
76
The nuclear AP-1 site responsible for 90% of IL-2 enhancer activity binds: A. The Oct – 1 transcriptional factor. B. The Fos/Jun transcription factors. C. The nuclear factor of activated T-cells (NFAT). D. The NF-kappa B transcriptional factor. E. Polyclonal mitogenic agents such as concanavalin A.
B. The Fos/Jun transcription factors The MAP kinase JNK phosphorylates Jun, which then binds as a binary complex with Fos to the AP-1 site.
77
In the immunological synapse: A. The acetylcholine receptor in expressed on the T-cell. B. Production of substance P by the antigen-presenting cell is a key event. C. The initial interaction between TCR and MHC is unstable. D. Adhesion molecule pairs eventually move to the center of the synapse. E. The B7–CD28 interaction is redundant
C. The initial interaction between TCR and MHC is unstable. One of the main functions of the immunological synapse is thought to be to cement the initially unstable interactions between TCR and MHC in order that optimal activation of the T-cell can occur.
78
T-cell help for antibody production: A. Depends on T-cell recognition of native antigen bound to B-cell surface Ig. B. Depends on T-cell recognition of antigen processed by the B-cell. C. Involves class I MHC on the B-cell. D. Can occur in X-irradiated mice. E. Is a feature of the antibody response to pneumococcal polysaccharide.
B. Depends on T-cell recognition of antigen processed by the B-cell. ``` The native antigen binds to B-cell surface Ig, is taken inside the cell, processed and the peptide placed as a complex with class II MHC on the cell surface where it is recognized by T-helper cells. ```
79
Cross-linking of B-cell surface receptors: A. Is a characteristic feature of thymus-dependent antigens. B. Lowers the intracellular Ca++ concentration. C. Rapidly phosphorylates the Ig-alpha and Ig-beta chains of the surface Ig receptor. D. Requires contiguity of 2 B-cell epitopes of different specificity on the same antigen molecule. E. Cannot be achieved by anti-idiotypic antibodies.
C. Rapidly phosphorylates the Ig-alpha and Ig-beta chains of the surface Ig receptor. Within one minute of surface Ig ligation there is rapid phosphorylation of the Ig-alpha and Ig-beta chains and a subsequent rise in intracellular calcium.
80
``` Activation of resting B-cells by T-helpers depends directly upon costimulatory interaction between: A. CD40 and CD40L. B. B7 and CD28. C. B7 and CTLA-4. D. CD4 and MHC class II. E. ICAM-1 and LFA-1 ```
A. CD40 and CD40L. Costimulatory signals arising from the interaction of CD40 on the resting B-cell with CD40L (CD40 ligand, CD154) on the activated T-helper cell ensure effective B-cell activation.
81
The T-cell receptor link to MHC/peptide is enhanced by interaction between MHC class II on the antigen-presenting cells with the following molecule on the T-cell: A. LFA-1 B. CD2 C. CD4 D. CD8 E. CD28
C. CD4 CD4 on helper T-cells binds to the non-polymorphic part of the MHC class II molecule
82
``` The main costimulatory signal for activation of resting T-cells is provided by ligation of: A. CD28 B. Surface Ig C. LFA-1 D. VLA-4 E. IL-2 ```
A. CD28 B7 (CD80 and CD86) on the antigen-presenting cell ligating CD28 on the T-cell provides the main costimulatory signal for the activation of resting T-cells.
83
Which one of the following events occurs earliest in T-cell signaling: A. Activation of phospholipase C. B. Activation of protein kinase C. C. Production of inositol triphosphate. D. Activation of protein tyrosine kinase. E. Mobilization of intracellular calcium.
D. Activation of protein tyrosine kinase. Activation of protein tyrosine kinase activity is responsible for subsequent activation of membrane components by phosphorylation
84
``` T-cell CD40L provides a costimulatory signal to B-cells by ligating: A. Surface Ig B. MHC class II C. CD28 D. CD19 E. CD40 ```
E. CD40 The costimulatory signal provided by the CD40L/CD40 interaction is necessary for the activation of resting B-cells by helper T-cells. Note that CD40L is the abbreviation for CD40 ligand, which is also known as CD154.
85
``` Cytokines always act: A. By binding to specific receptors. B. In an autocrine fashion. C. At long range. D. Antagonistically with other cytokines. E. Synergistically with other cytokines. ```
A. By binding to specific receptors The cell-type specificity of cytokines is provided by the regulated expression of specific cytokine receptor genes. Many cytokine receptors consist of more than one polypeptide. For example, the IL-2 receptor is composed of an alpha chain (CD25) of low affinity and a beta chain of intermediate affinity; when both are expressed together they form the high affinity IL-2 receptor.
86
``` A Cytokine receptor which is a member of the hematopoietin receptor family is: A. IL-8 receptor. B. IFN gamma receptor. C. TNF (TNF-alpha) receptor. D. IL-1 receptor. E. IL-2 receptor. ```
E. IL-2 receptor. The hematopoietin receptor family contains a large number of members each of which comprises one or two polypeptide chains responsible for cytokine binding and an additional shared (common) chain involved in signal transduction
87
The alpha/beta heterodimeric form of the IL-2 receptor: A. Is downregulated on activated cells. B. Binds IL-2 with high affinity. C. Is found only on T-cells. D. Uses CD45 as an alpha chain. E. Allows rapid dissociation of bound IL-2
B. Binds IL-2 with high affinity. The alpha beta heterodimeric form of the IL-2 receptor has an affinity (Kd) of 10-11 M (10 pm), whereas the alpha chain alone binds IL-2 with low affinity, and the beta chain alone with medium affinity.
88
IFN-gamma and TNF (TNF alpha) can act synergistically: A. To downregulate expression of MHC class I. B. Because IFN-gamma downregulates expression of TNF receptors. C. To upregulate expression of MHC class II. D. Because they both bind to the same receptor. E. Because they cross-link IFN-gamma and TNF beta receptors.
C. To upregulate expression of MHC class II. There is synergism between IFN-gamma and TNF in the upregulation of surface MHC class II molecules on, for example, cultured pancreatic insulin-secreting beta cells.
89
Which of the following is characteristically produced by the Th2 CD4 cells which provide help for antibody production, but not by Th1 cells? A. IFN-gamma B. Lymphotoxin (TNF-beta) C. GM-CSF D. IL-4 E. IL-1
D. IL-4 IL-4, together with IL-5, IL-6, IL-10 (mouse only) and IL-13 is characteristically produced by Th2 cells.
90
``` Dendritic cells can be driven from a resting state to an activated state by the T-cell surface molecule: A. TCR B. CD40L C. CD28 D. B7 E. CD40 ```
B. CD40L CD40 ligand (CD154) on the T-helper cell engages CD40 on the resting dendritic cell, resulting in upregulation of costimulatory molecules such as B7 on the now activated dendritic cell.