SHORT ANSWERS COMPILATION Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between Human Trafficking and Smuggling?

A

Smuggling involves a person who has freely consented to being brought into NZ as an Illegal Immigrant.

Trafficking involves a person who is brought into NZ by means of coercion and/or deception.

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2
Q

What is a document?

A
Document is defined in section 217 of the Crimes Act 1961.  Document means a document, or part of a document, in any form; and includes, without limitation,—
Paper or other material for writing or printing that can be read
Photograph
Negative
Microfilm
Disk
Tape
Etc
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3
Q

3 examples of a Legal Duty

A

Provide the necessaries and protect from injury.
Provide necessaries and protect from injury to your charges when you are a parent or guardian.
Provide necessaries as an employer.
Use reasonable knowledge and skill when performing dangerous acts, such as surgery.
Take precautions when in charge of dangerous things, such as machinery.
Avoid omissions that will endanger life.

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4
Q

R V RANGER - Pre Emptive Strike

A

R v Ranger (1988) 4 CRNZ 6
“If this defendant did really think that the lives of herself and her son were in peril because of the deceased, enraged after the struggle, might attempt to shoot them
with a rifle near at hand, then it would be going too far, we think, to say that thejury could not entertain a reasonable doubt as to whether a pre-emptive strike with
a knife would be reasonable force in all the circumstances.”

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5
Q

R V COTTLE

A

It is sufficient that the jury is satisfied on the balance of probabilities that the defendant is insane; it does not need to be proven beyond reasonable doubt.

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6
Q

S237(2) Provides a Statutory Defense for Blackmail

A

A belief by the person making the threat that they are entitled to the benefit or to cause to loss is not in it self a defense to a charge of blackmail unless in the circumstances the threat is, a reasonable and proper means for effecting his or her purpose.

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7
Q

Define Curtilage

A

The land immediately surrounding a house or dwelling, including any closely associated buildings and structures, but excluding any associated ‘open fields beyond’. It defines the boundary within which a home owner can have a reasonable expectation of privacy and where ‘common home activities’ take place.

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8
Q

Explain the Difference between Voluntary and Involuntary Manslaughter

A

Involuntary manslaughter there is no intention to kill. Unlawful killings caused by criminal negligence.

With voluntary manslaughter there is an intention to kill but the but due to mitigating circumstances such as a suicide pact the offence is reduced to manslaughter.

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9
Q

Define Suicide Pact

A

Suicide pact means a common agreement between 2 or more persons having for its object the death of all of them, whether or not each is to take his own life; but nothing done by a person who enters into a suicide pact shall be treated as done by him in pursuance of the pact unless it is done while he has the settled intention of dying in pursuance of the pact.

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10
Q

R v SKIVINGTON

A

Any defence for a charge of theft will also be a defence to a charge of robbery. Therefore the defence of claim of right is a defence to robbery.

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11
Q

R v Sturm

A

To “stupefy” means to cause an effect on the mind or nervous system of a person, which really seriously interferes with that person’s mental or physical ability to act in any way which might hinder an intended crime. Thus, “stupefies” does not only describe a situation where a person is rendered senseless or unconscious but may also include circumstances where the administration of drugs has led to disinhibition and stimulated uncharacteristic behaviour.

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12
Q

Insane/sane automatism

A

Sane automatism the result of somnambulism (sleepwalking), a blow to the head or the effects of drugs.

Insane automatism the result of a mental disease.

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13
Q

R v Kelt

A

Having a firearm “with him” requires a very close physical link and a degree of immediate control over the weapon by the man alleged to have the firearm with him”.

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14
Q

S158 Homicide defined

A

Homicide is the killing of a human being by another, directly or indirectly, by any means whatsoever.

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15
Q

Define Culpable Homicide S160 (1) and (2)

A

160 Culpable homicide

(1) Homicide may be either culpable or not culpable.
(2) Homicide is culpable when it consists in the killing of any person—
(a) By an unlawful act; or

(b) By an omission without lawful excuse to perform or observe any legal duty; or
(c) By both combined; or
(d) By causing that person by threats or fear of violence, or by deception, to do an act which causes his death; or
(e) By wilfully frightening a child under the age of 16 years or a sick person.

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16
Q

Define S162(2)

A

The period of a year and a day shall be reckoned inclusive of the day on which the last unlawful act contributing to the cause of death took place.

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17
Q

S163 Killing by influence on the mind

A

No one is criminally responsible for the killing of another by any influence on the mind alone, except by wilfully frightening a child under the age of 16 years or a sick person, nor for the killing of another by any disorder or disease arising from such influence, except by wilfully frightening any such child as aforesaid or a sick person.

Not criminally responsible for killing of another by any influence on the mind alone except by willfully frightening:

A child under 16 years
A physical sick person
A mentally sick person

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18
Q

S165 Causing death that might have been prevented

A

Every one who by any act or omission causes the death of another person kills that person, although death from that cause might have been prevented by resorting to proper means.

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19
Q

Infanticide S178(1)

A

Where a woman causes the death of any child of hers under the age of 10 years in a manner that amounts to culpable homicide, and where at the time of the offence the balance of her mind was disturbed, by reason of her not having fully recovered from the effect of giving birth to that or any other child, or by reason of the effect of lactation, or by reason of any disorder consequent upon childbirth or lactation, to such an extent that she should not be held fully responsible, she is guilty of infanticide, and not of murder or manslaughter, and is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years.

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20
Q

R v Tomars

A

Formulates the issues in the following way:

  1. Was the deceased threatened by, in fear of or deceived by the defendant?
  2. If they were, did such threats, fear or deception cause the deceased to do the act that caused their death?
  3. Was the act a natural consequence of the actions of the defendant, in the sense that reasonable and responsible people in the defendant’s position at the time could reasonably have foreseen the consequences?
  4. Did these foreseeable actions of the victim contribute in a [significant] way to his death?
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21
Q

R v Horry

A

Death should be provable by such circumstances as render it morally certain and leave no ground for reasonable doubt – that the circumstantial evidence should be so cogent and compelling as to convince a jury that upon no rational hypothesis other than murder can the facts be accounted for.

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22
Q

Party – Section 66(1)

A

Everyone is party to and guilty of an offence who:
a) Actually commits the offence; or

b) Does or omits an act for the purpose of aiding any person to commit the offence; or
c) Abets any person in the commission of the offence; or
d) Incites, counsels or procures any person to commit the offence.

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23
Q

Party – Section 66(2)

A

Where 2 or more persons form a common intention to prosecute any unlawful purpose, and to assist each other therein, each of them is a party to every offence committed by any one of them in the prosecution of the common purpose if the commission of that offence was known to be a probable consequence of the prosecution of the common purpose.

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24
Q

S72 (1) Definition of attempts

A

Every one who, having an intent to commit an offence, does or omits an act for the purpose of accomplishing his object, is guilty of an attempt to commit the offence intended, whether in the circumstances it was possible to commit the offence or not.

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25
Q

R v STURM

A

Under section 191(1)(a) “it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove the intended crime was actually subsequently committed”.

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26
Q

R v TIHI

A

In addition to one of the specific intents outlined in paragraphs (a) (b) (c) “ it must be shown the offender either meant to cause the specified harm or foresaw that the actions undertaken by him were likely to expose others to risk of suffering it’.

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27
Q

R v WATI

A

There must be proof of the commission or attempted commission of a crime either by the person committing the assault or by the person whose arrest or flight he intends to avoid or facilitate.

28
Q

Proximity in relation to an attempt

A

Has the offender done anything more than getting himself into a position from which he could embark on an actual attempt? or
Has the offender actually commenced execution; that is to say, has he taken a step in the actual offence itself?

Proximity is a question of law; it is a question that is decided by the judge based on the assumption that the facts of the case are proved.

29
Q

R V FORREST and FORREST

A

In R v Forrest and Forrest two men were charged with having sexual intercourse with a 14 year old girl who had run away from Child Welfare custody. At trial the girl produced her birth certificate and gave evidence herself that she was the person named in the certificate. The men successfully appealed their convictions on the grounds that the Crown had not adequately proved the girl’s age.

30
Q

3 Intents of kidnapping

A

(a) Hold him/her for ransom or service.
(b) Cause him/her to be confined or imprisoned.
(c) Cause him/her to be sent or taken out of New Zealand.

31
Q

What is the difference between theft and obtains by deception in relation to title.

A

If a person steals something (Theft) they obtain possession of the item however do not obtain any form of title to that property, if is subsequently handed on they cannot hand on title. If a person obtains something by deception they obtain possession of the item and also obtain a voidable title to that item, if handed on to an unknowing person they receive
full title and possession of that item, unless the title is voided before it is handed on.

32
Q

What are the 3 offences of S134 (Sexual Conduct with a Child)

A

(1) Every one who has sexual connection with a young person is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years.
(2) Every one who attempts to have sexual connection with a young person is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years.
(3) Every one who does an indecent act on a young person is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years.

33
Q

What do you need to prove when a person is in possession of a drug?

A
  • Knowledge that the drug exists.
  • Knowledge that it is a controlled drug.
  • Some degree of control over it.
  • An intention to possess it.
34
Q

What is the rebuttal for Section 6(6) MODA 1975 - Presumption for Supply

A

The defendant needs to rebut the presumptions of s6(6) by proving, on the balance of probabilities, that they did not intend to supply, administer or sell the drug, or attempt to supply, administer or sell the drug.

35
Q

Claim of Right - Section 2 Crimes Act 1961

A

In relation to any act means a belief at the time of the act, in a proprietary or possessory right in property in relation to which the offence is alleged to have been committed, although that belief may be based on ignorance or mistake of fact or of any matter of law other than the enactment against which the offence is alleged to have been committed.

36
Q

R v Harpur

A

The Court may have regard to the conduct viewed cumulatively up to the point when the conduct in question stops … The defendant’s conduct may be considered in its entirety. Considering how much remains to be done is always relevant, though not determinative.

37
Q

Define ‘Uses in any manner’ - S198A (Uses a firearm against law enforcement)

A

The primary meaning of the word “use” in relation to a firearm is to fire it, however the words “in any manner whatever” widen the definition to include a range of acts that stop short of actually shooting at an officer.

38
Q

Blackmail - what needs to be proved?

A

You must prove the identity of the suspect and that they threatened, expressly or by implication, to:

make any accusation against any person (whether living or dead), or

disclose something about any person (whether living or dead), or

cause serious damage to property, or

endanger the safety of any person with intent to:

cause the person to whom the threat is made to act in accordance with the will of the person making.

39
Q

R v BROWN

A

The defendant is guilty in the following instances:

(1) offers to supply a drug that he has on hand
(2) offers to supply a drug that will be procured at some future date
(3) offers to supply a drug that he mistakenly believes he can supply
(4) offers to supply a drug deceitfully, knowing he will not supply that drug

40
Q

Assault: S2 Crimes Act 1961

A

Assault means the act of intentionally applying or attempting to apply force to the person of another directly or indirectly, or threatening by any act or gesture to apply such force to the person of another, if the person making the threat has, or causes the other to believe on reasonable grounds that he has, present ability to effect his purpose; and to assault has a corresponding meaning.

41
Q

Consent

A

Consent is a person’s conscious and voluntary agreement to do something desired or proposed by another.

42
Q

R V COX

A

Consent must be ‘full, voluntary, free and informed…freely and voluntarily given by a person in a position to form a rational judgement’.

43
Q

Intent

A

A person does something intentionally if they mean to do it, they desire a specific result and act with the aim or purpose of achieving it.

44
Q

R v MOHAN

A

Intent involves a decision to bring about in so far as it lies within the accused power, the commission of the offence.

45
Q

R v WAAKA

A

A fleeting or passing thought is not sufficient, there must be a firm intent or a firm purpose to effect an act.

46
Q

KNOWLEDGE - SIMESTER AND BROOKBANKS:

A

Knowing means “correctly believing.” The defendant may believe something wrongly but cannot “know” something that is false.

47
Q

Person

A

Gender neutral proven by judicial notice or circumstantial evidence.

48
Q

Recklessness

A

A conscious and deliberate taking of an unjustifiable risk.

49
Q

R V HARNEY

A

Recklessness involves foresight of dangerous consequences that could well happen together with an intention to continue the course of conduct regardless of the risk.

50
Q

Inducement

A

Means to persuade, bring about, give rise to.

51
Q

S15 Search and Surveillance Act?

A

Reasonable grounds to suspect an offence punishable by 14 years has been committed, is being or will be committed and has reasonable grounds to believe that evidential material relating to that offence is a place and believe on reasonable grounds that if delay (to obtain a search warrant) there is risk that the evidential material will be concealed, altered, damaged or destroyed.

52
Q

S30 - Victims Rights Act?

A

(1) This Section applies if –
(a) The victim is a victim of a specified offence; and
(b) The person accused of the offence, or as the case requires, the offender applies to a court for release on bail

(2) If this section applies the prosecutor must –
(a) Make all reasonable efforts to ascertain any views the victim has about the accused, or as the case requires, the offender, being released on bail; and
(b) Inform the court of any views ascertained under paragraph (a).

53
Q

Benefits of the Appreciation Technique MREEE

A
  • Manages risk
  • Reduces uncertainty
  • Eliminates duplication
  • Ensures nothing is overlooked
  • Effective use of resources
54
Q

Four functions of file manager?

A

Managing the electronic and physical file.
Ensuring a flow of information throughout the investigation.
Assisting in the preparation of the prosecution file.
Assisting in the management of the trial.

55
Q

Primary role of the FLO?

A

The role of the Family Liaison Officer (FLO) involves the day-to-day management of the partnership between the family of the deceased and the Police investigation. The primary function of an FLO is that of an investigator and not a support person. However, in performing this role, the FLO must also offer, facilitate and co-ordinate support that addresses the needs of the family.

As an investigator, the FLO will normally be responsible for profiling the Victim, preparing a family tree and gathering relevant information from the family. This may include, in conjunction with the OC Body, taking statements identifying the Victim.

56
Q

Duress and Fraud re Consent?

A

Duress – Consent obtained by actual or implied threat of force to the victim or another person. Can include other forms of coercion or pressure.

Fraud – Consent obtained by a misrepresentation of the facts or the offenders intentions.

57
Q

S8(1) Bail Act

A

(1) In considering whether there is just cause for continued detention, the court must take into account –

a. Whether there is a risk that –
i. The defendant may fail to appear in court on the date to which the defendant has been remanded; or

ii. The defendant may interfere with witnesses or evidence; or
iii. The defendant may offend while on bail; and
b. Any matter that would make it unjust to detain the defendant.

58
Q

Failure to Protect Child or Vulnerable Adult - Mens Rea and Actus Reus?

A

Mens Rea –
(a) Knows that the victim is at risk of death, GBH or sexual assault as the result of:

i. An unlawful act by another person; or
ii. An omission by another person to discharge or perform a legal duty, in the circumstances, that omission is a major departure from the standard of care expected of a reasonable person to whom that legal duty applies; and

Actus Reus
(b) Fails to take reasonable steps to protect the victim from that risk.

59
Q

Section 117 Search and Surveillance Act

A

A search warrant is about to be made or has been made but not yet granted or refused by an IO, and an officer is present at the place or vehicle of subject; and

Has reasonable grounds to believe that CADD’s applies, he can enter and secure that place:

Expires after 6 hours of exercising the power.

The warrant is available for execution.

The application is refused.

60
Q

S44(1) and (2) - Evidence Act

A

In a sexual case no evidence can be given and no questions can be put to a witness relating directly or indirectly to –

(1) The sexual experience of the complainant with any person other than the defendant, except with the permission of the judge.
(2) The reputation of the complainant in sexual matters.

61
Q

S87 (Address) and S88 (Occupation) Evidence Act 2006

A

Section 87 of the Evidence Act 2006 protects a witness from having to state their address and having questions put to them about that information. This includes not only the name and number of the street, but also the name of the town or community the witness lived in.

However, these details may be disclosed where the judge determines that they are directly relevant to the facts in issue and that to exclude them would be contrary to the interest of justice.

Section 88 (Restriction on disclosure of complainant’s occupation in sexual cases) of the Evidence Act 2006 protects a complainant from having questions put to them or to a witness about the complainant’s occupation, or having evidence given, or statements/remarks made about the complainant’s occupation.

However, an application can be made to the judge to disclose this information in court.

62
Q

Surveillance Device Definition?

A

Means a device that is any 1 or more of the following kinds of devices:

(a) an interception device.
(b) a tracking device.
(c) a visual surveillance device.

63
Q

Hostile Witness definition?

A

Hostile Witness is defined in section 4 of the Evidence Act 2006. In relation to a witness, means the witness
• exhibits, or appears to exhibit, a lack of veracity when giving evidence unfavourable to the party who called the witness on a matter about which the witness may reasonably be supposed to have knowledge; or
• gives evidence that is inconsistent with a statement made by that witness in a manner that exhibits, or appears to exhibit, an intention to be unhelpful to the party who called the witness; or
• refuses to answer questions or deliberately withholds evidence.

Whether the witness is hostile in one of these ways is a question of law for the Judge, on application from a party in the proceeding.

64
Q

Corroboration is required for which offences?

A

Perjury.
Treason.
False Oaths.
False Statements or Declarations.

65
Q

Definition of a Sexual Case?

A

S4 - Evidence Act 2006 -

Sexual case means a criminal proceeding in which a person is charged with, or is waiting to be sentenced or otherwise dealt with for,—

(a) an offence against any of the provisions of sections 128 to 142A or section 144A of the Crimes Act 1961; or
(b) any other offence against the person of a sexual nature.

66
Q

Outline four points of CHIS registration?

A
  • Examine motivation of potential CHIS as part of the assessment of risks during recruitment
  • Ensure CHIS are managed and registered in accordance with policy
  • Comply with conditions of contact as imposed by the Controller and/or OC HSMU
  • Conduct authorised recruitment processes of potential CHIS