Short Answer Flashcards
What three noninvasive technologies help understand sleep stages by measuring electrical potentials and changes in electrical activity
EEG (Electroencephalography)
EMG (Electromyography)
EOG (Electro-oculography)
What are the two distinct classes of sleep stages
Non-rapid eye movement (NREM)
Rapid eye movement (REM)
What three stages are in the NREM class of sleep stages
NREM1
NREM2
NREM3
What does an individual experience during wakefulness (before NREM1)
Desynchronized patterns of electrical activity
What are the three main types of encoding
Semantic encoding
Visual encoding
Acoustic encoding
What model is a framework for understanding an individual’s risk of mental disorders based on their genetic background and experiences
Diathesis-Stress Model
Individuals with low diathesis are _________ and ________likely to develop mental disorders
resilient; less
Individuals with high diathesis are _________ and ________likely to develop mental disorders
vulnerable; more
The ________ road and the ________ road are the two levels of fearful stimulus processing
low; high
Which theory states that autonomic arousal precedes emotion
Example:
Normal: I am shaking because I am scared
This theory: I am scared because I am shaking
James-Lange Theory
Which theory states that arousal and emotion happen at the same time and is supported by observations of sham rage in rats
Example:
Normal: I am shaking because I am scared
This theory: I am shaking and feeling afraid at the same time
Cannon-Bard Theory
Which theory states that cognitive appraisal of a stimulus determines which emotion is experienced, whereas arousal levels determine the emotion’s intensity
Example:
Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory
In Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory, arousal that spills over from one event to the next, influencing responses is called the …
Spillover effect
In Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory, what are the two ingredients of emotion
Cognitive appraisal
Physical arousal
(True or False) In Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory, emotional experiences DOES NOT require a conscious interpretation of arousal
False
Which theory states that when a stimulus is appraised, we experience an emotional response to that appraisal, and that emotion triggers physiological response
Lazarus’s Cognitive-Mediational Theory
(True or False) In Lazarus’s Cognitive Mediational Theory, the brain processes much information without conscious awareness and mental functioning DOES NOT take place
False
(Mental functioning does still take place)
(True or False) In Lazarus’s Cognitive Mediational Theory, emotions arise when an event is appraised as harmless or dangerous
True
Which emotion theory fits the example below
Stimulus: A barking dog
First Response (ANS system): changes in the body
Second Response: Conscious notes the experience as fear
James-Lange Theory
Which emotion theory fits the example below
Stimulus: a barking dog
First response: Subcortical brain activity
Second response: Autonomic Nervous System arousal, changes in the body, and conscious recognizes the experience as fear
Cannon-Bard Theory
Which emotion theory fits the example below
Stimulus: a barking dog
First response: Cognitive appraisal determines the emotion, Autonomic Nervous System arousal & bodily changes determines the degree/intensity of the emotion
Second response: Conscious recognizes the experience as fear
Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory
The ______ road level of fearful stimulus processing provides ________ processing for an ________ emotional response
Low road; bottoms-up processing; immediate emotional response
The ______ road level of fearful stimulus processing provides _______ processing by integrating visual information with _______, ________, and _________
High road; top-down; memory, expectations, and context
In the high road level of fearful stimulus processing, visual information is perceived by the eyes and sent to the ________ then the primary visual cortex and the ______ cortex and then the _________
thalamus; prefrontal cortex; amygdala
In the high road level of fearful stimulus processing, visual information is ______ relayed to the ________
indirectly; amygdala
In the low road level of fearful stimulus processing, visual information is relayed by the ________ directly to the ________
(eyes => thalamus => amygdala => peripheral nervous system)
thalamus; amygdala
Which level of fearful stimulus processing is used for the quickest possible response
Low road fearful stimulus processing
__________ are essential for short-term stress while ________ are essential for sustained, long-term periods of stress
Catecholamines; glucocorticoids
As an adult, minimal stressful circumstances leads to a ________ probability of developing mental disorder while excessive stressful circumstances and _______ to cope with them lead to a ______ probability of developing mental disorder
lower probability; inability to cope; higher probability
The Diathesis-Stress Model is similar to which theory
Reaction Range Theory of Intelligence
Which psychiatric disorder involves dissociative thinking, characterized by major disturbances in thought, perception, emotion, and behavior
Schizophrenia
What percent of people have schizophrenia
1%
What are the three types of schizophrenia symptoms
Positive symptoms
Negative symptoms
Cognitive symptoms
(Schizophrenia) Positive symptoms involve the _______ of abnormal thoughts and behaviors
presence
(Schizophrenia) Negative symptoms involve the _______ of normal thoughts and behaviors
absence
(Schizophrenia) _________ symptoms involve problems with processing and acting on external behaviors
Cognitive symptoms
What type of schizophrenia symptoms are characterized by the following
Delusions
Hallucinations
Disorganized thinking
Disorganized motor behavior
Positive symptoms
What type of schizophrenia symptoms are characterized by the following
Flat Affect
Avolition
Alogia
Asociability
Anhedonia
Negative symptoms
What type of schizophrenia symptoms are characterized by the following
Memory problems
Poor attention span
Difficulty making plans
Poor social cognition
Abnormal movement patterns
Cognitive symptoms
If both twins suffer from schizophrenia, they are _________ for the disease; however, if only one twin suffers from schizophrenia, they are _________
concordant; discordant
As the number of ______ shared with a schizophrenic individual ________, the concordance rate _________
genes shared; decreases; decreases
Malfunctions of the _________ gene are closely associated with schizophrenia
DISC-1 gene
A few genes have been identified as abnormal in some schizophrenics. Several of those genes are involved in ___________
Synapse rearrangement
Older fathers are ________ likely to have a child with schizophrenia
more likely
Family, twin, and adoptive studies show a __________ incidence of schizophrenia among biological relatives
higher incidence
(True or False) Schizophrenia is fully heritable
False
(Schizophrenia is PARTLY heritable)
(True or False) A single gene causes and increases susceptibility to schizophrenia
False
(No single gene causes or increases susceptibility to schizophrenia)
What is an epigenetic factor of schizophrenia
Paternal age
Anatomical hallmarks of Schizophrenia
________ lateral ventricles and ________ frontal cortex gray matter
Smaller ______ and ________
_________ _________ of pyramidal cells in the hippocampus
Altered ________ and _______ of the corpus callosum
Reduced _________ activity in the _______ lobes
enlarged; reduced
hippocampus; amygdala
Disorganized arrangement
structure; function
metabolic activity; frontal lobes
The hypofrontality hypothesis states that schizophrenia may be caused by ….
Underactivation of the frontal lobes
________ generation antipsychotics block dopamine receptors in the __________ through the use of __________ antagonists
First generation; mesolimbic pathway; dopamine antagonists
First gen antipsychotics lead to reduced ________
Positive symptoms
Long term use of antipsychotics can lead to …
Tardive dyskinesia
Involuntary movements of the arms, legs, tongue, and facial muscles
Antipsychotics for negative schizophrenic symptoms work on the …
Nigrostriatal pathways
Antipsychotics for negative schizophrenic
block _______ which ordinarily increases dopamine release in the _______ cortex
serotonin; prefrontal
What is the term for when drug doses are lowered, an upregulation of receptors occurs
Supersensitivity psychosis
_______ binding affinity of medication means a smaller dose is needed
Higher
_______ binding affinity of medication means a larger dose is needed
Lower
Repetitive movements involving the face, mouth, lips, and tongue
Tardive dyskinesia
The issues started below regard which hypothesis
Drugs block D2 receptors much faster (hours) than symptoms are reduced (weeks)
Some patients do not respond to dopamine antagonists at all
Dopamine hypothesis
Second-gen antipsychotics are less likely to cause ____________, but some research shows that they are no more effective than first-generation antipsychotics
motor side effects
The glutamate hypothesis states that schizophrenia is caused by …
underactivation of glutamate receptors
The glutamate hypothesis is possibly accounts for the _______ in _______ cortex activity (AKA hypofrontality)
reduction; frontal
_________, a second gen antipsychotic, blocks _________ receptors as well as _________ receptors
Clozapine; serotonin receptors; dopamine receptors
(True or False) Second-gen antipsychotics have affinity for other receptors
True
Compounds that increase ________ activity they are not possible treatment options because they cause ________
glutamatergic activity; seizures
(Glutamate hypothesis) __________ produces both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia
Phencyclidine
Other ______ receptor _________, like ketamine, produce effects similar to phencyclidine
NMDA; antagonists
This is the ______ of schizophrenia
Modern view: schizophrenia is caused by the interaction of genetic factors and stress
Usually appears in adolescents or young adults
Prenatal stress
Exposure to influenza, low birth weight or lack of oxygen at birth
Stress of city living
Stress-Diathesis
What kind of encoding is described below
Encoding of words and their meaning
Words with similar themes/categories are organized together
Semantic encoding
What kind of encoding is described below
Encoding of sounds
The sounds of music and words are encoded, allowing us to remember songs, speeches, and more
Acoustic encoding
What kind of encoding is described below
Encoding of images
Mental images are more easily encoded than abstract things that can’t be pictured
Visual encoding
According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin Model of Memory, what are the 3 phases memory must pass through
Sensory buffer
Short-term memory
Long-term memory
Stores sensory impressions that only last a few seconds
Sensory buffer
What kind of memory involves temporary memories lasting hours to days and includes working memory
Short-term memory
What kind of short-term memory is described below
Information is processed used and forgotten
Lasts about 30 seconds in the absence of rehearsal
Limited in capacity (7 chunks at a time)
Intermediate STM lasts hours, but still temporary
Working memory
In Baddeley’s Working Memory Model, working memory is …
subdivided
According to Baddeley’s Working Memory Model, working memory is subdivided into which 3 parts
Phonological loop
Visuospatial sketch pad
Episodic buffer
Lesions of the _________ severely impair working memory
Prefrontal cortex
According to Baddeley’s Working Memory Model, which subdivision of working memory contains more integrated, sensory information
Episodic buffer
What are the two main properties of long-term potentiation
Specificity
Associativity
What is the sustained activation of both the presynaptic cell and postsynaptic cell, simultaneously called
Long-term potentiation
Long-term potentiation occurs in ___________ _________ of the hippocampal CA1 region
glutamatergic synapses
Connections in the brain are _______ by _______
altered; experience
Ability of the nervous system to change its activity in response to intrinsic or extrinsic stimuli by reorganizing its structure, functions, or connections
Plasticity
_________ is made possible by the formation of new synapses (synaptogenesis) and the strengthening of existing synapses in the _________ and _________
Memory; hippocampus; cortex
Long-term potentiation facilitates the …
strengthening of existing synapses
Long-term potentiation increases ________ _________ to glutamate
postsynaptic sensitivity
Which sleep stage is characterized by alpha rhythm activity (lower frequencies with vertex spikes)
NREM-1
Which sleep stage is characterized by sleep spindles and K complexes
NREM-2
Which sleep stage is characterized by low frequency waves and high amplitude delta waves
NREM-3 (Slow-wave sleep stage)
Which sleep stage is known as paradoxical sleep and is characterized by
Rapid eye movement
Vivid dreaming
Increased heart rate
Rapid and irregular breathing
Eyes darting left to right in 30 second bursts
Muscle paralysis
REM (Stage 4)
For individuals deprived of REM sleep, the duration of REM sleep increases the next time the individual goes to sleep. This is know as …
REM Rebound
What is the common sleep cycle
NREM-1 => NREM-2 => NREM-3 => NREM-2 => REM
Which sleep stage involves deep sleep
NREM-3
_________ individuals have longer sleep cycles; _________ individuals have shorter sleep cycles and generally get _____ sleep
Younger individuals; older individuals; less sleep
Mammals sleep more during ________ than in _________
infancy; adulthood
What stage do most vivid dreams occur
REM
Vivid dreams are associated with a lot of ____________ ________ activity in the posterior cortex region
high-frequency EEG activity
Sleep may have played a protective role in evolution by enforcing …
niche adaptation
What are some of the reasons why we sleep
By sleeping when predators are searching, prey species are safer
Sleep conserves energy
Sleep helps restore and repair damaged tissue
Glia cells are responsible for clearing debris, dead cells, and other things such as beta-amyloid build up
During slow-wave sleep (NREM3), the pituitary gland secretes growth hormone necessary for muscle development
Sleep helps strengthen neural connections that build enduring memories (helps with memory consolidation)
Sleep helps consolidate ________ memory with ________ memory
short-term memory; long-term memory
NREM sleep improves ….
Declarative memory
Sleep deprivation increases likelihood of creating …
False memories
REM sleep may help consolidate …
Nondeclarative memory
After a period of sleep, new _________ form; _______ leads to a decrease in _________
dendritic spines; sleep deprivation; dendritic spines
Sleep is an ________ state
active brain state
Declarative memory is made up of memories that can be …
spoken
Reticular formation is located in the …
brainstem
What is this part
Activates the cortex
Electrical stimulation of this part awakens animals
Lesions to this part leads to persistent sleep
Basal forebrain and this part are responsible for guiding the brain between NREM3 and wakefulness
Reticular formation
____________ is a specific region of the pons in the brain
Subcoeruleus
The subcoeruleus triggers _____ sleep
(Inhibits motor neurons during sleep)
REM sleep
Tuberomammillary Nucleus is located in the …
hypothalamus
Hypothalamus sends __________ to other sleep centers and the hypothalamic tuberomammillary nucleus
hypocretin projections known as orexin
Loss of hypocretin cells can lead to conditions like …
Narcolepsy
Tuberomammillary Nucleus enforces …
patterns of sleep
Lesions to the subcoeruleus prevents ___________ during REM sleep
Loss of muscle tone
Severing the _______ creates an _________ _________
midbrain; isolated forebrain
Constant slow-wave sleep in the forebrain is generated by the _________
basal forebrain
Severing the _________ leads to an isolated brain that exhibits __________
brain stem; all the stages of sleep
