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Behavioral Neuroscience Exam Tres > Short Answer > Flashcards

Short Answer Flashcards

1
Q

What three noninvasive technologies help understand sleep stages by measuring electrical potentials and changes in electrical activity

A

EEG (Electroencephalography)
EMG (Electromyography)
EOG (Electro-oculography)

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2
Q

What are the two distinct classes of sleep stages

A

Non-rapid eye movement (NREM)
Rapid eye movement (REM)

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3
Q

What three stages are in the NREM class of sleep stages

A

NREM1
NREM2
NREM3

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4
Q

What does an individual experience during wakefulness (before NREM1)

A

Desynchronized patterns of electrical activity

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5
Q

What are the three main types of encoding

A

Semantic encoding
Visual encoding
Acoustic encoding

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6
Q

What model is a framework for understanding an individual’s risk of mental disorders based on their genetic background and experiences

A

Diathesis-Stress Model

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7
Q

Individuals with low diathesis are _________ and ________likely to develop mental disorders

A

resilient; less

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8
Q

Individuals with high diathesis are _________ and ________likely to develop mental disorders

A

vulnerable; more

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9
Q

The ________ road and the ________ road are the two levels of fearful stimulus processing

A

low; high

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10
Q

Which theory states that autonomic arousal precedes emotion

Example:
Normal: I am shaking because I am scared
This theory: I am scared because I am shaking

A

James-Lange Theory

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11
Q

Which theory states that arousal and emotion happen at the same time and is supported by observations of sham rage in rats

Example:
Normal: I am shaking because I am scared
This theory: I am shaking and feeling afraid at the same time

A

Cannon-Bard Theory

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12
Q

Which theory states that cognitive appraisal of a stimulus determines which emotion is experienced, whereas arousal levels determine the emotion’s intensity

Example:

A

Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory

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13
Q

In Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory, arousal that spills over from one event to the next, influencing responses is called the …

A

Spillover effect

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14
Q

In Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory, what are the two ingredients of emotion

A

Cognitive appraisal
Physical arousal

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15
Q

(True or False) In Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory, emotional experiences DOES NOT require a conscious interpretation of arousal

A

False

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16
Q

Which theory states that when a stimulus is appraised, we experience an emotional response to that appraisal, and that emotion triggers physiological response

A

Lazarus’s Cognitive-Mediational Theory

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17
Q

(True or False) In Lazarus’s Cognitive Mediational Theory, the brain processes much information without conscious awareness and mental functioning DOES NOT take place

A

False
(Mental functioning does still take place)

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18
Q

(True or False) In Lazarus’s Cognitive Mediational Theory, emotions arise when an event is appraised as harmless or dangerous

A

True

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19
Q

Which emotion theory fits the example below

Stimulus: A barking dog
First Response (ANS system): changes in the body
Second Response: Conscious notes the experience as fear

A

James-Lange Theory

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20
Q

Which emotion theory fits the example below

Stimulus: a barking dog
First response: Subcortical brain activity
Second response: Autonomic Nervous System arousal, changes in the body, and conscious recognizes the experience as fear

A

Cannon-Bard Theory

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21
Q

Which emotion theory fits the example below

Stimulus: a barking dog
First response: Cognitive appraisal determines the emotion, Autonomic Nervous System arousal & bodily changes determines the degree/intensity of the emotion
Second response: Conscious recognizes the experience as fear

A

Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory

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22
Q

The ______ road level of fearful stimulus processing provides ________ processing for an ________ emotional response

A

Low road; bottoms-up processing; immediate emotional response

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23
Q

The ______ road level of fearful stimulus processing provides _______ processing by integrating visual information with _______, ________, and _________

A

High road; top-down; memory, expectations, and context

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24
Q

In the high road level of fearful stimulus processing, visual information is perceived by the eyes and sent to the ________ then the primary visual cortex and the ______ cortex and then the _________

A

thalamus; prefrontal cortex; amygdala

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25
Q

In the high road level of fearful stimulus processing, visual information is ______ relayed to the ________

A

indirectly; amygdala

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26
Q

In the low road level of fearful stimulus processing, visual information is relayed by the ________ directly to the ________

(eyes => thalamus => amygdala => peripheral nervous system)

A

thalamus; amygdala

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27
Q

Which level of fearful stimulus processing is used for the quickest possible response

A

Low road fearful stimulus processing

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28
Q

__________ are essential for short-term stress while ________ are essential for sustained, long-term periods of stress

A

Catecholamines; glucocorticoids

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29
Q

As an adult, minimal stressful circumstances leads to a ________ probability of developing mental disorder while excessive stressful circumstances and _______ to cope with them lead to a ______ probability of developing mental disorder

A

lower probability; inability to cope; higher probability

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30
Q

The Diathesis-Stress Model is similar to which theory

A

Reaction Range Theory of Intelligence

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31
Q

Which psychiatric disorder involves dissociative thinking, characterized by major disturbances in thought, perception, emotion, and behavior

A

Schizophrenia

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32
Q

What percent of people have schizophrenia

A

1%

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33
Q

What are the three types of schizophrenia symptoms

A

Positive symptoms
Negative symptoms
Cognitive symptoms

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34
Q

(Schizophrenia) Positive symptoms involve the _______ of abnormal thoughts and behaviors

A

presence

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35
Q

(Schizophrenia) Negative symptoms involve the _______ of normal thoughts and behaviors

A

absence

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36
Q

(Schizophrenia) _________ symptoms involve problems with processing and acting on external behaviors

A

Cognitive symptoms

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37
Q

What type of schizophrenia symptoms are characterized by the following

Delusions
Hallucinations
Disorganized thinking
Disorganized motor behavior

A

Positive symptoms

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38
Q

What type of schizophrenia symptoms are characterized by the following

Flat Affect
Avolition
Alogia
Asociability
Anhedonia

A

Negative symptoms

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39
Q

What type of schizophrenia symptoms are characterized by the following

Memory problems
Poor attention span
Difficulty making plans
Poor social cognition
Abnormal movement patterns

A

Cognitive symptoms

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40
Q

If both twins suffer from schizophrenia, they are _________ for the disease; however, if only one twin suffers from schizophrenia, they are _________

A

concordant; discordant

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41
Q

As the number of ______ shared with a schizophrenic individual ________, the concordance rate _________

A

genes shared; decreases; decreases

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42
Q

Malfunctions of the _________ gene are closely associated with schizophrenia

A

DISC-1 gene

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43
Q

A few genes have been identified as abnormal in some schizophrenics. Several of those genes are involved in ___________

A

Synapse rearrangement

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44
Q

Older fathers are ________ likely to have a child with schizophrenia

A

more likely

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45
Q

Family, twin, and adoptive studies show a __________ incidence of schizophrenia among biological relatives

A

higher incidence

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46
Q

(True or False) Schizophrenia is fully heritable

A

False
(Schizophrenia is PARTLY heritable)

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47
Q

(True or False) A single gene causes and increases susceptibility to schizophrenia

A

False
(No single gene causes or increases susceptibility to schizophrenia)

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48
Q

What is an epigenetic factor of schizophrenia

A

Paternal age

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49
Q

Anatomical hallmarks of Schizophrenia

________ lateral ventricles and ________ frontal cortex gray matter
Smaller ______ and ________
_________ _________ of pyramidal cells in the hippocampus
Altered ________ and _______ of the corpus callosum
Reduced _________ activity in the _______ lobes

A

enlarged; reduced
hippocampus; amygdala
Disorganized arrangement
structure; function
metabolic activity; frontal lobes

50
Q

The hypofrontality hypothesis states that schizophrenia may be caused by ….

A

Underactivation of the frontal lobes

51
Q

________ generation antipsychotics block dopamine receptors in the __________ through the use of __________ antagonists

A

First generation; mesolimbic pathway; dopamine antagonists

52
Q

First gen antipsychotics lead to reduced ________

A

Positive symptoms

53
Q

Long term use of antipsychotics can lead to …

A

Tardive dyskinesia
Involuntary movements of the arms, legs, tongue, and facial muscles

54
Q

Antipsychotics for negative schizophrenic symptoms work on the …

A

Nigrostriatal pathways

55
Q

Antipsychotics for negative schizophrenic
block _______ which ordinarily increases dopamine release in the _______ cortex

A

serotonin; prefrontal

56
Q

What is the term for when drug doses are lowered, an upregulation of receptors occurs

A

Supersensitivity psychosis

57
Q

_______ binding affinity of medication means a smaller dose is needed

A

Higher

58
Q

_______ binding affinity of medication means a larger dose is needed

A

Lower

59
Q

Repetitive movements involving the face, mouth, lips, and tongue

A

Tardive dyskinesia

60
Q

The issues started below regard which hypothesis

Drugs block D2 receptors much faster (hours) than symptoms are reduced (weeks)
Some patients do not respond to dopamine antagonists at all

A

Dopamine hypothesis

61
Q

Second-gen antipsychotics are less likely to cause ____________, but some research shows that they are no more effective than first-generation antipsychotics

A

motor side effects

62
Q

The glutamate hypothesis states that schizophrenia is caused by …

A

underactivation of glutamate receptors

63
Q

The glutamate hypothesis is possibly accounts for the _______ in _______ cortex activity (AKA hypofrontality)

A

reduction; frontal

64
Q

_________, a second gen antipsychotic, blocks _________ receptors as well as _________ receptors

A

Clozapine; serotonin receptors; dopamine receptors

65
Q

(True or False) Second-gen antipsychotics have affinity for other receptors

A

True

66
Q

Compounds that increase ________ activity they are not possible treatment options because they cause ________

A

glutamatergic activity; seizures

67
Q

(Glutamate hypothesis) __________ produces both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Phencyclidine

68
Q

Other ______ receptor _________, like ketamine, produce effects similar to phencyclidine

A

NMDA; antagonists

69
Q

This is the ______ of schizophrenia

Modern view: schizophrenia is caused by the interaction of genetic factors and stress
Usually appears in adolescents or young adults
Prenatal stress
Exposure to influenza, low birth weight or lack of oxygen at birth
Stress of city living

A

Stress-Diathesis

70
Q

What kind of encoding is described below

Encoding of words and their meaning
Words with similar themes/categories are organized together

A

Semantic encoding

71
Q

What kind of encoding is described below

Encoding of sounds
The sounds of music and words are encoded, allowing us to remember songs, speeches, and more

A

Acoustic encoding

72
Q

What kind of encoding is described below

Encoding of images
Mental images are more easily encoded than abstract things that can’t be pictured

A

Visual encoding

73
Q

According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin Model of Memory, what are the 3 phases memory must pass through

A

Sensory buffer
Short-term memory
Long-term memory

74
Q

Stores sensory impressions that only last a few seconds

A

Sensory buffer

75
Q

What kind of memory involves temporary memories lasting hours to days and includes working memory

A

Short-term memory

76
Q

What kind of short-term memory is described below

Information is processed used and forgotten
Lasts about 30 seconds in the absence of rehearsal
Limited in capacity (7 chunks at a time)
Intermediate STM lasts hours, but still temporary

A

Working memory

77
Q

In Baddeley’s Working Memory Model, working memory is …

A

subdivided

78
Q

According to Baddeley’s Working Memory Model, working memory is subdivided into which 3 parts

A

Phonological loop
Visuospatial sketch pad
Episodic buffer

79
Q

Lesions of the _________ severely impair working memory

A

Prefrontal cortex

80
Q

According to Baddeley’s Working Memory Model, which subdivision of working memory contains more integrated, sensory information

A

Episodic buffer

81
Q

What are the two main properties of long-term potentiation

A

Specificity
Associativity

82
Q

What is the sustained activation of both the presynaptic cell and postsynaptic cell, simultaneously called

A

Long-term potentiation

83
Q

Long-term potentiation occurs in ___________ _________ of the hippocampal CA1 region

A

glutamatergic synapses

84
Q

Connections in the brain are _______ by _______

A

altered; experience

85
Q

Ability of the nervous system to change its activity in response to intrinsic or extrinsic stimuli by reorganizing its structure, functions, or connections

A

Plasticity

86
Q

_________ is made possible by the formation of new synapses (synaptogenesis) and the strengthening of existing synapses in the _________ and _________

A

Memory; hippocampus; cortex

87
Q

Long-term potentiation facilitates the …

A

strengthening of existing synapses

88
Q

Long-term potentiation increases ________ _________ to glutamate

A

postsynaptic sensitivity

89
Q

Which sleep stage is characterized by alpha rhythm activity (lower frequencies with vertex spikes)

A

NREM-1

90
Q

Which sleep stage is characterized by sleep spindles and K complexes

A

NREM-2

91
Q

Which sleep stage is characterized by low frequency waves and high amplitude delta waves

A

NREM-3 (Slow-wave sleep stage)

92
Q

Which sleep stage is known as paradoxical sleep and is characterized by

Rapid eye movement
Vivid dreaming
Increased heart rate
Rapid and irregular breathing
Eyes darting left to right in 30 second bursts
Muscle paralysis

A

REM (Stage 4)

93
Q

For individuals deprived of REM sleep, the duration of REM sleep increases the next time the individual goes to sleep. This is know as …

A

REM Rebound

94
Q

What is the common sleep cycle

A

NREM-1 => NREM-2 => NREM-3 => NREM-2 => REM

95
Q

Which sleep stage involves deep sleep

A

NREM-3

96
Q

_________ individuals have longer sleep cycles; _________ individuals have shorter sleep cycles and generally get _____ sleep

A

Younger individuals; older individuals; less sleep

97
Q

Mammals sleep more during ________ than in _________

A

infancy; adulthood

98
Q

What stage do most vivid dreams occur

A

REM

99
Q

Vivid dreams are associated with a lot of ____________ ________ activity in the posterior cortex region

A

high-frequency EEG activity

100
Q

Sleep may have played a protective role in evolution by enforcing …

A

niche adaptation

101
Q

What are some of the reasons why we sleep

A

By sleeping when predators are searching, prey species are safer

Sleep conserves energy

Sleep helps restore and repair damaged tissue

Glia cells are responsible for clearing debris, dead cells, and other things such as beta-amyloid build up

During slow-wave sleep (NREM3), the pituitary gland secretes growth hormone necessary for muscle development

Sleep helps strengthen neural connections that build enduring memories (helps with memory consolidation)

102
Q

Sleep helps consolidate ________ memory with ________ memory

A

short-term memory; long-term memory

103
Q

NREM sleep improves ….

A

Declarative memory

104
Q

Sleep deprivation increases likelihood of creating …

A

False memories

105
Q

REM sleep may help consolidate …

A

Nondeclarative memory

106
Q

After a period of sleep, new _________ form; _______ leads to a decrease in _________

A

dendritic spines; sleep deprivation; dendritic spines

107
Q

Sleep is an ________ state

A

active brain state

108
Q

Declarative memory is made up of memories that can be …

A

spoken

109
Q

Reticular formation is located in the …

A

brainstem

110
Q

What is this part

Activates the cortex
Electrical stimulation of this part awakens animals
Lesions to this part leads to persistent sleep
Basal forebrain and this part are responsible for guiding the brain between NREM3 and wakefulness

A

Reticular formation

111
Q

____________ is a specific region of the pons in the brain

A

 Subcoeruleus

112
Q

The subcoeruleus triggers _____ sleep

(Inhibits motor neurons during sleep)

A

REM sleep

113
Q

Tuberomammillary Nucleus is located in the …

A

hypothalamus

114
Q

Hypothalamus sends __________ to other sleep centers and the hypothalamic tuberomammillary nucleus

A

hypocretin projections known as orexin

115
Q

Loss of hypocretin cells can lead to conditions like …

A

Narcolepsy

116
Q

Tuberomammillary Nucleus enforces …

A

patterns of sleep

117
Q

Lesions to the subcoeruleus prevents ___________ during REM sleep

A

Loss of muscle tone

118
Q

Severing the _______ creates an _________ _________

A

midbrain; isolated forebrain

119
Q

Constant slow-wave sleep in the forebrain is generated by the _________

A

basal forebrain

120
Q

Severing the _________ leads to an isolated brain that exhibits __________

A

brain stem; all the stages of sleep

Behavioral Neuroscience Exam Tres (2 decks)

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