Shuffled Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the key to safe driving?

A

anticipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many markers are used when performing the serpentine course?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What action causes the apparatus with an automatic transmission to upshift near the governed speed of the engine?

A

fully depressing on the accelerator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where should the lead vehicle pull over to when the fire chief’s vehicle needs to pass?

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the recommended idle period before shutting down an apparatus after use?

A

3-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the range of activation for traffic control systems that “hear” the siren of the responding apparatus?

A

up to 1/2 mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can be deemed less effective when the full spectrum of warning lights are left on at night once the apparatus has reached the scene?

A

Firefighter reflective clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most likely location for a collision with an emergency vehicle to occur?

A

intersection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which type of weight transfer tends to lead to skidding and/or rollover with a fire apparatus?

A

lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What represents the optimal stopping surface?

A

Flat, dry, paved road

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed when loading fire hose while driving the apparatus?

A

5 mph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How far from the finish line must the D/O stop the apparatus when performing the diminishing clearance exercise?

A

6 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How far apart should the markers be placed when performing the serpentine course?

A

between 30-38 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What indicates what a private passenger vehicle must do when an emergency vehicle is approaching with lights and sirens on?

A

Pull to the right, stop and remain at a standstill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is best to adjust before driving the apparatus?

A

Seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which rider is considered an exception to the rule that all protective gear must be donned before boarding the apparatus?

A

driver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which type of homebuilt apparatus has a high incidence of serious collisions?

A

water tenders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where should the engine be set to idle when being used for floodlight operations?

A

900-1100 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which situation would the brakes be used when the apparatus is equipped with engine brakes or retarding devices?

A

emergency stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How much fuel per hour can be used when allowing an apparatus to idle?

A

1/2 gallon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What vehicle would have the shorter stopping distance?

A

empty water tanker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the simplest traffic control device used by firefighters?

A

traffic signal in front of the fire station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the first thing that should be done when starting the vehicle?

A

disconnect all ground shore lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How much below the maximum recommended RPM should the apparatus be operated to prolong the engine’s life?

A

200-300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which gear should the apparatus with an automatic transmission be started in?

A

neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which lane should the apparatus remain in when traveling on a multilane roadway?

A

innermost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What should drivers realize about the right-of-way when responding to an incident?

A

they cannot demand it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What regulations applies to the emergency responder even when responding to an incident?

A

passing a school bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What depth of snow would most likely render automatic snow chains ineffective?

A

10 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the maximum width of the space used to perform the confined space turnaround?

A

50 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How far apart as a minimum should two apparatus responding along the same route follow each other?

A

300-500 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which system of the apparatus has the greatest incidence of collision resulting from poor maintenance?

A

braking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What percentage of all firefighter injuries and deaths in the US are shown to be from vehicle collisions?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the first thing that needs to be done when an apparatus goes into a skid when not equipped with ABS?

A

release the brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which color lights can be easily distinguished in the daylight hours?

A

white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When should the apparatus be shifted into a lower gear on sharp curves?

A

before entering the curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

At what speed do studies show that an emergency vehicle can outrun the effective range of its audible warning device?

A

55 mph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How many times per minute does the ABS on an apparatus evaluate the tires and brakes?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which situation would be appropriate for the use of audible warning devices?

A

heavy traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How long after starting the apparatus should the oil pressure gauge indicate a reasonable amount of pressure?

A

5-10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the boundary line width when performing the alley dock exercise?

A

40 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where are traffic control sensors located?

A

traffic light stands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What should be done when approaching an intersection where buildings block the driver’s view of oncoming traffic?

A

come to a complete stop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When should the clutch be disengaged while braking?

A

last few feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How many right and left turns are required during the road test as a minimum according to NFPA 1002?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How many firefighters are preferred to be used as spotters when backing a fire apparatus?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What gear should be used when there is a need for speed control in a manual transmission apparatus?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How many batteries are most fire apparatus equipped with?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which system of the apparatus has the greatest incidence of collision resulting from poor maintenance?

A

braking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which exercise simulates maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles?

A

serpentine course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which gear should be used when operating an automatic transmission in heavy traffic?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What tests the driver’s ability to back the apparatus while turning?

A

alley dock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which is the most ideal way to approach a hazardous materials incident scene?

A

uphill and upwind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Who should remain with the vehicle when in investigation mode?

A

the driver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What should never be done at a wildland fire operation?

A

leave the apparatus unattended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the first thing that needs to be done when placing the intake hose directly into the static water source?

A

Stop short of the source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What can be done to prevent potential kinks in the soft intake hose?

A

put twists in it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which part of the apparatus should protect the firefighter from traffic?

A

tailboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where should pumpers providing water for elevated master stream operations be positioned?

A

close to the aerial apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is sometimes installed in rural areas at suitable drafting locations?

A

dry hyrdrants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How far apart as a maximum generally are two engines spaced apart during tandem pumping operations?

A

300 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is NOT recommended when protecting a structure during a wildland fire situation?

A

park near or under trees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is always the first tactical priority at any fire incident?

A

search/rescue (life safety)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which type of operations are required when water will be supplied from a lake or pond?

A

drafting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How many sides of the incident scene should the command vehicle be able to view ideally?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Where is it best for the first arriving apparatus to stop when in investigation mode?

A

Near the best access point into the occupancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where should apparatus with air compressors be located?

A

upwind of the incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the most common water supply source in most jurisdictions?

A

fire hydrants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which other type of vehicle carries similar equipment as the aerial apparatus?

A

Rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How large is the collapse zone in relation to the height of the involved building?

A

1 1/2 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What condition could cause the apparatus to sink into the ground when performing drafting operations?

A

unpaved road

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Hose strainer

A

The strainer should be kept from resting on the bottom of the water source during drafting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where should the pumper be stopped in relation to the hydrant when using a side intake connection?

A

just short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Who generally becomes the Staging Area Manager

A

Company Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the cutoff point for most fire departments when deciding to place the aerial apparatus inside or outside of the engine?

A

5 stories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which type of EMS vehicle is capable of treating and transporting patients?

A

ambulance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which are engine-driven appliances used to refill SCBA cylinders with atmospheric air?

A

breathing-air compressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What does determining the proper positioning of the attack pumper begin with?

A

incident size up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the one exception to positioning an apparatus uphill from the incident?

A

wildland fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

In which zone are responders NOT required to wear protective clothing?

A

cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is a man-made barrier that prevents fire from surrounding and trapping the apparatus during wildland fire attack?

A

anchor point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the most logical location for EMS vehicles and personnel to be placed at an incident?

A

Rehab site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Where should the hoseline be run if it cannot be confirmed that the train traffic has been stopped?

A

Under the track

84
Q

How far behind the shielding apparatus should additional apparatus be placed?

A

150-200 feet

85
Q

How should engines be delivered to urban structures they are assigned to protect?

A

Backed in from last known turnaround

86
Q

Which size hoseline allows for the greatest water supply?

A

3 inch

87
Q

What is the preferred type of hose for connection to a fire hydrant?

A

Large diameter intake

88
Q

Which level of staging is used when numerous emergency vehicles will be responding to the same incident?

A

Level II

89
Q

Where should the rescue apparatus be positioned in case it is needed at another incident?

A

With a clear exit path

90
Q

When should sirens be used when responding to an incident on the highway?

A

to clear slow traffic

91
Q

How far from the incident scene should the apparatus stage when Level I staging is called for?

A

one block

92
Q

How many lanes next to the incident on the highway should be closed as a minimum?

A

1

93
Q

Where should pumpers be located when supplying water to the standpipe systems?

A

close to the standpipe FDC

94
Q

What percentage of the calls that most fire departments respond to are emergency medical incidents?

A

60%

95
Q

How long (in feet) are intake hose sections commonly?

A

10-50 feet

96
Q

What angle should the vehicle be aimed when using a front or rear intake connection?

A

45 degrees

97
Q

Where should the apparatus be positioned in relation to the building to be in the safest position in the event of a collapse?

A

corner

98
Q

What should be done to protect the apparatus from falling debris if it is not possible to reposition?

A

cover with a salvage cover

99
Q

How many large cylinders are typically carried in the cascade system?

A

4 to 12

100
Q

What is a more common function of wildland fire apparatus?

A

structure protection

101
Q

Where should the apparatus be positioned whenever possible?

A

upwind of the incident

102
Q

What timeframe is used to determine the maximum daily consumption of water for an area?

A

3-year

103
Q

What is any pressure less than atmospheric pressure called?

A

vacuum

104
Q

What must be used in conjunction with a fog stream to ensure that steam burns do not occur?

A

ventilation

105
Q

What is the most commonly used fire extinguishing agent?

A

water

106
Q

Which piece of ice would absorb heat more quickly?

A

crushed pieces

107
Q

What provides the water pressure when the primary water source is located at a higher elevation than the distribution system?

A

gravity flow

108
Q

What does the fifth principle of pressure deal with?

A

density

109
Q

What are the network of intermediate-sized pipes within the grid system?

A

secondary feeders

110
Q

Which water supply system do most communities use?

A

combination

111
Q

What can be done to reverse the adverse effects of encrustation and sedimentation?

A

flush hydrants periodically

112
Q

What is the primary way that water extinguishes fire?

A

cooling

113
Q

What pressure is required to reduce water’s volume by one percent?

A

30,000

114
Q

What is generally accepted as the maximum size for hose that is used as handlines?

A

3-inch

115
Q

What is the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it changes from a liquid to a vapor?

A

latent heat of vaporization

116
Q

What are the large pipes found in the grid system?

A

primary feeders

117
Q

Where must residual pressure be identified?

A

at the pressure reading location

118
Q

When all other conditions are the same, what is friction loss said to be directly related to according to the first principle of friction loss?

A

length of hose

119
Q

What can the firefighter reduce which will in turn reduce the friction loss?

A

amount of water flowing

120
Q

What is the pressure in an open vessel proportional to according to the fourth principle of pressure?

A

depth

121
Q

How many degrees (F) does 1 BTU raise the temperature of 1 pound of water (beginning at 60 degrees F)?

A

1

122
Q

What does it mean if the threaded portion of the OS&Y valve is out of the yoke?

A

it is open

123
Q

What determines if water will float on the surface of another liquid?

A

specific gravity

124
Q

What is the normal daily consumption in relation to the average daily consumption of water?

A

1 1/2 times

125
Q

What is the specific gravity value of most flammable liquids?

A

less than 1

126
Q

What is considered standard atmospheric pressure?

A

14.7 psi

127
Q

How many pounds does a 1-square inch column of water 1 foot high equal?

A

62.5

128
Q

What is not generally seen as a purpose of the private water supply system?

A

To provide water strictly for human consumption.

129
Q

What is the minimum number of directions a fire hydrant should be supplied from to reduce the amount of pressure loss?

A

2

130
Q

How much does water at 212 degrees F expand from its original volume?

A

1700 times

131
Q

Which principle is used in hydrostatic testing?

A

second

132
Q

What is the minimum recommended size for fire hydrant supply mains in residential areas?

A

6 inches

133
Q

What is the speed at which a fluid travels often referred to?

A

velocity

134
Q

What should be the minimum number of primary feeders that should be run from the source of supply to the high-risk districts of the community to ensure sufficient water?

A

2

135
Q

What condition occurs when water is abruptly turned off that can damage the pump, appliances, hose or the municipal water system?

A

water hammer

136
Q

What is expressed as pounds per square inch?

A

pressure

137
Q

How often should valves be operated each year?

A

once

138
Q

Which type of pressure is exerted by a stream of water emerging from a discharge opening?

A

forward only

139
Q

According to the third principle of pressure, how is pressure applied to a confined fluid from without transmitted?

A

equally in all directions

140
Q

What would be the repercussions if water treatment facilities were not able to function properly?

A

reduction in water pressure

141
Q

Friction loss in a system increases as:

A

the length of hose increases

142
Q

How many BTUs are required to convert each pound of water to steam after it has reached its boiling point?

A

970

143
Q

What is the most commonly used valve in the public water distribution system?

A

nonindicating

144
Q

What is the part of the total pressure loss while forcing water through pipe, fittings, fire hose and adapters?

A

friction loss

145
Q

In which state is water considered to be at its heaviest?

A

freezing

146
Q

What is seen as a disadvantage to using water as an extinguishing agent?

A

It readily conducts electricity

147
Q

How many different sources are most water systems supplied from?

A

1

148
Q

Which type of system use one or more pumps that take water from the primary source and discharge it through the filtration and treatment process?

A

direct pumping

149
Q

How many degrees does the valve disk in a butterfly valve rotate total from the fully open to tightly shut position?

A

90

150
Q

What term in the fire service refers to the height of a water supply above the discharge orifice?

A

head

151
Q

What nozzle creates a fan-shaped stream and is intended to protect combustible materials from the heat of an adjacent fire?

A

water curtain

152
Q

What is the generally accepted maximum nozzle pressure for solid streams?

A

65 psi

153
Q

Where is the ladder pipe generally attached when preplumbed?

A

end of the waterwar

154
Q

How is the water curtain the most effective?

A

Flowing over the surface of the combustible material

155
Q

Which type of monitor is permanently attached to the apparatus?

A

fixed

156
Q

What is NOT considered a basic fire stream utilized by the FD?

A

Random

157
Q

What in essence dampens the fire when a chimney nozzle is used?

A

steam

158
Q

Which type of nozzle is designed to be placed on attack lines?

A

handline

159
Q

Which time of nozzles are designed to flow a specific amount of water at a specific nozzle discharge pressure on all steam patterns?

A

constant flow

160
Q

What pressure should the solid stream nozzles be operated at when used on the end of handlines?

A

50 psi

161
Q

What part of the automatic nozzle moves automatically to maintain approximately the same nozzle pressure when the gallonage supplied to the automatic nozzle changes?

A

baffle

162
Q

What is generally the safest maximum amount of water that can be flowed through a handline nozzle?

A

350 gpm

163
Q

What nozzle pressure are most constant flow nozzles designed to operate at?

A

100 psi

164
Q

How long is the piercing nozzle generally?

A

3 to 6 feet

165
Q

What are the most commonly used variable flow nozzles in use today?

A

automatic

166
Q

What is a master stream device used in conjunction with aerial ladders?

A

ladder pipe

167
Q

What is a stream of water after it leaves a nozzle until it reaches the desired point?

A

fire stream

168
Q

Which type of nozzle can be used to attack attic fires?

A

cellar

169
Q

What is the constant amount that is used to determine the flow from a solid stream nozzle?

A

29.7

170
Q

Which type of fog nozzle develops considerable forward velocity but delivers a relatively low volume of water?

A

high-pressure

171
Q

Which direction can the ladder pipe be moved within?

A

vertical

172
Q

How much water can the piercing nozzle generally deliver?

A

100 gpm

173
Q

What is the line bounding a rounded surface?

A

periphery

174
Q

What pressure are smoothbore master streams generally operated at?

A

80 psi

175
Q

Which type of stream is created when water is forced through a series of small holes on the discharge end of the nozzle?

A

broken

176
Q

What is the reach of the fog stream directly dependent upon?

A

width of the stream

177
Q

Which nozzle pressures on the automatic nozzles are most commonly used in high-rise firefighting?

A

50 to 70 psi

178
Q

What pressure should a solid stream master stream device be operated at?

A

80 psi

179
Q

What type of heat is the water curtain nozzle effective against?

A

convected

180
Q

What is the sum of the pump discharge pressure and the intake pressure correction?

A

net pump discharge pressure

181
Q

What may be needed if there is not a provision in place for quick access through ice already in place?

A

cut a whole in the ice

182
Q

What are man-made impoundments which are generally found on commercial properties with a dry hydrant in place?

A

ground reservoirs

183
Q

What should be done if sinking begins to occur while the apparatus is effectively pumping water?

A

complete the operations

184
Q

How high could a pump theoretically lift water at sea level?

A

33.8 feet

185
Q

Where should the intake hose be brought through the ladder during drafting operations to limit the intake of silt of sand?

A

two rungs from the bottom

186
Q

How much of the salvage cover should be left free to form a flap when creating a dam?

A

4 feet

187
Q

What constant factor is used in the denominator when calculating pressure correction with the metric system?

A

0.1

188
Q

What is a unique access problem for swimming pools?

A

fences for security

189
Q

What is a preferable method for avoiding silt and debris?

A

install a dry hydrant

190
Q

Where must the cistern be located to avoid the problem of freezing?

A

below the frost line

191
Q

Where should the flap be stretched when creating a dam for drafting operations?

A

upstream

192
Q

Where should the ladder be placed on the salvage cover when building a dam?

A

one of the long sides

193
Q

How many primary types of static water supply sources may firefighters draw from if necessary?

A

2

194
Q

What affects the height of possible lift?

A

atmospheric pressure

195
Q

What are underground water storage receptacles usually found in areas that are not serviced by a hydrant system?

A

cisterns

196
Q

What constant is used when calculating the adequacy of a small stream with the metric system?

A

1,000

197
Q

What is the maximum lift in most circumstances?

A

25 feet

198
Q

What is the elevation difference between the water source and the pump known as?

A

lift

199
Q

What is a good rule of thumb when evaluating a pond’s capacity?

A

Every 1 foot of depth for an area of 1 acre provides 1,000 gpm

200
Q

What is the minimum dependable lift that every pump in good repair be able to accomplish?

A

14.7 feet

201
Q

How much water should be above and below a barrel-type strainer is a good rule of thumb as a minimum?

A

2 feet

202
Q

What should be done when the inaccessible water source is the only one available?

A

perform a relay operation

203
Q

Which two things are used to calculate the intake pressure correction?

A

Friction loss in the intake hose and height of the lift

204
Q

What should the D/O be most concerned with during drafting operations?

A

dependable lift

205
Q

Which water supply source should be evaluated closely for adequacy?

A

ponds